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Question 1.
Users are reporting long response time delays in transactions that previously would run with unscald response. The system administrator knows these transactions are RPG IV-SQL based programs. Which of the following would be the first set in determining the problems.
A. Use Management Central to start a job monitor for system and select the SQL submonitor
display.
B. Use iSeries Navigator, SQL Performance Monitor to conllect and analyze the SQL
performance of the jobs.
C. Start debug on one of the on-line jobs and use Performance Explorer to analyze the jobs
database access plan.
D. Use iSeries Navigator to create a database map of the tables used in the transactions and
watch for high I/O rates.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Using the example below, what is the cumulative PTF level of the system?
Display PTF status.
System: ANYSYS.
Product ID………….. 5722999
IPL source…………... ## MACH#B Release of base option ……..V5R1M0.LOO.
PTF IPL Opt ID Status Action.
TL02134 Temporarily applied None.
TL02071 Permanently applied None.
TL01226 Superseded None.
RE01066 Permanently Applied None.
QLL2924 Permanently Applied None.
MF29379 Permanently Applied None.
MF29287 Permanently Applied None.
A. TL02071
B. TL02134
C. RE01066
D. MF29379
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following should be considered when preparing for a release upgrade?
A. User changes made to IBM supplied commands.
B. Valid license information for the current release.
C. Presence of user libraries after QSYS in the system library list.
D. Installation of the latest cumulative package for the current release.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Job description FREDJOBD has public authority of USE. This job description specifies that jobs run under user profile FRED. Which has public authority EXCLUDE*. Use profile SUE is user class USER* with default special authorities and does not have specific authority to use profile FRED.
User which security levels would user profile SUE be able to successfully submit a job using PREDJOBD with the intent to run the job under user profile FRED?
A. At 20 only.
B. At 20 and 30.
C. At 20, 30, and 40.
D. At 20,30,40, and 50.
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following commands will save all objects in the IFS?
A. SAV
B. SAVDLO
C. SAVLIB “IFS”
D. SAVLIB NONSYS.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What command is used to save the IFS to taps?
A. SAV
B. SAVRST
C. SAVDLO DLO (IFS)
D. SAVSYS OBJTYPE (IFS).
Answer: A
Question 7.
On an iSeries running V5R2, which fo the following authorities needs to be removed from an object to ensure that the object owner cannot delete it?
A. Object alter authority.
B. Object existence authority.
C. Object Management authority.
D. Object operational authority.
Answer: B
Question 8.
A system administrator needs to add 100 users to a V6R2 system without impacting response times, Which of the following would be the first step in determining the current performance of the system?
A. Define a performance collection agent in iDoctor for iSeries.
B. Define a performance collection object within iSeries navigator.
C. Use Performance Explorer to collect generalized performance data.
D. Use the Workdoad Estimator to show existing performance constraints.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following can have an impact on determining the interactive workload requirements of an iSeries?
A. Active subsystems.
B. Active controllers.
C. Active user profiles.
D. Active display sessions.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
What do you need to consider when installing mezzanine cards in an HP ProLiant BL685c G6 Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in slots 2 and/or 3 if they match the interconnect
module type.
B. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module
type.
C. Type 2 mezzanine cards need to be installed in slot 1 and match the interconnect module type.
D. Type 1 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module
type.
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
You are troubleshooting a performance issue on a BL460c Server Blade with a Linux operating system installed.
Which command should you use to get comprehensive memory information?
A. iostat
B. glance
C. free
D. memdiag
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which HP Insight Control Suite software provides centralized capture, monitor, report, and control of HP BladeSystem power consumption and thermal output?
A. HPProLiant Insight Power Regulator
B. HPProLiant Onboard Administrator
C. HP Insight Power Manager
D. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which industry standard management protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SSH
B. SNMP
C. DMI
D. XML
E. SMTP
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Which industry standard memory technologies can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A. chip spare
B. mirrored memory
C. parity memory
D. online spare memory
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Microsoft Cluster Server is an example of which type of clustering architecture?
A. shared-memory
B. High-Performance Computing
C. shared-everything
D. shared-nothing
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. blue
B. white
C. black
D. brown
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which feature is used in conjunction with the Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
A. OpenSSH
B. LDAP
C. BitLocker
D. HP SIM
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which logical extension of the HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Suite provides failure protection for logical servers?
A. Insight Orchestration
B. Insight Rapid Deployment
C. Insight Systems Manager
D. Insight Recovery Software
Answer: D
Question 10.
What is the maximum number of Cisco 3120 Switches that can be combined into a single logical stack?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
E. 12
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which component is required to connect a c-Class server blade to an HP StorageWorks MSA 2012sa?
A. Smart Array P700m
B. Smart Array P411
C. HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card
D. Smart Array E200i
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which two of these activities comprise the problem management service component in the operate phase? (choose two.)
A. send a replacement module
B. schedule a maintenance window
C. manage the problem
D. identify the problem
E. confirm roles and responsibilities
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
Identify a customer support model for the solution is an activity thet is part of which service component in the plan phase?
A. operations readiness assessment
B. planning project kickoff (deployment project management)
C. operations plan development
D. system requirements validation
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which three of these service components are included in the optimize phase? (choose three.)
A. change management
B. security administration
C. technology assessment
D. operations assessment
E. operations readiness assessment
F. security assessment
Answer: C, D, F
Question 4.
Utilizing a trouble ticketing system to track problems is a part of which service component in the operate phase?
A. operations setup
B. change management
C. problem management
D. systems monitoring
Answer: C
Question 5.
Execute the systems acceptance test plan is an activity that is part of which service component in the implement phase?
A. phased implementation
B. acceptance testing
C. staff training
D. full system migration
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of these best describes the actions you would take during the technology strategy development service component?
A. analyze the customer`s business requirements and recommend the appropriate technologies
to meet those business requirements.
B. identify the customer`s business requirements for the proposed solution.
C. address the customer`s physical site requirements.
D. determine the appropriate end user training needed for the technology solution.
Answer: A
Question 7.
During which implement phase service component would you perform a re-cap of the solution implementation in order to elicit customer feedback?
A. select fault management tools and products
B. operations setup
C. project closeout
D. change management
Answer: C
Question 8.
Review both the business and technical requirements is an activity that is part of which service component in the prepare phase?
A. business case development
B. customer edication
C. high level design development
D. account planning
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which service component would you typically perform prior to the handover to the customer`s operations organization and involves running tests to ensure that the solution is ready for production?
A. skill assessment
B. systems integration
C. project close out
D. acceptance testing
E. security check
Answer: D
Question 10.
In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis?
A. change management
B. technology assessment
C. security assessment
D. security administration
E. operations assessment
F. operations readiness assessment
Answer: B
Question 11.
During which service component in the optimize phase would you assess the network for vulnerabilities, in order to reduce the risk of attacks?
A. change management
B. security assessment
C. operations readiness assessment
D. oprations assessment
E. echnology assessment
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which protocol is used by multicast to prevent loops?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. RPF
D. BGP
E. EIGRP
Answer: C
Question 2.
What frame type is used to signal TSPEC reservation from a client?
A. RSVP
B. ADDTS
C. 802.11 association information elements
D. WMM capabilities exchange
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two statements are correct if IGMP snooping is enabled on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the wireless clients as the last
reporter.
B. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are forwarded to the router without modifications.
C. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the Cisco WLC, which in turn
generates a query for the client.
D. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the WLC and are used to update
the router via Cisco Group Management Protocol update from the Cisco WLC.
E. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the Cisco WLC as the last reporter.
Answer: C, E
Question 4.
Which two messages can carry the TSPEC from client to the AP? (Choose two.)
A. Probe request
B. Association request
C. Authentication request
D. Reassociation request
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Which two statements are correct regarding multicast implementation using a WLAN controller (v5.2) and AP? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest mandatory data rate.
B. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest supported data rate.
C. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic and beacons are sent out at the same data rates to maintain a
common cell size for normal data as well as multicast data.
D. If there is more than one mandatory data rate, multicast traffic will be sent at the highest
mandatory rate and beacons will be sent at the lowest mandatory rate.
E. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic will be sent out at the highest data rate that a client can
Maintain with the AP.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What must be true about the client before upstream traffic stream metrics can be displayed on the Cisco WLC?
A. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2
B. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 3
C. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4
D. Must be associated to a PlatinumQoS WLAN
E. Must be associated to an access point on a Cisco WLC with code version 5.0 or newer
Answer: C
Question 7.
On the Cisco Aironet Access Points connected to a Cisco Unified Wireless LAN controller, which TCLAS queue transmits RTP packets with correct 802.11e QoS markings?
A. UP
B. VO
C. VI
D. BK
E. BE
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which statement describes the WLCv5.2 delivery of a multicast packet from a wired PC source on VLAN_X to a respective wireless client using SSID_X, using a WLAN controller enabled for multicast?
A. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
And finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless multicast.
B. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs, and
finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless unicast.
C. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
D. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
E. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wirelessunicast.
F. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless unicast.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement is correct for both the LWAPP and CAPWAP AP upstream 802.1Q tagged wired QoS priority for a non-WMM-associated client frame that is H-REAP locally switched running v5.2?
A. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
B. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
C. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired 802.1pCoS priority.
D. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired 802.1pCoS priority.
E. WLAN configuredQoS level is used to set the wired DSCP priority.
F. Wired 802.1pCoS priority is not set.
Answer: F
Question 10.
What two benefits result from Cisco WLC configuration of DCA for 5-GHz VoWLAN deployments? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid channels with microwave oven noise.
B. Manually remove channels not supported by theVoWLAN clients.
C. Avoid 802.11n 40-MHz wide channels.
D. Automatically avoid nearby radar.
Answer: B, D
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Question 1. How many access points will a Cisco 7600 Series Router with six installed Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Wireless Services Modules support? A. 300 B. 448 C. 664 D. 1800 E. 2400 Answer: D Question 2. Which value is NOT supported by Cisco Spectrum Expert, when checking for RF coverage? A. access point received-signal strength level B. spectrum utilization C. client data rate D. in-band radio frequency interference Answer: C Question 3. Which is NOT part of a typical wireless site survey? A. implementation suggestions B. access point locations C. security requirements D. access point mounting methods Answer: C Question 4. What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two.) A. identify potential problem areas B. define intended coverage areas C. assess compliance with local building codes D. determine the final location of APs and antennas E. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference Answer: A, B Question 5. If there is an existing 802.11g WLAN at a site, which service can be provided without conducting a new site survey? A. add a new 802.11a WLAN B. increase the Layer 2 and Layer 3 security of the WLAN C. increase the throughput for the wireless clients D. add new services (such as voice) over the WLAN Answer: B Question 6. Construction of a new automobile parts manufacturing facility has recently been completed. The facility IT manager wants to deploy voice over WLAN. During your initial walkthrough, you observe numerous highly reflective surfaces on the manufacturing equipment and in the building construction itself. What potential problem exists that should be accounted for during your site survey? A. LOS modulation B. multipath distortion C. RF signal absorption D. RF signal attenuation E. Fresnel zone impedance Answer: B Question 7. To which parameter should the access point be set during a site survey? A. transmit only B. diversity C. receive only D. single isolated antenna Answer: B Question 8. Which statement is true when using a Cisco Wireless Mesh Networking Solution? A. The backhaul link isdynamic 1 to 54 Mb/s. B. The backhaul link is typically a fixed value. C. The backhaul link uses DAS antennas. D. The backhaul link uses antenna multiplexing. E. The backhaul link does not rely on fade margin. Answer: B Question 9. What approximates the signal attenuation of a plasterboard wall? A. crowd of people B. office window C. metal door D. brick wall Answer: B Question 10. The AirMagnet passive site survey tool can provide RF coverage data, except for which parameter? A. Signal Strength (4th access point) B. Signal Strength (3rd access point) C. Channel Interference D. Predictive Physical Data Rate Downlink (2nd access point) Answer: A
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Question 1.
Given the output from a dumpadm command:
# dumpadm
Dump content: kernel pages
Dump device: /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s1 (swap)
Savecore directory: /var/crash/wm13w1
Savecore enabled: yes
Which statement is correct?
A. The savecore command will run as the system shuts down following a panic.
B. The dump device is also the swap device.
C. Crash dumps are written to the /var/crash/wm13w1 file.
D. The system will dump the whole content of memory to the dump device.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You run an IT department and are responsible for purchasing hardware within a given budget. You are aware that 70 GBytes of data housed in a series of traditional disk slices is becoming critical to the business. You decide to mirror the data but have concerns about write performance. You can purchase the disk space to mirror the data.
What is a cost-free configuration enhancement that achieves fast write performance?
A. striping the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
B. arranging for the mirror to consist of just two disks
C. using RAID 5 to hold the data in each half of the mirror
D. concatenating the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
Answer: A
Question 3.
Your syslog configuration file contains the line:
mail.debugifdef(`LOGHOST', /var/log/syslog, @loghost)
Which two are correct statements about this entry? (Choose two.)
A. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the /var/log/syslog file.
B. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the user loghost on the
Local system.
C. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are emailed to the root user at the
host loghost.
D. The ifdef statement is interpreted by the syslogd daemon.
E. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are sent to the host defined as the
loghost.
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Given the line from a name service configuration file:
ethers: nis [UNAVAIL=return] files
Which two statements correctly describe the behavior of the name service switch? (Choose two.)
A. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will continue by looking for
it in the local file.
B. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will end without looking in
the local file.
C. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will continue by
looking for it in the local file.
D. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will end without
looking in the local file.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting for the resource to mount.
Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. ro
B. intr
C. bg
D. soft
E. hard
F. fg
Answer: C
Question 6.
You are creating a profile on your JumpStart server to install a new system and are using a Flash archive to provide the necessary software. The Flash archive is called /export/nb.flar and is shared on the network from the server grendel, which has the IP address 194.168.85.106.
What is the syntax for the JumpStart client's profile file which will use this archive to install the new system?
A. archive_location grendel /export/nb.flar nfs
B. archive_location nfs grendel /export/nb.flar
C. archive_location 194.168.85.106 nfs /export/nb.flar
D. archive_location nfs 194.168.85.106:/export/nb.flar
Answer: D
Question 7.
The rules.ok file on your JumpStart server contains the line:
hostname client1 backup_root client_config set_root_passwd
Which two are correct statements about the function of this line? (Choose two.)
A. The client runs the backup_root script prior to installing software.
B. The client runs the set_root_passwd script after installing software.
C. The client will configure itself using either the backup_root, client_config, or set_root_passwd
profiles.
D. The client runs the backup_root, client_config and set_root_passwd scripts after installing
software.
E. The client runs the backup_root, client_config, and set_root_passwd scripts prior to installing
software.
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. run a command to create the first state database
E. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given:
# getfacl file1
# file: file1
# owner: root
# group: other
user::rwuser:
user3:rwx #effective:r--
group::r-- #effective:r--
mask:r--
other:r--
You run the command:
setfacl -s u::rwx,g::rw-,o:r--,m:rw- file1
Which statement describes the effect of the setfacl command?
A. The permissions assigned to user3 remain unchanged.
B. The permissions for user3 are removed from the system.
C. The effective permissions of the group other remain unchanged.
D. Nothing happens due to a syntax error in the setfacl command.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which three functions can the syslogd daemon perform? (Choose three.)
A. forwarding messages to a list of users
B. interrupting processes that are producing errors above a pre-configured threshold
C. writing messages to a system log
D. forwarding input from root to the user's processes
E. writing IPC messages to the processes that are generating errors rapidly
F. forwarding messages to the syslogd daemon on another host on the network
Answer: A, C, F
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Question 1.
Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A. print HTML>>;
B. print ;
C. print ("HTML">;
D. print ("HTML">;
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which method is not effective for protecting server scripts?
A. Assigning the cgi-bin directory read-only permissions.
B. Running the Web server under a user account with few permissions.
C. Using CGI wrapper scripts.
D. Saving scripts with only .exe, .cgi or .pl extensions.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which one of the following lists of special characters denotes a space character in pattern matching?
A. \r \t \W \D
B. \r \t \n \f
C. \^ . * +
D. \s \D \W \f
Answer: B
Question 5.
List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A. The compiler
B. The debugger
C. The interpreter
D. The environment
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which choice best demonstrates how to add a name-value pair to form data?
A. $object = append( name=>"state", value=>"New York");
B. $object = add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
C. $object-> append( -name=> "state", -value=>"New York");
D. 4object ==> add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
Answer: C
Question 7.
The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A. The access permissions.
B. The inode number.
C. The file's owner.
D. How the file is opened.
Answer: D
Question 8.
The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A. GET or POST data.
3
B. Load external variables.
C. Read large amounts of text into the script.
D. Access environment variables.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given $_ = "alphabetais", consider the following substitution:
s/a+.*/greektome/gi;
What is the new value of $_ after this substitution?
A. isgreektome
B. ISGREEKTOME
C. greektome
D. alphabetais
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
D. DELETE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue' FROM MyDatabase
Answer: C
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com uses a centralized call processing model to connect their saw mills in Albany and Columbus. Each mill is configured as a separate Location in Cisco Unified CallManager at HQ. Each Location has been configured with 256 Kbps of voice bandwidth.
How many G.729 calls can be placed between Locations simultaneously?
A. 23
B. 5
C. 16
D. 10
E. 8
Answer: D
Question 2.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A manager at HQ is holding a conference call with three of his staff members that are located at BR. The HQ region uses the G.711 codec, the BR region uses the G.711 codec, and the IP WAN region uses the G.729 codec. The MRGL associated with the manager has only the software conference bridge listed.
What will happen when the three staff members join the conference?
A. The staff members will not be able to join the conference until all the software conferencing
resources are consumed and the conference uses the hardware conferencing resources at BR.
B. The staff members will join only after the manager has set the conference call up using the
hardware conferencing resources.
C. The staff members will all join the conference normally.
D. The staff members will be prevented from joining because the software conference bridge only
supports the G.711 codec and the staff members will be using the G.729 codec.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com needs to have the receptionist at extension 5000 handle all callers who exit their auto attendant by pressing "0". After changing the Operator parameter from 5500 to 5000, callers are still sent to extension 5500 when they press "0" in the auto attendant.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Dial peer 1 needs to be restarted using the shutdown and no shutdown commands.
B. The application needs to be edited to point to the correct operator.
C. The aa application needs to be reloaded in order to recognize the parameter changes.
D. The gateway needs to be reloaded for application changes to take effect.
E. The Operator parameter should be configured under dial peer 1 using the param command.
Answer: C
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A branch site with an H.323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site. You want to initiate SRST and get back the operation to normal. Select the appropriate steps in the correct order. Use only steps that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?
A. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches
identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
B. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp
farm profile.
C. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.
D. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
E. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message "Not Enough Bandwidth" on their phone and hears a fast busy tone.
Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured
under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
Answer: D, E
Question 7.
How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
A. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The
SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco
Unified Communications Manager.
B. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the
SRST gateway.
C. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their
registration with the SRST gateway.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from the San Jose site to the RTP site, the Physical Location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group remains the same. After roaming to RTP, the user called a colleague in RTP and conferenced in a phone in his home location (San Jose).
Which statement about the MRGL for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone is true?
A. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since his Device
Mobility Group (DMG) remained the same.
B. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_MRGL since his Device Mobility Group
remained the same.
C. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_ MRGL regardless of Device Mobility
Group.
D. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since he is
conferencing a user at his home location.
Answer: C
Question 9.
As the Administrator for an IT company that's using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you've been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country's numbering plan.
Which scenario will accomplish your goal?
A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile.
B. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group.
C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use
the local PSTN gateway for each country.
D. Implement Mobile Connect.
E. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group.
Answer: E
Question 10.
A remote site MGCP gateway will be used to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost.
Which three steps are required to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.)
A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN.
B. COR needs to be configured to allow outbound calls.
C. The default service must be enabled globally.
D. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured.
E. The default service must be configured on an inbound POTS dial peer.
F. VoIP dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the PSTN to the IP phones.
Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a Web server farm that runs Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0. The Web server farm consists of three load balanced servers named ITCertKeys-SR11, ITCertKeys-SR12 and ITCertKeys-SR13. The Web server farm is accessed using http://corporate. ITCertKeys.com. You must install certificates on the Web server farm. The certificates must meet the following requirements:
• SSL encryption must be enabled for requests to the Web server farm.
• The certificates should not result in the Web browsers returning SSL errors.
What should you do?
A. You should acquire a certificate for each server in the Web server farm from a trusted
certification authority (CA).
B. You should acquire a single certificate from a trusted certification authority and install it on
each of the servers in the Web farm.
C. You should create three self-signed certificates and install one on each of the servers in the
Web farm.
D. You should create a single self-signed certificate and install it on each of the servers in the
Web farm.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Finance department, a Sales department and a Marketing department. You have installed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on a server named ITCertKeys-SR12. ITCertKeys-SR12 hosts a document library which is used by the managers of the Finance, Sales and Marketing departments. You must ensure that no user other than the three managers is able to view or add documents to the document library.
What should you do?
A. You should assign the three managers the Design permissions.
B. You should assign the three managers the Members permissions.
C. You should add the three managers to the Owners group.
D. You should assign the three managers the Contribute permissions.
Answer: B
Question 3.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You must design a new Windows SharePoint Service (WSS) 3.0 infrastructure for the ITCertKeys.com network. Your design must meet the following criteria:
• Content on the WSS must be centralized.
• Multiple servers must be used to distribute user requests for content.
What should you do?
A. You should install at least two Microsoft SQL Server 2005 servers and configure the SQL
servers as WSS front-end servers. Then you should host the content database on local SQL
Server 2005 instances on the SQL servers.
B. You should install at least two Microsoft SQL Server 2005 servers and configure the SQL
servers as WSS front-end servers. Then you should host the content database on a single
SQL Server 2005 instance.
C. You should install a single Microsoft SQL Server 2005 server and configure the SQL servers
as a WSS front-end server. Then you should install at least two instances of Microsoft SQL
Server 2005 to host the content database.
D. You should implement at least two Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 installations.
Answer: B
Question 4.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Research department, a Manufacturing department, Sales department, Finance department and a Marketing department. You have installed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 Web site on a server named ITCertKeys-SR22. The WSS Web site hosts a document library that is used by the managers of the Finance and Sales departments. Rory Allen, the manager of the Manufacturing department informs you that one of his documents have disappeared from the document library. Rory Allen last accessed the document three weeks ago. You are required to recover the document.
What should you do?
A. You should check the Recycle Bin on Rory Allen's computer.
B. You should check the Recycle Bin of the document library.
C. You should check the Deleted from end user Recycle Bin view of the site collection.
D. You should check the Recycle Bin on ITCertKeys-SR22.
Answer: B
Question 5.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You are planning the deployment of Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on the ITCertKeys.com network. ITCertKeys.com currently has 5,000 users. The company intends hiring 2,000 more users over the next six months. All of these users will require access to the WSS Web site. ITCertKeys.com acquires four new servers named ITCertKeys-SR21 through ITCertKeys-SR24. Each of these servers has a single network adapter. You want to have the users' requests distributed across all four server servers.
What should you do?
A. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster and configure
The cluster for intra-array communication by using Internet Group Management Protocol
(IGMP) muliticasts.
B. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster and configure
The cluster for intra-array communication by using unicasts.
C. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster with one active
node and three passive nodes.
D. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster with two active
Node and two passive nodes.
Answer: A
Question 6.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You have installed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on a server named ITCertKeys-SR31. All SharePoint data is stored in a database that is hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys.com users begin complaining about poor performance when accessing ITCertKeys-SR31. You want to determine if ITCertKeys-SR31 has any hardware bottlenecks.
What should you do? (Each correct answer represents part of the solution. Choose THREE.)
A. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Network Interface counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
B. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Processor counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
C. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the WMI Objects counter on
ITCertKeysSR31.
D. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Web Service Cache counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
E. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Physical Memory counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has a Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 Web site that is accessed by customers who are not members of the Active Directory domain. The login credentials of these customers are currently stored in database named Customers which is hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB04. You configure the WSS Web site for form-based authentication. However, customers complain that they are no longer able to authenticate to the WSS Web site. You must ensure that ITCertKeys.com customers are able to authenticate to the WSS Web site.
What should you do?
A. You should create a custom Web part with a Microsoft Office InfoPath form.
B. You should implement single sign-on (SSO) on the WSS site.
C. You should use an SSL-protected virtual directory to host the Web authentication form.
D. You should use the web.config file to specify the authentication provider.
Answer: D
Question 8.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You have deployed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on the ITCertKeys.com network. A WSS Web site is used to distribute documents to ITCertKeys.com users. You need to configure the WSS Web site to provide only approved users with elevated permissions to the WSS Web site upon request.
What should you do? (Each correct answer represents part of the solution. Choose TWO.)
A. You should create an Active Directory security group.
B. You should create an Active Directory distribution group.
C. You should create a custom group in the Site Settings page.
D. You should configure the group to auto-accept requests for membership.
E. You should configure the group properties to accept request to join or leave the group.
Answer: C, E
Question 9.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You are in the process of configuring a new SharePoint site on the ITCertKeys.com network. You want the SharePoint site to store data on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB02. However, the database for the SharePoint site is not created successfully. You need to ensure that you are able to create the database on ITCertKeys-DB02. You also need to ensure that the minimum permissions required to accomplish this task are granted to any account.
What should you do?
A. You should make the installation account a member of the local Administrators group on
ITCertKeysDB02.
B. You should make the installation account a member of the dbcreator and securityadmin role on
ITCertKeys-DB02.
C. You should make the installation account a member of the local Administrators group on the
WSS server.
D. You should stop and restart the SQL Server Agent service on ITCertKeys-DB02.
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You have deployed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on the ITCertKeys.com network. ITCertKeys.com users on the internal network access the WSS Web site through the URL: http://corporate. ITCertKeys.local. You must ensure that remote can access the same WSS Web site through the URL: http://external. ITCertKeys.com.
What should you do?
A. You should create a host header named external for the WSS Web site.
B. You should create an alias (CNAME) record named external in the ITCertKeys.local domain.
C. You should create an alternate access mapping for the http://external. ITCertKeys.com on
ITCertKeysSR18.
D. You need to add a secondary DNS zone for the ITCertKeys.local domain.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
What are three functions of the BlackBerry Policy Service? (Choose three.)
A. Sends a set of rules that configures BlackBerry device security features
B. Polls for applications that are installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Compresses and encrypts data to and from the BlackBerry device
D. Sends service books that configure BlackBerry device functionality
E. Synchronizes any custom security settings on the BlackBerry device
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
A system administrator wants to wirelessly deploy a third-party application to multiple BlackBerry devices while providing the BlackBerry device users with the ability to remove the software at a later time.
What must the disposition of the assigned application control policy be set to, in order to accomplish this? (Choose one.)
A. Required
B. Optional
C. Disallowed
D. Prompt
E. Available
Answer: B
Question 3.
When setting up a software configuration, the Configuration Status field shows Unknown Configuration for a specific BlackBerry device user account.
Which statement is true? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server has not polled the BlackBerry Configuration Database for
which applications need to be installed/removed on the BlackBerry device.
B. The user has not yet been assigned to a software configuration.
C. The delivery method within the software configuration for this application has not yet been set.
D. The Disallow Third-Party Downloads IT policy has been set to True.
E. The Applications directory needs to be indexed so the software configuration status can be
updated to reflect the current applications that need to be installed or removed.
Answer: A
Question 4.
A company utilizing a segmented network, installs the BlackBerry Attachment Server on its own server in a separate segment from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. With which component would the BlackBerry Attachment Server be unable to communicate if it was installed in a different segment of the network? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Exchange Server
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher
E. BlackBerry Controller
Answer: C
Question 5.
A new BlackBerry device user is unable to perform a wireless enterprise activation because there is insufficient network coverage. The user has the BlackBerry Desktop Manager installed. When attempting to perform a wired enterprise activation, the enterprise activation is unable to initialize.
Which three actions ensure the enterprise activation initializes? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to a new USB port on the computer.
B. Create a new MAPI profile on computer.
C. Enable port 4101 on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. Delete and undelete the Desktop [SYNC] service book on the BlackBerry device.
E. Uninstall and reinstall the BlackBerry Desktop Manager software on the computer.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 6.
A company utilizing a segmented network structure recently installed the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, configured it to use the TLS protocol for Microsoft Windows Messenger on its own server, and placed it in a network segment from the Microsoft Live Communications Server.
Which port must be open on the internal firewall to allow TLS traffic? (Choose one.)
A. 5061
B. 5060
C. 443
D. 8443
E. 1533
Answer: A
Question 7.
A PIN message is sent from the BlackBerry device and a letter D is displayed above the checkmark beside the message in the message list.
What does this indicate about the status of the message? (Choose one.)
A. It is delayed.
B. It is denied.
C. It is delivered.
D. It is deleted.
E. It is dropped.
Answer: C
Question 8.
A company needs to reduce the load on the Microsoft SQL Server hosting the BlackBerryConfiguration Database. Which component can be configured to reduce the number of queries made by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the database? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft SQL Query Analyzer
B. BlackBerry Manager
C. Database Notification System
D. Database Replication System
E. Microsoft SQL Server Agent
Answer: C
Question 9.
What option can be disabled to restrict Microsoft Excel attachments only for the BlackBerry Attachment Service? (Choose one.)
A. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Server Configuration utility
B. The attachment type using an IT policy setting in the BlackBerry Manager
C. Attachment viewing through the BlackBerry device user properties on the BlackBerry Manager
D. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Resource Kit
E. The BlackBerry Attachment Service through Microsoft Windows services
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which type of database replication is supported in the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose one.)
A. Transactional
B. Analytical processing
C. Merge
D. Snapshot
E. Architectural
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which two components are required for a BlackBerry device user to send and receive PGP encrypted email messages? (Choose two.)
A. An IT policy with the URL of the PGP Universal Server pushed to the BlackBerry device
B. An IT policy with a CRL server configured, pushed to the BlackBerry device
C. An IT policy with the URL of the PGP LDAP Server pushed to the BlackBerry device
D. The PGP Support Package installed on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The PGP Support Package installed on the BlackBerry device
Answer: A, E
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