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Question 1.
Which layer of the OSI model provides flow control?
A. Presentation.
B. Transport.
C. Network.
D. Data link.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The transport layer, layer 4, provides end-to-end flow control.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Presentation layer (layer 6) deals with data preparation, which includes code conversion and encryption. Flow control is handled by the lower layers.
C: The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for IP Addressing of the host and routing decisions. It is not concerned with flow control.
D: The data link layer also does some flow control, as it manages node-to-node frame transfer. However, having to pick between the two, I have selected Transport.
Question 2.
Which of the following choices lists the correct sequence for the events of the DHCP initialization process?
A. Discover, offer, request, acknowledge.
B. Request, discover, offer, acknowledge.
C. Offer, acknowledge, request, discover.
D. Discover, request, offer, acknowledge.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Think DORA. The first packet that goes out is a discovery packet which has the responsibility to seeking out and discovering a DHCP server. It is the request saying that: “hey – I need an IP address”. The DHCP server, or servers if there are more than one, may offer an IP address to the client. The client, will receive the offer, and if there are more than one DHCP server, the client will receive multiple offers. The client must now choose from the available offers (usually takes the first offer to make it simple) and now makes the formal request, saying: “May I have this IP address”. Finally, the DHCP server should acknowledge and say: ‘Yes”. Explanation that it is possible that the DHCP server timed out and gave the address away to someone else, so the acknowledgement is important.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These sequences are not the correct order.
Question 3.
Lars just cleared the TCP/IP network information from his Windows NT 4.0 workstation. Which command should he use to receive new configuration?
A. Ipconfig /release
B. Ipconfig /renew
C. Ipconfig /clear
D. Ipconfig /reset
Answer: B
Explanation:
To have a new configuration assigned immediately, a renew is issued.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the actual command that was used to do the clear of the information. Now, after releasing the current configuration, the adapter will eventually go out and get a new configuration. There are some differences between Windows NT and Windows 2000, for example Windows 2000 - if it doesn't get a DHCP response, will generate an APIPA, which is a special private IP address. However, the thing to note here is that after a release the system MAY eventually receive a new configuration, where using the renew parameter will request the information be assigned immediately.
C, D: There are no such parameters for the ipconfig command.
Question 4.
What is the default class A subnet mask?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. 255.0.0.0 is a Class A default subnet mask.
Incorrect Answers:
B: 255.255.0.0 is a Class B default subnet mask.
C: 25.255.255.0 is a Class C default subnet mask.
D: 255.255.255.255 is not really a subnet mask, a subnet mask separates a network from a host. In this case just the full address is used.
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Question 1.
Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?
A. DVD.DL
B. CD.RW
C. CD.R
D. DVD.R
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. \\computername\sharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
\\computername\sharename is a net command that manages network print jobs and IP_ip_address is a static IP address that is configured on a network printer so that it can be seen on the network by a computer. This address can be verified from printer's configuration.
Question 3.
While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports.
Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The chassis of a PC is designed for proper internal airflow across the various components. However, if your PC's enclosures are open, then the cooling of the PC changes dramatically. The cooling of some components can be reduced or totally eliminated and can cause damage.
Question 4.
Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The port 80 is associated with HTTP TCP/IP protocol.
Question 5.
Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
To find the port that your printer is currently using, you need to open the properties of the printer from the Printer's Control Panel
Question 6.
Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).
A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.
B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The printers IP address has changed.
E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
The possible cause of the problem in this case is that either a job in error status is at the top of the print queue or the IP address of the printer has changed. Sometimes, certain print codes in the file that is printing can confuse the print job and the job gets stuck in the print queue. The printer would not start printing again till that print job is removed from the queue. Sometime if the IP address of the printer is changed you cannot print. To find this problem you can ping the printer from your computer.
Question 7.
Which of the following connector types is used with twisted pair cable?
A. T-Connector
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. LC
Answer: C
Explanation:
With twisted pair cable you can use RJ-45 connector. The UTP ( unshilded twisted pair) cable often is installed using a Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector. The RJ-45 is an eight-wire connector used commonly to connect computers onto a local-area network (LAN), especially Ethernets
Question 8.
Which of the following bus speeds is used for a PCIe card? (Select TWO).
A. 1x
B. 3x
C. 6x
D. 8x
E. 24x
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
For a PCIe or PCI expansion card, 1x and 8x bus speeds can be used.
Question 9.
A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. How would a technician walk the user through checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer?
A. Start>Run>typeipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results.
B. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the
results.
C. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
D. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Ipconfig command is used to find the IP configuration information of a computer. The Syntax IPCONFIG /all displays full configuration information. You can type the Ipconfig command by clicking Start->Run and then typing cmd to open the command prompt to type the ipconfig command.
Question 10.
Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server?
A. Secures network traffic through shared key encryption.
B. Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.
C. Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
D. Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of DNS is the mapping of IP addresses to human readable names. The DNS server strictly functions as an ip address lookup for a given domain name.
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Question 1. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with the error message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue? A. A virus has infected the system B. Corrupted BOOT.INI file C. Corrupt MBR D. Boot sector corruption Answer: C Explanation: The Master Boot Record (MBR) is the operating system information stored in the first sector of any hard disk .It locates and loads the operating system into the computer's main storage or random access memory. If for any reason, the Master Boot Record becomes damaged or corrupt, then the operating system will be unable to load and the message Error loading operating system will be displayed. Question 2. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next? A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot. B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media. C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT. D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted. Answer: B Question 3. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the MOST common tool used to identify the issue? A. Cable tester B. Multimeter C. Loop back plugs D. Crossover cable Answer: A Explanation: Cable tester is a simple instrument that can help in detecting mis -wired and incomplete network cables. A multimeter is used to test the voltage, a loop back plug is used to test the loopback connectivity of a device and the crossover cable is used to connect two network devices. Question 4. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the NTLDR is missing display upon booting? A. Use recovery console and thefixmbr command. B. Use recovery console and thebootcfg /rebuild command. C. Use recovery console and thefixboot command. D. Use recovery console and thechkdsk command. Answer: C Question 5. A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they are unable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets the following output: IP address169.254.2.4 Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0 Default Gateway. Which of the following could be causing the issue? A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured. B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer. C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. D. The default gateway is not specified. Answer: C Explanation: The problem here is the inability of DHCP client to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. One of the most common DHCP server problems is the failure of clients to obtain configuration from a working server, which results in such connection issues. Question 6. A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. The system has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higher than normal activity when opening large files. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose and troubleshoot this problem? A. Task Manager B. NTBACKUP C. FDISK D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: D Explanation: To fix the problem, in this case you should use the Disk Defragmenter. It is a computer program designed to increase access speed of files by rearranging them on the disk so that they occupy contiguous storage locations. The purpose defragmenting is to optimize the time taken to read and write files to/from the disk and maximizing the transfer rate. Question 7. A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. A dead CMOS battery B. The OS is not installed on the hard drive C. A faulty RAM D. A faulty HDD connection Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the problem is the faulty HDD connection. This error occurs when the Master boot record (MBR) is not found on the system. The MBR is present on the first sector of the hard disk. In this case the system is unable to get the MBR due to the faulty HDD connection Question 8. A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. They are using the wrong WEP key. B. They have been infected with malware. C. They have lost Internet connectivity. D. They need to update their network device drivers. Answer: B Explanation: When your computer is affected with a malware then you will not be able to change the home page of the web browser of your computer. This is because malware prevents you from doing that. Every time you try to change it, you will be redirected to another page. This is one of the most common symptoms of a spyware infected computer. Question 9. A technician needs to check which ports are open in the Windows Firewall. Which of the following will allow the technician to view these settings? A. netsh firewall show logging B. ipconfig /all C. netsh firewall show state D. arp -a Answer: C Explanation: To find out the ports open in the Windows Firewall, you need to use netsh firewall show state command. This command ishows current state of Windows Firewall and you can see the state of all the ports. Question 10. Which of the following are methods to automatically update the antivirus application? (Select TWO). A. Establish rules in the email scheduling program to perform updates. B. Select Update Now from the program options. C. Use the Automatic Update feature built into the application. D. Use scripts. E. Use Windows Update. Answer: C, D
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Question 1.
Examine the following options, which access list will permit HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?
A. access-list 101 permittcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
B. access-list 101permit tcp any eq 3030
C. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
Answer: D
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below.
Answer:
Question 3.
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?
A. Roughly 50 percent
B. Roughly 66 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 10 percent
Answer: A
Question 4.
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below:
Within the "sdm-permit" policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class "class default"?
A. inspect
B. drop
C. police
D. pass
Answer: B
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
Answer:
Question 6.
Which description is correct based on the exhibit and partial configuration?
A. All traffic destined for network 172.16.150.0 will be denied due to the implicitdeny all.
B. All traffic from network 10.0.0.0 will be permitted.
C. Access-list 101 will prevent address spoofing from interface E0.
D. This ACL will prevent any host on the Internet from spoofing the inside network address as the
source address for packets coming into the router from the Internet.
Answer: C
Question 7.
For the following items ,which one can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1?
A. pre-shared key
B. integrity check value
C. XAUTH
D. Diffie-Hellman Nonce
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which description about asymmetric encryption algorithms is correct?
A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data.
B. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.
C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
D. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data.
Answer: C
Question 9.
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?
A. OTP
B. OOB
C. SAFE
D. MARS
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?
A. L2F tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. GRE tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel
Answer: D
Question 11.
As a candidate for CCNA examination, when you are familiar with the basic commands, if you input the command "enable secret level 5 password" in the global mode , what does it indicate?
A. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
C. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
D. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
E. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
Answer: C
Question 12.
Examine the following options ,when editing global IPS settings, which one determines if the IOSbased IPS feature will drop or permit traffic for a particular IPS signature engine while a new signature for that engine is being compiled?
A. Enable Signature Default
B. Enable Engine Fail Closed
C. Enable Default IOS Signature
D. Enable Fail Opened
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?
A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate
solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?
A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?
A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning
capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones
Answer: A
Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?
A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?
A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?
A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Answer: D
Question 11.
Why is a risk management strategy needed?
A. It would take into consideration theft of data as a major risk.
B. The network can never be 100 percent secure.
C. This will determine the risk/cost value.
D. Each risk is equally detrimental to security.
Answer: B
Question 12.
Which three elements should an enterprise security policy specify? (Choose three.)
A. contingency plan in case of compromise
B. network inventory
C. risks and how to manage the risks
D. software versions of the security products
E. user roles and responsibilities
F. funds allocated to security projects
Answer: A, C, E
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Question 1. A customer is concerned about growth of the company's HP Data Protector Software database. Which tool will address this concern? A. HPStorageWorks sizing tool B. HP Data Protector databasesizer C. Database Configuration Worksheet D. Capacity Planning Spreadsheet Answer: D Question 2. What is the term for a configuration where failure of a single component does not cause failure of the entire system? A. hot-swappable B. NSPOF C. high availability D. SFP Answer: B Question 3. You are proposing an HP Storage Essentials SRM Enterprise Edition solution for a customer environment using only Oracle databases. You have decided to design a single server deployment. What is another term for this configuration? A. shared B. dedicated C. mixed D. isolated Answer: A Question 4. Which HP Storage Essentials SRM pluG. ins are available for the Enterprise Edition, but not for Standard Edition? (Select three.) A. Report Designer B. Backup Manager C. Provisioning Manager D. NAS Manager E. Database Viewer F. Chargeback Manager Answer: A, C, F Question 5. Which statement is correct about Remote Web Console? A. It can manage all XP firmware based software. B. It can provide centralized management of multiple XP arrays. C. Licensing is tier based on a per TB basis. D. It provides SAN level management. Answer: A Question 6. When must a customer use HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP? A. for CLI based array management B. for centralized management of multiple XP arrays C. for Business Copy XP management D. for simple LUN management Answer: B Question 7. You are designing a backup solution for an Enterprise customer. Which ratio between host feed speed and tape write speed is required for optimal performance in compressed mode? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 Answer: C Question 8. Which HP document provides current configuration rules for HP storage connectivity in a SAN environment? A. San Visibility Tool B. SAN Design Reference Guide C. EBS Compatibility Matrix D. Quick Specs Answer: B Question 9. Which VLS6000 feature allows data movement to a physical library or another virtual library system? A. Automigration B. Virtual Tape Device Mirroring C. Virtual Cartridge Copy D. Deduplication Answer: A Question 10. DRAG DROP Click the Task button. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Answer: Explanation:
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Question 2.
A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM). While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches from Microsoft.
What happens to that script?
A. System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B. Any snapshots andsnapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C. Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D. The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Answer: C
Question 3.
What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low performance impact?
A. A latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
B. A latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
C. A4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
D. An8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A. Replica snapshot
B. Dynamic snapshot
C. Instantaneous snapshot
D. Virtual snapshot
Answer: D
Question 5.
When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A. Replication Solution Manager host agent
B. HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C. HPStorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D. HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A. Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual
Arrays is supported.
B. OneEnterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
C. Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual
Array.
D. Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual
Arrays is supported.
E. OneEnterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise
Virtual Arrays.
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A. 1:4
B. 2:4
C. 3:1
D. 4:2
Answer: C
Question 8.
When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are required?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C
Question 9.
Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages.
Which statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A. NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure
with 16 server blades.
B. You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches
inCClass blade enclosures.
C. In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade
enclosures.
D. NPIV makes a singleFibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own
N_Port ID and virtual WWN.
E. NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric
OS so that it can e consistently managed with the F.
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state, is
A. Automatically updated whenever the sourceVdisk is updated?
B. Synchronizedmirrorclones
C. Synchronous Continuous Access
D. Synchronized containers
E. Enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software provide?
A. The ability to provision storage on the fly
B. The ability to monitor EVAVdisks and DR groups
C. The ability to monitorVdisk performance and relocate as required
D. The ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Answer: D
Question 12.
You are implementing a Continuous Access EVA solution for a customer who is replicating between two EVA4400 arrays. Which statement is true about snapclones of Vdisks that are members of a DR group?
A. While asnapclone is being normalized, another snapclone of the same source can be created.
B. Asnapclone must be in a different disk group than the source Vdisk to be replicated.
C. Thesnapclone of a Vdisk can be used only after the actual data has been copied to the
duplicate volume.
D. When the source disk has a snapshot,snapclones cannot be created.
Answer: D
Question 13.
After installation of Replication Solutions Manager (RSM), the GUI fails to open. What might be a possible cause?
A. The RSM default user is not in the HP admin security group.
B. Replication Solutions Manager is not installed in the default directory.
C. The shortened DNS format for the domain name was used during the installation.
D. Terminal services are not configured for administrator mode.
Answer: D
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Question 1. Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, why do you see an "x" for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file? A. Blank password is used. B. Shadow password is enabled. C. User is currently deactivated. D. Password has expired. Answer: B Question 2. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.) A. Name Servers B. Hierarchical Name Space C. Name Clients D. Resolvers E. ARPA Name Space F. Start of Authority (SOA) Answer: A, B, D Question 3. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster? A. cmclstat B. cmshowcluster C. cmviewcl D. cmviewconf E. cmgetconf Answer: C Question 4. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.) A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers B. HPProLiant servers C. HP Integrity servers D. HP IntegrityNonStop servers Answer: A, C Question 5. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine? (Select two.) A. hpvmrun -P vm1 B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init F. hpvmstart -P vm1 Answer: C Question 6. What are advantages of the Online JFS file system? (Select two.) A. allows more files per file system B. supports 128-bit encryption of system files C. supports larger disk drives D. supports online defragmentation E. supports dynamic online resizing of the file system Answer: D, E Question 7. Click the Exhibit button. Using the ioscan output, which command creates a virtual partition called vpar1 with two CPUs and 1GB memory with one valid boot path? A. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:1.0.0 -a io:1/0/0/1/0/4/0.8.0:BOOT B. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:0.0.0 -a io:1/0/0/1/0/4/0.8.0:BOOT C. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:1.0.0 -a io:1/0/1/1/0.8:ALTBOOT D. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:1.0.0 -a io:1/0/1/1/0.8:BOOT Answer: A Question 8. Which VxVM command should be used to examine the volume configuration? A. vgdisplay -v B. vxdisplay -v C. lvdisplay -vt D. vxprint -hvt Answer: D Question 9. Which command is used to see the attached hardware using the new agile view addressing? A. ioscan -fnN B. ioscan -kfC C. scsimgr scan hardware D. hwinfo -v Answer: A Question 10. What can be determined using the which or whence command? A. current version and release of an executable B. compiler options used to create an executable C. absolute path for an executable D. pseudo terminal your session is currently logged on Answer: C Question 11. Which log file do you review to determine if the kernel module was modified on the command line? A. /var/log/messages B. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log C. /stand/vmunix.log D. /var/adm/kc.log Answer: D Question 12. Which command is available to give you details about a command, including its options? A. what B. man C. read D. how Answer: B
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Question 1. You upgrade the BIOS to the current version. Customers logs in and discover that a specific software application does not work. A. Downgrade the BIOS to the previous version B. Contact HP for a replacement system board C. Contact HP for a replace BIOS chip D. Upgrade the affected software application Answer: A Question 2. Your customer's computer reboots with no warning. What should you try first to help isolate this? (Select two) A. Replace the system board and test B. Remove any third party hardware C. Check system event log D. Restore the unit and reinstall Answer: B, C Question 3. Your customer indicates that Windows in not recognizing their MultiBay hard disk drive. What can be done first to isolate this problem? A. Set the MultiBay hard disk drive as a slave B. Reinstal the factory image C. MultiBay is not an HP supported configuration D. Reseat the MultiBay hard disk drive Answer: D Explanation: The system does not recognize a hard drive in the external MultiBay. The drive is not seated properly. Remove and reinsert the drive. The drive was inserted while the notebook was on, in Standby, or Hibernation. Always shut down the notebook before removing or inserting a hard drive. The drive is damaged. Replace the hard drive. Question 4. What can you do with a MultiBay hard disk drive? A. Increase the size of the existing hard disk drive B. Attach a SCSI drive C. Install an additional hard disk drive D. Daisy chain multiple hard disk drives Answer: C Question 5. Where would you confirm a spare part number? A. HP PartSurfer B. device manager C. HP parts library D. Windows Control Panel Answer: A Question 6. What tool do you use to test ESD equipment? A. volt meter B. osciloscope C. ohm meter D. amp meter Answer: C Explanation: Electrostatic discharge protection A sudden discharge of static electricity from your hand or another conductor can destroy staticsensitive devices or micro circuitry. You might not feel or hear the spark, but it can cause damage. An electronic device exposed to electrostatic discharge (ESD) may not be affected at all, or the device may function normally for a while, and then degrade in the internal layers, reducing its life expectancy. Networks built into many integrated circuits provide some protection, but in many cases, the discharge contains enough power to alter device parameters or melt silicon junctions. You should regularly check your ESD equipment using an ohmmeter. Question 7. Your customer is having problems after installing memory in their computer. What should they do? A. DPS test B. Event Viewer C. Device Manager D. Task Manager Answer: A Question 8. What is the primary benefit of HP 3D DriveGuard? A. it protects hard drive from moisture damage B. it detects sudden motion and temporarily stops hard disk C. it encrypts the hard disk drive data D. it enhances Windows Aero security performance Answer: B Explanation: HP DriveGuard and HP 3D DriveGuard - Formerly known as HP Mobile Data Protection, this technology helps prevent hard disk drive failure and loss of data if the notebook is dropped or moved while running Question 9. The operating system doesn't load. What is the first step you should take to determine if a thirdparty component is related to the problem? A. Replace the third party component B. Remove the third party component C. Call the third party vendor's support line D. Update the component drivers/software Answer: B Question 10. Your customer is experiencing intermittent lockups on a computer kept inside. What is most likely cause? A. vibration B. temperature C. ESD D. altitude Answer: B Question 11. Your customer is trying to configure extended monitor support across two monitors and ****** A. OSD settings B. Display BIOS C. display proprieties D. system BIOS Answer: C
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Question 1. Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.) A. Intel single core processors B. AMD dual core processors C. AMD quad core processors D. Inteldual core processors Answer: A, D Question 2. How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server? A. 2 channels B. 3channels C. 4channels D. 6 channels Answer: D Question 3. On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located? A. processor socket B. processor core C. HyperTransport Bus D. Front Side Bus Answer: B Question 4. Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.) A. chipset B. PCI-e cards C. hard drives D. CPU E. fans Answer: A, D Question 5. A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive size presented to the operating system? A. 292GB B. 438GB C. 584GB D. 730GB Answer: B Question 6. Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem? A. Sun Solaris B. Windows Server 2008 R2x64 Enterprise Edition C. Novell NetWare 6.5 D. Novell SLES 10 Answer: A Question 7. Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors? A. Extreme Digital (xD) B. Secure Digital (SD) C. Compact Flash (CF) D. PCI-express (PCIe) Answer: B Question 8. For the Intel x5570Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x" preceding the processor model number indicate? A. extreme performance B. lowerwattage C. turbo boost performance D. highperformance/wattage Answer: D Question 9. In which log are Array POST errors recorded? A. Windows Event Log B. Integrated Management Log C. IPMI Log D. Onboard Administrator Log Answer: B Question 10. What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.) A. firmwareversion B. OEM hard drive vendor C. RAID stripe size D. HardwareErrorLogs E. SmartArray driver version Answer: A, C, D
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