|
Question 1.
Which JavaScript keyword targets the parent of all parent files in a frameset?
A. parent
B. top
C. top
D. _parent
Answer: C
Question 2.
VBScript was the first scripting language developed for Webpage design.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 3.
__________ and __________ are interchangeable in JavaScript.
A. Methods and functions
B. Ojects and functions
C. Properties and attributes
D. Methods and properties
Answer: A
Question 4.
What should you use to evaluate multiple custom objects?
A. A statement
B. A variable
C. A function
D. A method
Answer: C
Question 5.
Consider the following code:
<script>
var x = 0;
for (i=0; i<5; i++) {
x += i;
}
alert("1+2+3+4 = " +x);
</script>
How many times will the program loop, and what will be the final value of x?
A. 5, 10
B. 4, 9
C. 4, 5
D. 5, 5
Answer: A
Question 6.
What will the following JavaScript code do when it runs?
<SCRIPT Language="JavaScript">
<!
var d=new Date;
var h=d.getHours();
var msg="";
var targ;
if(h<12)
msg="<h1>Good Morning!</h1>";
else if(h>=12 && h<18)
msg="<h1>Good Afternoon!</h1>";
else
msg="<h1>Good Evening!<h1>";
document.write(msg);
</SCRIPT>
A. It will write "Good Afternoon!'
B. If it is before noon, it will write "Good Morining!", if after noon but before 6 pm, "Good
Afternoon!" if after 6 pm, "Good Evening!"
C. It will write "Good Evening!"
D. It will write "Good Morning!'
Answer: B
Question 7.
Placing // in front of a line of text, within the Script tags will result in ______________
A. the command that follows being carried out
B. everything that follows being ignored
C. nothing, as this is not valid
D. everything to the end of the line being ignored.
Answer: D
Question 8.
The form element ___________ is used for a single-line text field used for data entry.
A. text
B. data box
C. data
D. textarea
Answer: A
Question 9.
What will the following JavaScript code do when it runs?
var content="";
content += "<HTML><HEAD><BASE TARGET='_blank'></HEAD>";
content += "<BODY BGCOLOR='#CC9966' TEXT='#330000'>";
content += "Related Sites".big().fontcolor("blue") + "<P>\n";
content += "These sites are of interest to ";
content += "Afrikunda".italics();
content += " patrons.<P>\n";
A. open a new window with new content
B. create content on the fly
C. nothing, it is invalid
D. overwrite each line with the previous line
Answer: B
Question 10.
In javascript, ++x+ will add one to the value of x after the assignment is complete.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question 11.
_______ represent various attributes of an object, such as height, color, font size, sentence length, and so forth.
A. Values
B. behaviors
C. Methods
D. Properties
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
A few small ITCertKeys locations use HFC cable to connect to the ITCertKeys WAN.
Which HFC cable network statement is true about the downstream data channel to the customer and the upstream data channel to the service provider?
A. The upstream data path is assigned a channel in a higher frequency range than the
downstream path has.
B. The downstream data path is assigned a 30 MHz channel and the upstream data path is
assigned a 1 MHz channel.
C. The downstream data path is assigned a fixed bandwidth channel and the upstream data path
uses a variable bandwidth channel.
D. Both upstream and downstream data paths are assigned in 6 MHz channels.
E. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC): A mixed optical-coaxial network in which optical fiber replaces some or all of the traditional trunk portion of the cable network. The HFC architecture is the evolution of an initial cable system and signifies a network that incorporates both optical fiber along with coaxial cable to create a broadband network. By upgrading a cable plant to an HFC architecture, you can deploy a data network over an HFC system to offer high-speed Internet services and you can serve more subscribers. The cable network is segmented into smaller service areas in which fewer amplifiers are cascaded after each optical node-typically five or fewer. The tree-and-branch network architecture for HFC can be a fiber backbone, cable area network, superdistribution, fiber to the feeder, or a ring.
Downstream: An RF signal transmission (TV channels, data) from source (headend) to the destination (subscribers). Downstream is also called a forward path.
Upstream: An RF signal transmission opposite to downstream-from subscribers to the headend. Upstream is also called a return or reverse path.
Delivering services over a cable network requires different RF frequencies-the outgoing frequencies are in the 50-to-860 MHz range, the incoming are in the 5-to-42 MHz range. To deliver data services over a cable network TV channels which usually operate at 6 MHz range for the downstream, and 6 MHz or less (for asymmetric cable connections) for upstream traffic from the corresponding frequency range are usually used.
Question 2.
Many small ITCertKeys branch offices use broadband cable for data connection access.
Which three modulation signaling standards are used in broadband cable technology? (Select three)
A. S-Video
B. NTSC
C. SECAM
D. PAL
E. FEC
F. FDM
G. MLP
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
Broadband: Data transmission where multiple pieces of data are sent simultaneously to increase the effective rate of transmission. In cable systems, the term broadband refers to the frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) of many signals in a wide radio frequency (RF) bandwidth over an HFC network, and the capability to handle vast amounts of information. NTSC is a North American TV technical standard for analog TV systems. The standard was created in 1941 and is named after the National Television System Committee formed in 1940. The standard uses a 6-MHz modulated signal. PAL is a color encoding system used in broadcast television systems in most of Europe, Asia, Africa, Australia, Brazil, and Argentina, and uses a 6-MHz, 7-MHz, or 8-MHz modulated signal. The color difference signals an alternate phase at the horizontal line rate. SECAM is an analog color TV system used in France and certain Eastern European countries that uses an 8-MHz modulated signal.
Question 3.
Some of the smaller ITCertKeys locations use HFC cable to connect to the ITCertKeys WAN.
Which two statements are true about broadband cable (HFC) systems? (Select two)
A. Cable modems operate at Layers 1, 2, and 3 of the OSI model.
B. Cable modems operate at Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model.
C. A function of the cable modem termination system is to convert the digital data stream from the
end user host into a modulated RF signal for transmission onto the cable system.
D. Cable modems only operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
E. A function of the cable modem termination system (CMTS) is to convert the modulated signal
from the cable modem into a digital signal.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC): A mixed optical-coaxial network in which optical fiber replaces some or all of the traditional trunk portion of the cable network. The HFC architecture is the evolution of an initial cable system and signifies a network that incorporates both optical fiber along with coaxial cable to create a broadband network. By upgrading a cable plant to an HFC architecture, you can deploy a data network over an HFC system to offer high-speed Internet services and you can serve more subscribers. The cable network is segmented into smaller service areas in which fewer amplifiers are cascaded after each optical node-typically five or fewer. The tree-and-branch network architecture for HFC can be a fiber backbone, cable area network, superdistribution, fiber to the feeder, or a ring.
Question 4.
A ITCertKeys remote user is getting Internet access from the local cable provider.
When an individual is connected to the Internet by way of a CATV cable service, what kind of traffic is considered upstream traffic?
A. Traffic going from the user's home traveling to the headend.
B. Broadcast traffic, including the cable TV signals.
C. Traffic between the headend and the TV signal.
D. Traffic between the headend and the supplier antenna.
E. Traffic from outside the local cable segment serving the user's home.
F. All of the above can be considered upstream
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the CATV space, the downstream channels in a cable plant (cable head-end to subscribers) is a point-to-multipoint channel. This does have very similar characteristics to transmitting over an Ethernet segment where one transmitter is being listened to by many receivers. The major difference is that base-band modulation has been replaced by a more densely modulated RF carrier with very sophisticated adaptive signal processing and forward error correction (FEC). In the upstream direction (subscriber cable modems transmitting towards the head-end) the environment is many transmitters and one receiver. This introduces the need for precise scheduling of packet transmissions to achieve high utilization and precise power control so as to not overdrive the receiver or other amplifier electronics in the cable system. Since the upstream direction is like a single receiver with many antennas, the channels are much more susceptible to interfering noise products. In the cable industry, we generally call this ingress noise. As ingress noise is an inherent part of CATV plants, the observable impact is an unfortunate rise in the average noise floor in the upstream channel. To overcome this noise jungle, upstream modulation is not as dense as in the downstream and we have to use more effective FEC as used in the downstream.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/759/ipj_1-3/ipj_1-3_catv.html
Question 5.
A new cable modem was shipped to the home of a ITCertKeys user, where it is being installed for the first time.
When a DOCSIS 1.1 compliant cable modem first initializes, (boots up) what does it do?
A. Establishes IP connectivity (DHCP).
B. Determines the time of day.
C. Requests a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. Scan for a downstream channel and the establishment of timing synchronization with the
CMTS.
E. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the DOCSIS (Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications) when you first power up a cable modem it starts scanning (starting at a low frequency) for a cable signal. When it 'hears' a cable modem stream it listens for a broadcast (from the service provider) which contains information (ie. frequency) needed to talk back with the head end. It then 'talks back' and if it communicates the right authentication information, it is allowed to proceed.
References:
Page 225 of the CCNP Self-Study BCRAN (642-821) ISBN: 1-58720-084-8
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/cable/ps2217/products_feature_guide_chapter09186a008019b57f.htm
Question 6.
You are building a small network at your home and you intend on connecting your cable modem to a Cisco router.
Which router interface would you connect the modem to?
A. Synchronous serial
B. Asynchronous serial
C. Ethernet
D. auxiliary
E. BRI
Answer: C
Explanation:
In certain environments where a non Cisco Cable Modem (CM) is used, and the CM is only capable of bridging, a Cisco router such as the Cisco 806 can be connected to the Cable Modem via the Ethernet interface. The routing can then be performed by the Cisco router behind the Cable Modem and the Client PC or Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) will be connected to the Cisco router. Network Address Translation (NAT) can then be configured on the Cisco router.
When the Cisco router is connected behind the Cable Modem the first problem that might be encountered is not obtaining an IP address dynamically on the Cisco router's Ethernet interface. Most Internet Service Providers (ISPs) allow only one host or PC behind the Cable Modem. Some ISPs assign an IP address to the PC based on the host name. Therefore, if you have a Cisco router behind the Cable Modem, then the host name for the router configured using the hostname command should be the same host name given by the ISP.
Example:
Question 7.
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream
path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
According to the DOCSIS (Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications) when you first power up a cable modem it starts scanning (starting at a low frequency) for a cable signal. When it 'hears' a cable modem stream it listens for a broadcast (from the service provider) which contains information (ie. frequency) needed to talk back with the head end. It then 'talks back' and if it communicates the right authentication information, it is allowed to proceed. Once these steps are completed, layers 1 and 2 will be operational.
Question 8.
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own
television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from
noise or other signals.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Developed by CableLabs and approved by the ITU in March 1998, Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) defines interface standards for cable modems and supporting equipment. In a cable TV system, signals from the various channels are each given a 6-MHz slice of the cable's available bandwidth and then sent down the cable to your house. In some systems, coaxial cable is the only medium used for distributing signals.
When a cable company offers Internet access over the cable, Internet information can use the same cables because the cable modem system puts downstream data -- data sent from the Internet to an individual computer -- into a 6-MHz channel. On the cable, the data looks just like a TV channel. So Internet downstream data takes up the same amount of cable space as any single channel of programming. Upstream data -- information sent from an individual back to the Internet -- requires even less of the cable's bandwidth, just 2 MHz, since the assumption is that most people download far more information than they upload.
Question 9.
ITCertKeys operates a DSL network. What does the "dsl operating-mode auto" command configure on a Cisco router?
A. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper modulation method to use when
connecting an ATM interface.
B. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper DSL type (ADSL, IDSL, HDSL,
VDSL) to use when connecting an ATM interface.
C. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper encapsulation method to use
when connecting an ATM interface.
D. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper authentication method to use
when connecting an ATM interface.
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
dsloperating-mode auto interface configuration command to specify that the router automatically detect the DSL modulation that the service provider is using and set the DSL modulation to match. An incompatible DSL modulation configuration can result in failure to establish a DSL connection to the DSLAM of the service provider
Example:
Question 10.
ITCertKeys is a DSL service provider using providing xDSL to its customers.
Which statement about xDSL implementations is true?
A. All xDSL standards operate in lower frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore
coexist on the same media.
B. Other than providing higher data rates, HDSL is identical to ADSL.
C. The ADSL standard operates in higher frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore
coexist on the same media.
D. The HDSL standard operates in higher frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore
coexist on the same media.
E. All xDSL standards operate in higher frequencies than the POTS system and therefore can
coexist on the same media.
F. None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation:
DSL is not a complete end-to-end solution, but rather a physical layer transmission technology similar to dial, cable, or wireless. DSL connections are deployed in the "last mile" of a local telephone network-the local loop. The connection is set up between a pair of modems on either end of a copper wire extending between the customer premises equipment (CPE) and the DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM). A DSLAM is the device located at the central office (CO) of the provider and concentrates connections from multiple DSL subscribers. The term xDSL covers a number of DSL variations, such as ADSL, high-data-rate DSL (HDSL), Rate Adaptive DSL (RADSL), symmetric DSL (SDSL), ISDN DSL (IDSL), and very-high-data-rate DSL (VDSL). DSL types not using the voice frequencies band allow DSL lines to carry both data and voice signals simultaneously (for example, ADSL and VDSL), while other DSL types occupying the complete frequency range can carry data only (for example, SDSL and IDSL). Data service provided by a DSL connection is always-on. The data rate that DSL service can provide depends upon the distance between the subscriber and the CO. The smaller the distance, the higher data rate can be achieved. If close enough to a CO offering DSL service, the subscriber might be able to receive data at rates of up to 6.1 Mbps out of a theoretical 8.448 Mbps maximum.
|
Question 1. ITCertKeys.com wants to use distinct security policies for different departments. What must be configured? A. individual security level for each department B. separate ACL group for each department C. distinct VLAN for each department D. unique firewall context for each department Answer: D Question 2. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. ITCertKeysA, ITCertKeysB, C, and ITCertKeys4 each represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services? A. model ITCertKeysB B. model C C. model ITCertKeysA D. model ITCertKeysD Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following attack types should be mitigated in the data center core layer? A. IP spoofing B. MAC address spoofing C. port scans D. DDoS attacks Answer: D Question 4. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs? A. looped triangle B. loop-free inverted U C. loop-free U D. looped square Answer: C Question 5. Which type of HPC application requires low latency? A. financial analytics B. seismic and geophysical modeling C. digital image rendering D. finite element analysis Answer: D Question 6. Which statement best describes the data center core layer? A. provides a resilient Layer 2 routed fabric B. load balances traffic between the core and aggregation layers C. is typically merged with the campus core layer D. connects to the campus aggregation layer Answer: B Question 7. Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies? A. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger C. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller D. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger Answer: B Question 8. What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments? A. simpler cabling B. longer distance support C. more sophisticated traffic management D. lower latency Answer: D Question 9. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Where is Layer 2 adjacency required? A. server-to-server only B. aggregation-to-access only C. aggregation-to-access and access-to-server D. access-to-server only Answer: D Question 10. According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection model, which security feature is recommended for the data center core layer? A. prefix filtering B. Dynamic ARP Inspection C. traffic rate limiting D. control plane protection Answer: D
|
Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F
Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F
Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco
technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements
of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help
deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the
customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A
Question 11.
Your ITCertKeys trainee, ITCertKeys, asks you which of the following three tasks are executed in the security administration component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)
A. utilization monitoring
B. customer operational account creation
C. identity management
D. security incident management
E. security configuration management
F. security problem escalation
Answer: C, D, E
|
Question 1.
Examine the following options, which access list will permit HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?
A. access-list 101 permittcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
B. access-list 101permit tcp any eq 3030
C. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
Answer: D
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below.
Answer:
Question 3.
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?
A. Roughly 50 percent
B. Roughly 66 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 10 percent
Answer: A
Question 4.
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below:
Within the "sdm-permit" policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class "class default"?
A. inspect
B. drop
C. police
D. pass
Answer: B
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
Answer:
Question 6.
Which description is correct based on the exhibit and partial configuration?
A. All traffic destined for network 172.16.150.0 will be denied due to the implicitdeny all.
B. All traffic from network 10.0.0.0 will be permitted.
C. Access-list 101 will prevent address spoofing from interface E0.
D. This ACL will prevent any host on the Internet from spoofing the inside network address as the
source address for packets coming into the router from the Internet.
Answer: C
Question 7.
For the following items ,which one can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1?
A. pre-shared key
B. integrity check value
C. XAUTH
D. Diffie-Hellman Nonce
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which description about asymmetric encryption algorithms is correct?
A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data.
B. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.
C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
D. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data.
Answer: C
Question 9.
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?
A. OTP
B. OOB
C. SAFE
D. MARS
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?
A. L2F tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. GRE tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?
A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate
solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?
A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?
A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning
capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones
Answer: A
Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?
A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?
A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?
A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Answer: D
|
Question 1. A customer is concerned about growth of the company's HP Data Protector Software database. Which tool will address this concern? A. HPStorageWorks sizing tool B. HP Data Protector databasesizer C. Database Configuration Worksheet D. Capacity Planning Spreadsheet Answer: D Question 2. What is the term for a configuration where failure of a single component does not cause failure of the entire system? A. hot-swappable B. NSPOF C. high availability D. SFP Answer: B Question 3. You are proposing an HP Storage Essentials SRM Enterprise Edition solution for a customer environment using only Oracle databases. You have decided to design a single server deployment. What is another term for this configuration? A. shared B. dedicated C. mixed D. isolated Answer: A Question 4. Which HP Storage Essentials SRM pluG. ins are available for the Enterprise Edition, but not for Standard Edition? (Select three.) A. Report Designer B. Backup Manager C. Provisioning Manager D. NAS Manager E. Database Viewer F. Chargeback Manager Answer: A, C, F Question 5. Which statement is correct about Remote Web Console? A. It can manage all XP firmware based software. B. It can provide centralized management of multiple XP arrays. C. Licensing is tier based on a per TB basis. D. It provides SAN level management. Answer: A Question 6. When must a customer use HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP? A. for CLI based array management B. for centralized management of multiple XP arrays C. for Business Copy XP management D. for simple LUN management Answer: B Question 7. You are designing a backup solution for an Enterprise customer. Which ratio between host feed speed and tape write speed is required for optimal performance in compressed mode? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 Answer: C Question 8. Which HP document provides current configuration rules for HP storage connectivity in a SAN environment? A. San Visibility Tool B. SAN Design Reference Guide C. EBS Compatibility Matrix D. Quick Specs Answer: B Question 9. Which VLS6000 feature allows data movement to a physical library or another virtual library system? A. Automigration B. Virtual Tape Device Mirroring C. Virtual Cartridge Copy D. Deduplication Answer: A Question 10. DRAG DROP Click the Task button. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Answer: Explanation:
|
Question 2.
A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM). While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches from Microsoft.
What happens to that script?
A. System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B. Any snapshots andsnapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C. Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D. The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Answer: C
Question 3.
What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low performance impact?
A. A latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
B. A latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
C. A4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
D. An8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A. Replica snapshot
B. Dynamic snapshot
C. Instantaneous snapshot
D. Virtual snapshot
Answer: D
Question 5.
When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A. Replication Solution Manager host agent
B. HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C. HPStorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D. HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A. Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual
Arrays is supported.
B. OneEnterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
C. Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual
Array.
D. Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual
Arrays is supported.
E. OneEnterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise
Virtual Arrays.
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A. 1:4
B. 2:4
C. 3:1
D. 4:2
Answer: C
Question 8.
When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are required?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C
Question 9.
Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages.
Which statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A. NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure
with 16 server blades.
B. You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches
inCClass blade enclosures.
C. In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade
enclosures.
D. NPIV makes a singleFibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own
N_Port ID and virtual WWN.
E. NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric
OS so that it can e consistently managed with the F.
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state, is
A. Automatically updated whenever the sourceVdisk is updated?
B. Synchronizedmirrorclones
C. Synchronous Continuous Access
D. Synchronized containers
E. Enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software provide?
A. The ability to provision storage on the fly
B. The ability to monitor EVAVdisks and DR groups
C. The ability to monitorVdisk performance and relocate as required
D. The ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Answer: D
Question 12.
You are implementing a Continuous Access EVA solution for a customer who is replicating between two EVA4400 arrays. Which statement is true about snapclones of Vdisks that are members of a DR group?
A. While asnapclone is being normalized, another snapclone of the same source can be created.
B. Asnapclone must be in a different disk group than the source Vdisk to be replicated.
C. Thesnapclone of a Vdisk can be used only after the actual data has been copied to the
duplicate volume.
D. When the source disk has a snapshot,snapclones cannot be created.
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
Which SiteScope tools may be used to troubleshoot URL Monitor problems? (Select four.)
A. Ping
B. Network
C. Trace Route
D. DNS Lookup
E. Check URL Sequence
F. Get URL and URL Content
Answer: A, C, D, F
Question 2.
What is business process grouping or hierarchy?
A. a method of grouping individual monitors by their business owners
B. a method of grouping individual monitors by Business Process Monitoring (BPM)
C. a method of grouping individual monitors by prioritizing their level of importance to the
business
D. a method of grouping individual monitors which target components of specific Business
Services
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following may be used as a heartbeat monitor in SiteScope? (Select three.)
A. DNS lookup
B. Ping monitor
C. Log file monitor
D. Process monitor
E. Websphere monitor
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
What SiteScope features are needed to turn off monitoring for a specific server during planned downtime? (Select two.)
A. Security
B. Log files
C. Schedules
D. Heartbeats
E. Dependencies
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
What causes a SiteScope instance to contain an excessive number of individual Alerts? (Select two.)
A. too many top-level groups
B. monitor-focused alerting approach
C. number of systems being monitored
D. type of alerts being configured withinSiteScope
E. type of monitoring being performed on the system
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
Which statement best describes the differences in the Auto discovery mode between Windows and UNIX remote servers?
A. Auto-discovery only works for UNIX remote servers.
B. Auto-discovery is the same when adding Windows remote server or UNIX remote server.
C. Auto-discovery will only work when adding a Windows remote server to a UNIX remote server.
D. Unlike Windows remote servers, there is no auto-discovery when adding a UNIX remote
server.
Answer: D
Question 7.
What causes a Monitor Skip to occur?
A. lower then normal system traffic
B. higher than normal system traffic
C. a new monitor instance attempts to run while its previous instance is still running
D. a new monitor instance attempts to run while its previous instance completes running
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the total monitor capacity for each SiteScope server?
A. 500
B. 8000
C. 1000
D. 20000
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is an adequate bandwidth for optimum SiteScope performance?
A. 5mbps
B. 10mbps
C. 256kbps
D. 100kbps
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the name of the executable used for running process pooling?
A. Perfex.exe
B. Scope.exe
C. Pooling.exe
D. SiteScope.exe
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: A, D, G
Question 2.
Click the Exhibit button.
Which actions can be done without interruption to pkg1? (Select two.)
A. cmhaltcl -f
B. cmrunpkg -v ws1
C. cfsumount /cfspkg1
D. cmhaltnode haatc01
E. cmhaltnode haatc02
Answer: B, E
Question 3.
You have an application package pkg1 configured that has a dependency on the CFS mount point package SG-CFS-MP-webdata that represents the mountpoint
A. Currently the package is running onnodeA and the /cfs/web_data CFS is only mounted on
node
A. Which command sequences can be executed on nodeA to B. (Select two.)
B. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cmrunpkg pkg1
C. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cmrunpkg -n nodeB pkg1
D. cfsmount /dev/web_data nodeB; cmmovepkg -n nodeB pkg1
E. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cmrunpkg -n nodeB SG-CFS-MP-webdata pkg1
F. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cfsmount /cfs/web_data; cmrunpkg -n nodeB pkg1
G. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cfsmount /cfs/web_data nodeB; cmrunpkg -n nodeB pkg1
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
After implementing a highly available Oracle database instance utilizing a template from the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit, a DBA wants to perform offline maintenance while keeping all filesystems mounted and the relocatable IP address available.
What is the best method to accomplish this?
A. Enable the maintenance flag and perform database maintenance.
B. Shutdown the database instance and set the maintenance flag variable.
C. Pause database instance monitoring and move the package over to the adoptive node.
D. Halt the package, activate the volume group in exclusive mode and mount the file systems.
Answer: A
Question 5.
For the package "nfs_pkg", which commands create modular and legacy style package configuration file templates for a basic failover package? (Select two.)
A. cmquerycl -v -p nfs_pkg.cntl
B. cmquerycl -v -s nfs_pkg.conf
C. cmmakepkg -v -s nfs_pkg.cntl
D. cmmakepkg -v -p nfs_pkg.conf
E. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/basic $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.cntl
F. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/basic $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.conf
G. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/failover $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.cntl
H. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/failover $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.conf
Answer: D, H
Question 6.
Which changes can be made to a running cluster or package without causing an interruption in service? (Choose two.)
A. adding a subnet
B. adding a service
C. modifying the hostname
D. modifying the cluster name
E. modiyfing the node time out
F. modifying the package failover policy
Answer: E, F
Question 7.
In a Serviceguard environment, which feature provides the opportunity to perform rolling upgrades on the application software by temporarily moving a package to another system?
A. local application binaries
B. shared application binaries
C. temporary dual Quorum disk
D. temporary mirrored root volumes
E. dynamic root disk (DRD) on all cluster nodes
Answer: A
Question 8.
In the event of a failure, which parameter in the cluster configuration allows the cluster software to reset (TOC or INIT) the node on which packages are running?
A. NODE_UP_VALUE ON
B. NODE_TIMEOUT YES
C. PKG_FAIL_FAST_ENABLED YES
D. NODE_FAIL_FAST_ENABLED YES
E. AUTO_START_TIMEOUT ENABLED
F. RESOURCE_STOP AUTOMATIC
Answer: D
Question 9.
For Serviceguard troubleshooting, which log files should be configured across cluster nodes to utilize the Distributed Systems Administration Utilities (DSAU) log consolidation feature? (Select two.)
A. syslog file
B. LVM log file
C. EMS log file
D. cluster log file
E. package log files
Answer: A, E
Question 10.
The final step to create a 2-node cluster is to issue the command cmapplyconf.
In which state should the cluster lock volume group be in before issuing the cmapplyconf command?
A. deactivated on both nodes
B. activated in standard mode on both nodes
C. activated in standard mode on the node where the command is issued
D. activated in exclusive mode on the node where the command is issued
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which statements are correct regarding a Serviceguard cluster with SGeRAC and Oracle RAC? (Select two.)
A. If CFS is used then RAW devices are not allowed.
B. Each Oracle instance must have its own unique database.
C. SGeRAC cannot be configured together with Cluster File System (CFS).
D. The shared disk devices can be a SLVM raw device, CFS, or Oracle ASM raw device.
E. You can have more than one Oracle instance accessing the same database at the same time.
Answer: D, E
Question 12.
You created a 2-node Serviceguard CFS cluster including one disk group, dg-apache, and one volume, cfsvol01, to be mounted at the shared mount point /apache-data without explicitly naming the diskgroup or mount point package. Now you want to create an application package that uses data from the /apache-data cluster file system.
How do you define the storage for this application package in the package configuration file?
A. DEPENDENCY_NAMEdg-apache
B. DEPENDENCY_CONDITIONdg-apache=UP
C. DEPENDENCY_LOCATIONSAME_NODE
D. DEPENDENCY_NAMESG-CFS-MP-1
E. DEPENDENCY_CONDITIONSG-CFS-MP-1=UP
F. DEPENDENCY_LOCATIONSAME_NODE
G. CVM_DG[0]=dg-apache
H. LV[0]=/dev/vx/dsk/dg-apache/cfsvol01; FS[0]=/apache-data; FS_MOUNT_OPT[0]="-o rw";
I. FS_UMOUNT_OPT[0]=""; FS_FSCK_OPT[0]=""; FS_TYPE[0]="vxfs"
J. CVM_DG[0]=SG-CFS-MP-1
K. LV[0]=/dev/vx/dsk/dg-apache/cfsvol01; FS[0]=/apache-data; FS_MOUNT_OPT[0]="-o rw";
L. FS_UMOUNT_OPT[0]=""; FS_FSCK_OPT[0]=""; FS_TYPE[0]="vxfs"
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which cluster arbitration methods are supported in an HP-UX Serviceguard cluster environment? (Select three.)
A. Lock LUN
B. HBAPVLink LUN
C. Linux Quorum server
D. CFS cluster lock disk
E. LVM Cluster lock disk
F. Windows Quorum server
Answer: A, C, E
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.