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Question 1.
Given the following piece of a LIST APPLICATIONS output:
Exhibit missing. Will be fixed in later versions
Which of the following commands terminates the client application's connection?
A. KILL APPLICATION (7)
B. FORCE APPLICATION
C. DISCONNECT APPLICATION (7)
D. KILL APPLICATION payroll.exe
E. FORCE APPLICATION payroll.exe
F. DISCONNECT APPLICATION payroll.exe
Answer: F.
Question 2.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. DB2MOVE does not support LOBs.
B. DB2MOVE supports the data links data type
C. DB2MOVE supports DRDA data resources and targets.
D. DB2MOVE supports LOBs residing on disk in separate files
E. DB2MOVE supports exporting and importing trigger definitions
Answer: D.
Question 3.
In which of the following locations must userids and passwords be defined if using authentication SERVER?
A. The node directory on the server
B. The node directory on the client
C. The system catalog on the server
D. The operating system on the server
E. The operating system on the client
Answer: D.
Question 4.
Which of the following is NOT possible when issuing a FORCE command?
A. IDLE users can be successfully forced
B. Users creating a database can be forced
C. DB2STOP can be successfully executed during a force
D. The database will still successfully accept connections
Answer: C.
Question 5.
Given the command:
CREATE DATABASE inventory
CATALOG TABLESPACE MANAGED BY SYSTEM USING ('path1','path2')
EXTENTSIZE 16 PREFETCHSIZE 32
USER TABLESPACE MANAGED BY SYSTEM USING ('patha')
TEMPORARY TABLESPACE MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE 'files' 1000)
WITH "EXTENTSIZE 8"
How many buffer pools are in the inventory database?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: B.
Question 6.
Given the following DDL statements:
CREATE TABLE PERSON OF PERSON_T (REF IS OID USER GENERATED)
CREATE TABLE EMP OF EMP_T UNDER PERSON INHERIT SELECT PRIVILEGES
CREATE TABLE STUDENT OF STUDENT_T UNDER PERSON INHERIT SELECT
PRIVILEGES
CREATE TABLE STAFF (COL1 INT, COL2 INT)
and
INSERT 1 row into PERSON
INSERT 1 row into EMP
INSERT 1 row into STUDENT
INSERT 2 rows into STAFF
How many rows will be returned after issuing the SQL statement:
SELECT * FROM PERSON?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 10
Answer: C.
Question 7.
Which of the following tasks is performed by the DB2 Query Patroller Tracker Utility?
A. Accepts, analyzes, prioritizes, and schedules database requests and optionally notifies users
when their requests have been processed.
B. Enables the user to monitor query status, view job details, cancel jobs, submit new jobs, drop
result tables, and resubmit completed jobs.
C. Allows you to determine which tables and columns have been accessed most frequently,
which tables have returned the most result rows, and which jobs have been completed within a
specific time period.
D. Enables the system administrator to manage the DB2 Query Patroller system parameters,
create or delete profiles for DB2 Query Patroller users, manage nodes, result destinations,
data sources and job queues.
Answer: C.
Question 8.
Nodes that are down or in an unknown state are reported in the Alert Center as which of the following?
A. Alarms
B. Alerts
C. Warnings
D. Informational Messages
Answer: A.
Question 9.
Which of the following is a valid statement to create an event monitor?
A. CREATE EVENT MONITOR ev1 FOR TABLES WHERE APPL_NAME ='PGM1' WRITE TO
FILE
'd:\f1'
B. CREATE EVENT MONITOR ev1 FOR DEADLOCKS WHERE APPL_NAME ='PGM1' WRITE
TO FILE
'd:\f1'
C. CREATE EVENT MONITOR ev1 FOR TABLESPACES WHERE APPL_NAME ='PGM1'
WRITE TO
FILE 'd:\f1'
D. CREATE EVENT MONITOR ev1 FOR CONNECTIONS WHERE APPL_NAME ='PGM1'
WRITE TO
FILE 'd:\f1'
Answer: D.
Question 10.
Given the command:
BACKUP DATABASE sample to path/dir
Which of the following parameters determines how much memory will be used to backup the database sample?
A. logbufsz
B. backbufsz
C. extent size
D. prefetchsize
Answer: B.
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Question 1.
During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to conduct trade-offs between several approaches to the project execution.
The trade-offs are made between_______ .
A. Scope, issues, and risks.
B. Risk, schedule, and quality.
C. Cost, schedule, and quality.
D. Overhead, direct cost, and expenses.
E. Design, engineering, and implementation.
Answer: C
Question 2.
What is the core function of a project manager?
A. Project integration
B. Client interface
C. Systems design
D. Quality assurance
E. Facilitating meetings
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which two methods are valid for developing project task duration estimates? (Choose two)
A. Historical data
B. Expert judgement
C. Value engineering
D. Stochastic estimating
E. Bottoms-up estimating
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
Which component is used to estimate resource requirements, activity durations, and costs?
A. Project plan
B. Implementation plan
C. Business requirements
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
Exhibit:
Task A is dependent on the completion of Task B. Task C is dependent on the starting of
Task B.
Place the tasks in the order in which they will start.
Answer:
Question 6.
The firm you are working with, ITCertKeys.com, has a number of stakeholders with a wide variety of backgrounds. The stakeholders do not agree on the objectives for the project.
What is the first thing you should do in order to resolve the differences the stakeholders have with respect to the project objectives?
A. Conduct a series of meetings with all stakeholders.
B. Conduct a brainstorming session with all stakeholders.
C. Prepare and deliver a presentation on objective development to all stakeholders.
D. Conduct interviews with each stakeholder to understand which objectives they feel are critical.
Answer: D
Question 7.
The project is well under way and you notice that the enthusiastic support of an executive stakeholder has diminished. You believe the executive now has doubt about the project.
Which three abilities would best help a project manager resolve this situation? (Choose one)
A. The ability to manage team resources.
B. The ability to identify the areas of doubts.
C. The ability to develop meaningful status reports.
D. The ability to act without creating negative impact.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Your project team has five developers. Developers 1 has a personal issue with the work schedule of Developer 2, and refuses to work overtime unless Developer 2 also works overtime. All team members, except Developer 2 work five days a week, averaging between 45 to 52 hours per week. Developer 2 works four days a week, and averages 48 hours per week. Your project is 70 percent complete, and is three percent behind schedule. Everyone met their task duration goals up to this point, but the project has been slightly delayed by an external vendor. If everyone works together you think you can make up the slippage. You worry that Developer 1's issue will cause the project to be delayed further. The rest of the group is working well together and Developer 2 is not aware of the issue.
What should you do to resolve the issue?
A. Have the two team members get together and work out their issues.
B. Talk with Developer 1 to find out the real issues and help him work on these issues.
C. See if Developer 2 can change this work schedule until the project is back on track.
D. Conduct a team building process with all the team members and recognize each of them for
their accomplishments.
Answer: B
Question 9.
You project plan designates several development phases. Some of the phases overlap. Your plan indicates where executive management involvement should occur. Executive management involvement includes the sign-off upon completion of a phase and approval for the start of the next phase. The plan indicates that the executive management meeting should take place in ten days. You are aware that the current phase will not be completed for 20 days. You are three percent ahead of budget in terms of cost, and one percent ahead of budget in terms of time. These figures are in-line with the variance allowance set for the phase by the executive management at the inception of the phase.
What should you do?
A. Reduce the estimates of work outstanding to minimize the reported overrun in time and cost.
B. Move some of the incomplete tasks into a later phase as there is some slack in the plan that
could be utilized.
C. Speak to the executive on the executive management and explain the need to delay the
executive management meeting by 10 days.
D. Hold the executive management meeting in the previously appointed date so there is no
inconvenience to the executive management members.
Answer: C
Question 10.
The ratio of Budgeted Cost of Work Performed to Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWP/BCWS) is called______ .
A. Critical Ratio (CR)
B. Cost Variance (CV)
C. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
D. Schedule Performance Index (SPI)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Schedule performance index
The schedule performance index (SPI) is a ratio of the work performed on a task versus the work scheduled. Here is its formula:
SPI = BCWP/BCWSAn SPI of less than 1.0 means you're behind schedule; a value over 1.0 means you're taking less time than you expected.
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Question 1.
Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access control model?
A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
D. The user requiring access to the resource.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?
A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and
software
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to network resources?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
Question 4.
You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration, what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?
A. Halon
B. CO
C. Water
D. Foam
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Given: John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques. Question:
Which threat is being addressed?
A. Viruses
B. Adware
C. Spam
D. Spyware
Answer: C
Question 7.
Most current encryption schemes are based on
A. digital rights management
B. time stamps
C. randomizing
D. algorithms
Answer: D
Question 8.
Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?
A. Spoofing
B. DNS poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Kiting
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?
A. Public key
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Hash
Answer: D
Question 10.
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates.
The public key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?
A. Symmetric
B. Quantum
C. Asymmetric
D. Elliptical curve
Answer: C
Question 11.
How is access control permissions established in the RBAC access control model?
A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
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Question 1. Which of the following commands is used to add a device to the route? A. EXDRI B. EXDAI C. EXDRP D. EXDRE Answer: A Question 2. Which of the following is the correct command sequence for a CP Fault? A. REPRI,REMRI,RECPI B. REPCI,REMCI,RECCI C. RECCI,REPCI,REMCI D. GSTEI,NTTEI,TCTDI Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following commands is used to make a copy of backup file RELFSW1 to the oldest file in the SFR group? A. SYTUC B. SYNIC C. SYSFT D. SYFSC Answer: C Question 4. A rolling database of active and previous hardware alarms can be viewed using ______ ? A. ATR B. ALB C. ALV D. ASM Answer: B Question 5. Which file is used for automatic data dumps and automatic system reloads? A. RELFSW0 B. RELFSW1 C. .RELFSW2 D. RELFSW100 Answer: A Question 6. What MOs can be tested with a command-ordered equipment test? A. TG,TRXC,TX,RX and TS B. CF,IS,TF,TRXC,TX,RX and TS C. TG,CF,IS,TF,TRXC,RX,TX and TS D. TG,TS,RX and TX Answer: B Question 7. Which of the following commands is used to define a channel group for a cell? A. RLDEI B. RLDGI C. RLDEC D. RLDSI Answer: B Question 8. Which of the following commands is used to print the process control in service performance log data? A. PRINTPROCESS B. ALIST C. ISPPRINT D. ALOGLIST Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following pairs of commands is used to replace the software version for the Managed Objects? A. RXEST and RXPLI B. RXMOI and RXMSC C. RXMSC and RXPLE D. RXMSC and RXPLI Answer: D Question 10. Software Error Information can be retrieved by command_____ ? A. PTRIP B. SYRIP C. SYDIP D. SYRSP Answer: B
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Question 1. The abbreviation "VSWR" stands for ___. A. Variable Signal Wave Radio B. Voltage Strength Wire Ratio C. Very Strong Wave Radio D. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio Answer: D Question 2. What is the proper resistance of an ESD wrist strap? A. 1 ohm(O) B. 1 Mega ohm (MO) C. 10 O D. 1 MO Answer: B Question 3. In OMT, what view shows the RUs installed in the GSM cabinet? A. System View B. Radio view C. MO View D. Cabinet View Answer: D Question 4. What could a flashing green LED indicate in an MPU? A. Fault is localized B. Wait, activity in progress C. Battery Power depleted D. None of the above Answer: B Question 5. What common LED indicators are in the CDU, PSU, BFU, and dTRU? A. RBS Fault B. Operational C. Fault D. B and C Answer: D Question 6. How many T1s can one DXU-21 support? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: D Question 7. An ESD wrist strap must always be used when handling or installing_____. A. a DXU B. printed circuit boards C. TRU/dTRU D. All of the above Answer: D Question 8. Bends to RF cables (coaxial) should be a minimum often (10) times the cable diameter. A. RLSTC:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED; B. RLSTC:SITE=12002,STATE=HALTED; C. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, HALTED, D. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED; Answer: A Question 9. The abbreviation "COD" stands for_____ A. Command Document B. Command Description C. Command On Demand D. None of the above Answer: B Question 10. In OMT, the System View shows: A. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, ISP, and ESB B. BTS, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESI C. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ETS D. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESB Answer: D
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Question 1. When a phone needs a conference resource, which of the following Cisco CallManager objects is queried first? A. media resource device list B. media resource group list C. media resource group D. media resource pool Answer: B Question 2. Which two of these tools can be used to reestablish a Cisco CallManager cluster SQL subscription? (Choose two.) A. DNA B. SQL Server Service Manager C. RTMT D. DBLHelper E. SQL Server Enterprise Manager Answer: D, E Question 3. Which of these options will prevent a device from being able to initiate conferences? A. Place all conference media resources in MRGs and exclude these MRGs from the MRGL. B. Exclude the conference media resources from all MRGs. C. Exclude the conference media resource partitions from the CSS. D. Remove the default MRGL from the device pool. Answer: A Question 4. A user reports poor quality on voice calls and is instructed to select the QRT softkey. How can you access the information generated by this call? A. use the QRT plug-in on the PC of an administrator B. use Tools\QRT Viewer under the CiscoCallManager Serviceability page C. use the System\Real-time Monitor Tool under CiscoCallManager Administration D. use theperfmon counter application under Administrative Tools Answer: B Question 5. DRAG DROP Drag drop Answer: Question 6. How is a backup target changed to a backup server? A. Modify the BARS service parameter from Target to Server. B. Use BARSadministration to change from Target to Server. C. Use BARSadministration to delete the destination target. D. Uninstall BARS and reinstall as a backup server. Answer: D Question 7. What are Cisco CallManager Locations used for? A. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls. B. Define the time zones for devices connected to the CiscoCallManager. C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment. D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable. E. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network. Answer: C Question 8. Based on the following dial-plan rules, what is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined? All employees can call local and service numbers. Managers can call long distance and international numbers. Executives can call all numbers. Only administrative assistants can call executives. Incoming calls can only be routed to IP phones. A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3 Answer: B Question 9. What will happen if Option 150 is not configured on the DHCP server? A. CiscoCallManager will be unable to replicate its database to the subscribers. B. IP Phones will not be able to load their configuration files. C. CiscoCallManager will be unable to access the TFTP server. D. IP Phones will not be able to receive VLAN information. E. CiscoCallManager will be unable to register IP Phones. F. The DHCP server will not be able to answer requests from IP Phones. Answer: B Question 10. Which four characteristics would typically be used to define a device pool? (Choose four.) A. geographic proximity B. common calling search spaces for auto-registration C. common device type D. common use ofcodecs E. common MOH source F. common class of service Answer: A, B, D, E
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Question 1.
What are three [3] functions of the Clone Private LUN?
A. Keep track of modified extents of Source LUNs and Clones
B. Stores fracture log for synchronization or reverse synchronization
C. Enable incremental synchronization upon starting an Out-of-Sync Clone LUN
D. Allow continuance of synchronization operation of a Clone upon a failed SP.
E. Store host write data from Source when Clone is fractured from Source LUN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
What are three [3] features that the PowerPath GUI provides to users?
A. Change theCLARiiON SP from active to standby.
B. Change the failover policy of a LUN.
C. Change aCLARiiON path from active to standby.
D. Change a host adapter from standby to active.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Monitors health of SAN
B. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
C. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
D. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
How are a production LUN and its clone(s) related?
A. Clone Private LUN.
B. Persistent fracture log.
C. Clone Group relationship.
D. Storage Group relationship.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
B. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
C. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
D. Monitors health of SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: C, D, E
Question 6.
What is the maximum number of Clone Private LUNs allowed on a CLARiiON CX Series array?
A. 50
B. 1
C. 25
D. 2
E. 100
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is a feature of the Write Intent Log (WIL)?
A. Used to minimize recovery in the event of a failure of the Primary array.
B. Tracks changes on the Primary LUN and synchronizes changes with the Secondary LUN when
reachable.
C. Is a volatile log which tracks changes to the Primary LUN during aFracture
D. Captureswrites to the Secondary LUN and release those changes when the Secondary is
promoted as Primary.
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the default stripe element size for a five disk RAID 5 CLARiiON LUN?
A. 8 blocks
B. 32 blocks
C. 128 blocks
D. 64 blocks
E. 16 blocks
Answer: C
Question 9.
For which three [3] databases can VisualSRM provide table level detail?
A. SQLserver
B. Sybase
C. mySQL
D. Oracle
E. Informix
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
What are the steps, in order, for configuring a Brocade switch for Web management?
Answer:
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Question 1. Terminate, Acknowledge, Promote, Demote are examples of directives of the class _______. A. Operation Context B. Record C. Alarm Object D. OSI Event Answer: C Question 2. An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO. A. no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event B. a Low Level Filter discarded this event C. the connection with the Oracle database has been lost D. there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event E. a security profile has blocked the collection of this event Answer: A, B Question 3. In the TeMIP MSL every dictionary ID is represented by _______. A. a string in English and a string in the operator's native language B. a presentation name string only C. a numerical ID only D. a presentation name string and a numerical ID Answer: D Question 4. What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity? A. getevent B. notify C. summarize D. subscribe Answer: A Question 5. The Scheduler FM is responsible for _______. A. triggering polling operations on IP entities only B. scheduling any kind of directive for global and child classes C. scheduling show directives for global classes only D. listening to scheduled reception of events Answer: B Question 6. Where is the run-time data of a Management Module typically stored? A. the TNS B. a private Management Information Repository (MIR) C. the TeMIP Dictionary D. a public Management Information Repository (MIR) Answer: B Question 7. Which attribute partition will NEVER be stored in a MIR? A. counters B. references C. statistics D. characteristics Answer: B Question 8. A TeMIP MSL specification file can be compiled into the TeMIP Dictionary with _______. A. msl2ilr B. mcc_ptb C. mcc_msl D. msl_cpl Answer: C Question 9. The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______ Management Module. A. Domain, Alarms FM B. Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM C. TeMIP, Framework FM D. MCC, Event Filtering FM Answer: D Question 10. The directory hierarchy for TeMIP files stores executable and template files under the _______ directory, and data and configuration files under the _______ directory. A. /usr/temip, /var/temip B. /usr/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip C. /etc/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip D. /usr/opt/temip, /etc/opt/temip Answer: B
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Question 1. All of the following provide confidentiality protection as part of the underlying protocol EXCEPT: A. SSL. B. SSH. C. L2TP. D. IPSeC. Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following allows an attacker to manipulate files by using the least significant bit(s) to secretly embed data? A. Steganography B. Worm C. Trojan horse D. Virus Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following type of attacks would allow an attacker to capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page? A. Teardrop B. TCP/IP hijacking C. Phishing D. Replay Answer: B Question 4. How should a company test the integrity of its backup data? A. By conducting another backup B. By using software to recover deleted files C. By restoring part of the backup D. By reviewing the written procedures Answer: C Question 5. Which of following can BEST be used to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices? A. Vulnerability scanner B. NIPS C. Protocol analyzer D. Network mapper Answer: D Question 6. When should a technician perform penetration testing? A. When the technician suspects that weak passwords exist on the network B. When the technician is trying to guess passwords on a network C. When the technician has permission from the owner of the network D. When the technician is war driving and trying to gain access Answer: C Question 7. An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam real-time block list. Which of the following is wrong with the server? A. SMTP open relaying is enableD. B. It does not have a spam filter. C. The amount of sessions needs to be limiteD. D. The public IP address is incorrect. Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following is MOST efficient for encrypting large amounts of data? A. Hashing algorithms B. Symmetric key algorithms C. Asymmetric key algorithms D. ECC algorithms Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is a reason why a company should disable the SSID broadcast of the wireless access points? A. Rogue access points B. War driving C. Weak encryption D. Session hijacking Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following BEST describes ARP? A. Discovering the IP address of a device from the MAC address B. Discovering the IP address of a device from the DNS name C. Discovering the MAC address of a device from the IP address D. Discovering the DNS name of a device from the IP address Answer: C
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Question 1.
A few small ITCertKeys locations use HFC cable to connect to the ITCertKeys WAN.
Which HFC cable network statement is true about the downstream data channel to the customer and the upstream data channel to the service provider?
A. The upstream data path is assigned a channel in a higher frequency range than the
downstream path has.
B. The downstream data path is assigned a 30 MHz channel and the upstream data path is
assigned a 1 MHz channel.
C. The downstream data path is assigned a fixed bandwidth channel and the upstream data path
uses a variable bandwidth channel.
D. Both upstream and downstream data paths are assigned in 6 MHz channels.
E. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC): A mixed optical-coaxial network in which optical fiber replaces some or all of the traditional trunk portion of the cable network. The HFC architecture is the evolution of an initial cable system and signifies a network that incorporates both optical fiber along with coaxial cable to create a broadband network. By upgrading a cable plant to an HFC architecture, you can deploy a data network over an HFC system to offer high-speed Internet services and you can serve more subscribers. The cable network is segmented into smaller service areas in which fewer amplifiers are cascaded after each optical node-typically five or fewer. The tree-and-branch network architecture for HFC can be a fiber backbone, cable area network, superdistribution, fiber to the feeder, or a ring.
Downstream: An RF signal transmission (TV channels, data) from source (headend) to the destination (subscribers). Downstream is also called a forward path.
Upstream: An RF signal transmission opposite to downstream-from subscribers to the headend. Upstream is also called a return or reverse path.
Delivering services over a cable network requires different RF frequencies-the outgoing frequencies are in the 50-to-860 MHz range, the incoming are in the 5-to-42 MHz range. To deliver data services over a cable network TV channels which usually operate at 6 MHz range for the downstream, and 6 MHz or less (for asymmetric cable connections) for upstream traffic from the corresponding frequency range are usually used.
Question 2.
Many small ITCertKeys branch offices use broadband cable for data connection access.
Which three modulation signaling standards are used in broadband cable technology? (Select three)
A. S-Video
B. NTSC
C. SECAM
D. PAL
E. FEC
F. FDM
G. MLP
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
Broadband: Data transmission where multiple pieces of data are sent simultaneously to increase the effective rate of transmission. In cable systems, the term broadband refers to the frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) of many signals in a wide radio frequency (RF) bandwidth over an HFC network, and the capability to handle vast amounts of information. NTSC is a North American TV technical standard for analog TV systems. The standard was created in 1941 and is named after the National Television System Committee formed in 1940. The standard uses a 6-MHz modulated signal. PAL is a color encoding system used in broadcast television systems in most of Europe, Asia, Africa, Australia, Brazil, and Argentina, and uses a 6-MHz, 7-MHz, or 8-MHz modulated signal. The color difference signals an alternate phase at the horizontal line rate. SECAM is an analog color TV system used in France and certain Eastern European countries that uses an 8-MHz modulated signal.
Question 3.
Some of the smaller ITCertKeys locations use HFC cable to connect to the ITCertKeys WAN.
Which two statements are true about broadband cable (HFC) systems? (Select two)
A. Cable modems operate at Layers 1, 2, and 3 of the OSI model.
B. Cable modems operate at Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model.
C. A function of the cable modem termination system is to convert the digital data stream from the
end user host into a modulated RF signal for transmission onto the cable system.
D. Cable modems only operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
E. A function of the cable modem termination system (CMTS) is to convert the modulated signal
from the cable modem into a digital signal.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC): A mixed optical-coaxial network in which optical fiber replaces some or all of the traditional trunk portion of the cable network. The HFC architecture is the evolution of an initial cable system and signifies a network that incorporates both optical fiber along with coaxial cable to create a broadband network. By upgrading a cable plant to an HFC architecture, you can deploy a data network over an HFC system to offer high-speed Internet services and you can serve more subscribers. The cable network is segmented into smaller service areas in which fewer amplifiers are cascaded after each optical node-typically five or fewer. The tree-and-branch network architecture for HFC can be a fiber backbone, cable area network, superdistribution, fiber to the feeder, or a ring.
Question 4.
A ITCertKeys remote user is getting Internet access from the local cable provider.
When an individual is connected to the Internet by way of a CATV cable service, what kind of traffic is considered upstream traffic?
A. Traffic going from the user's home traveling to the headend.
B. Broadcast traffic, including the cable TV signals.
C. Traffic between the headend and the TV signal.
D. Traffic between the headend and the supplier antenna.
E. Traffic from outside the local cable segment serving the user's home.
F. All of the above can be considered upstream
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the CATV space, the downstream channels in a cable plant (cable head-end to subscribers) is a point-to-multipoint channel. This does have very similar characteristics to transmitting over an Ethernet segment where one transmitter is being listened to by many receivers. The major difference is that base-band modulation has been replaced by a more densely modulated RF carrier with very sophisticated adaptive signal processing and forward error correction (FEC). In the upstream direction (subscriber cable modems transmitting towards the head-end) the environment is many transmitters and one receiver. This introduces the need for precise scheduling of packet transmissions to achieve high utilization and precise power control so as to not overdrive the receiver or other amplifier electronics in the cable system. Since the upstream direction is like a single receiver with many antennas, the channels are much more susceptible to interfering noise products. In the cable industry, we generally call this ingress noise. As ingress noise is an inherent part of CATV plants, the observable impact is an unfortunate rise in the average noise floor in the upstream channel. To overcome this noise jungle, upstream modulation is not as dense as in the downstream and we have to use more effective FEC as used in the downstream.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/759/ipj_1-3/ipj_1-3_catv.html
Question 5.
A new cable modem was shipped to the home of a ITCertKeys user, where it is being installed for the first time.
When a DOCSIS 1.1 compliant cable modem first initializes, (boots up) what does it do?
A. Establishes IP connectivity (DHCP).
B. Determines the time of day.
C. Requests a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. Scan for a downstream channel and the establishment of timing synchronization with the
CMTS.
E. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the DOCSIS (Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications) when you first power up a cable modem it starts scanning (starting at a low frequency) for a cable signal. When it 'hears' a cable modem stream it listens for a broadcast (from the service provider) which contains information (ie. frequency) needed to talk back with the head end. It then 'talks back' and if it communicates the right authentication information, it is allowed to proceed.
References:
Page 225 of the CCNP Self-Study BCRAN (642-821) ISBN: 1-58720-084-8
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/cable/ps2217/products_feature_guide_chapter09186a008019b57f.htm
Question 6.
You are building a small network at your home and you intend on connecting your cable modem to a Cisco router.
Which router interface would you connect the modem to?
A. Synchronous serial
B. Asynchronous serial
C. Ethernet
D. auxiliary
E. BRI
Answer: C
Explanation:
In certain environments where a non Cisco Cable Modem (CM) is used, and the CM is only capable of bridging, a Cisco router such as the Cisco 806 can be connected to the Cable Modem via the Ethernet interface. The routing can then be performed by the Cisco router behind the Cable Modem and the Client PC or Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) will be connected to the Cisco router. Network Address Translation (NAT) can then be configured on the Cisco router.
When the Cisco router is connected behind the Cable Modem the first problem that might be encountered is not obtaining an IP address dynamically on the Cisco router's Ethernet interface. Most Internet Service Providers (ISPs) allow only one host or PC behind the Cable Modem. Some ISPs assign an IP address to the PC based on the host name. Therefore, if you have a Cisco router behind the Cable Modem, then the host name for the router configured using the hostname command should be the same host name given by the ISP.
Example:
Question 7.
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream
path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
According to the DOCSIS (Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications) when you first power up a cable modem it starts scanning (starting at a low frequency) for a cable signal. When it 'hears' a cable modem stream it listens for a broadcast (from the service provider) which contains information (ie. frequency) needed to talk back with the head end. It then 'talks back' and if it communicates the right authentication information, it is allowed to proceed. Once these steps are completed, layers 1 and 2 will be operational.
Question 8.
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own
television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from
noise or other signals.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Developed by CableLabs and approved by the ITU in March 1998, Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) defines interface standards for cable modems and supporting equipment. In a cable TV system, signals from the various channels are each given a 6-MHz slice of the cable's available bandwidth and then sent down the cable to your house. In some systems, coaxial cable is the only medium used for distributing signals.
When a cable company offers Internet access over the cable, Internet information can use the same cables because the cable modem system puts downstream data -- data sent from the Internet to an individual computer -- into a 6-MHz channel. On the cable, the data looks just like a TV channel. So Internet downstream data takes up the same amount of cable space as any single channel of programming. Upstream data -- information sent from an individual back to the Internet -- requires even less of the cable's bandwidth, just 2 MHz, since the assumption is that most people download far more information than they upload.
Question 9.
ITCertKeys operates a DSL network. What does the "dsl operating-mode auto" command configure on a Cisco router?
A. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper modulation method to use when
connecting an ATM interface.
B. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper DSL type (ADSL, IDSL, HDSL,
VDSL) to use when connecting an ATM interface.
C. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper encapsulation method to use
when connecting an ATM interface.
D. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper authentication method to use
when connecting an ATM interface.
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
dsloperating-mode auto interface configuration command to specify that the router automatically detect the DSL modulation that the service provider is using and set the DSL modulation to match. An incompatible DSL modulation configuration can result in failure to establish a DSL connection to the DSLAM of the service provider
Example:
Question 10.
ITCertKeys is a DSL service provider using providing xDSL to its customers.
Which statement about xDSL implementations is true?
A. All xDSL standards operate in lower frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore
coexist on the same media.
B. Other than providing higher data rates, HDSL is identical to ADSL.
C. The ADSL standard operates in higher frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore
coexist on the same media.
D. The HDSL standard operates in higher frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore
coexist on the same media.
E. All xDSL standards operate in higher frequencies than the POTS system and therefore can
coexist on the same media.
F. None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation:
DSL is not a complete end-to-end solution, but rather a physical layer transmission technology similar to dial, cable, or wireless. DSL connections are deployed in the "last mile" of a local telephone network-the local loop. The connection is set up between a pair of modems on either end of a copper wire extending between the customer premises equipment (CPE) and the DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM). A DSLAM is the device located at the central office (CO) of the provider and concentrates connections from multiple DSL subscribers. The term xDSL covers a number of DSL variations, such as ADSL, high-data-rate DSL (HDSL), Rate Adaptive DSL (RADSL), symmetric DSL (SDSL), ISDN DSL (IDSL), and very-high-data-rate DSL (VDSL). DSL types not using the voice frequencies band allow DSL lines to carry both data and voice signals simultaneously (for example, ADSL and VDSL), while other DSL types occupying the complete frequency range can carry data only (for example, SDSL and IDSL). Data service provided by a DSL connection is always-on. The data rate that DSL service can provide depends upon the distance between the subscriber and the CO. The smaller the distance, the higher data rate can be achieved. If close enough to a CO offering DSL service, the subscriber might be able to receive data at rates of up to 6.1 Mbps out of a theoretical 8.448 Mbps maximum.
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