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Braindumps for "000-516" Exam

Some New Questions

 Question 1.
Which of the following SQL clauses CANNOT be used in a CREATE VIEW statement?

A. GROUP BY
B. ORDER BY
C. Sub select
D. Outer join

Answer: B

Question 2
Given the following partitioned table space index definition:
CREATE INDEX OWN1.IX1 ON OWN1.TB1 (COL_KEY ASC) USING STOGROUP DSN8G710 PRIQTY
7200 SECQTY 720CLUSTER (PART 1 VALUES(25), PART 2 VALUES(50), PART 3 VALUES(75), PART
4
VALUES(99), )BUFFERPOOL BP1;

Which of the following partitions will a data row with a COL_KEY value of 55 fall into?

A. Partition 1
B. Partition 2
C. Partition 3
D. Partition 4

Answer: C

Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a valid option on a CREATE INDEX statement for a TYPE 2 index?

A. CLOSE
B. DEFER
C. SUBPAGE
D. PIECESIZE

Answer: C

Question 4
Which of the following statements is NOT true for a segmented table space?

A. It is more efficient for table spaces greater than 4 GB
B. It makes free pages available immediately after a commit
C. It generally skips empty pages when a table scan is being processed
D. It has more efficient space map processing than a simple table space

Answer: A

Question 5
When copying a table using CREATE TABLE...LIKE, which of the following is TRUE of the new table?

A. Table check constraints are copied from the original table
B. WITH RESTRICT ON DROP will be copied from the original table
C. Column null attributes will be copied from the original table
D. Primary and foreign keys will be copied from the original table
E. Database and table space information is the same as the original table

Answer: C

Question 6
Given the following CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE STAFF ( EMPID CHAR(6) NOT NULL, NAME VARCHAR(15) NOT NULL, SALARY
DECIMAL(9,2) ) IN DATABASE HUMANRES;

Where will DB2 put the STAFF table?

A. In an implicit table space
B. In the default table space
C. In an existing table space
D. In a temporary table space

Answer: A

Question 7
Which of the following tasks CANNOT be accomplished using the DB2 Catalog or Directory?

A. Determine plan/package dependencies
B. Determine referential constraints upon a table
C. Determine the characteristics of indexes on a table
D. Determine table spaces that do not have image copies
E. Determine active/archive log data set characteristics

Answer: E

Question 8
Which TWO of the following system catalog tables contains the correlation between the name of an index and the physical dataset name? (Select two.)

A. SYSIBM.SYSKEYS
B. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXES
C. SYSIBM.SYSKEYSPART
D. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXPART
E. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXSTAT

Answer: B, D

Question 9
RUNSTATS with the KEYCARD parameter has been run for all the tables in the payroll application.

Which two of the following columns will tell the DBA the estimated number of distinct values in a column of any table?

A. SYSTABLES.CARDF
B. SYSCOLDIST.CARDF
C. SYSTABLEPART.CARDF
D. SYSINDEXPART.CARDF
E. SYSCOLUMNS.COLCARDF
F. SYSCOLSTATS.COLCARD

Answer: B, E

Question 10
Which DB2 catalog table can be used to determine if a user has the authorization to bind a new plan?

A. SYSDBAUTH
B. SYSTABAUTH
C. SYSUSERAUTH
D. SYSPLANAUTH

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "642-961" Exam

Cisco Data Center Networking Infrastructure Solutions design

 Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com wants to use distinct security policies for different departments. 

What must be configured?

A. individual security level for each department
B. separate ACL group for each department
C. distinct VLAN for each department
D. unique firewall context for each department

Answer: D

Question 2.
Exhibit:
 
You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. ITCertKeysA, ITCertKeysB, C, and ITCertKeys4 each represents a model for placement of a default gateway. 

Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services?

A. model ITCertKeysB
B. model C
C. model ITCertKeysA
D. model ITCertKeysD

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which of the following attack types should be mitigated in the data center core layer?

A. IP spoofing
B. MAC address spoofing
C. port scans
D. DDoS attacks

Answer: D

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. 

Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs?

A. looped triangle
B. loop-free inverted U
C. loop-free U
D. looped square

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which type of HPC application requires low latency?

A. financial analytics
B. seismic and geophysical modeling
C. digital image rendering
D. finite element analysis

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which statement best describes the data center core layer?

A. provides a resilient Layer 2 routed fabric
B. load balances traffic between the core and aggregation layers
C. is typically merged with the campus core layer
D. connects to the campus aggregation layer

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies?

A. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller
B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger
C. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller
D. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger

Answer: B

Question 8.
What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments?

A. simpler cabling
B. longer distance support
C. more sophisticated traffic management
D. lower latency

Answer: D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. 

Where is Layer 2 adjacency required?

A. server-to-server only
B. aggregation-to-access only
C. aggregation-to-access and access-to-server
D. access-to-server only

Answer: D

Question 10.
According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection model, which security feature is recommended for the data center core layer?

A. prefix filtering
B. Dynamic ARP Inspection
C. traffic rate limiting
D. control plane protection

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "650-393" Exam

Cisco Lifecycle Services Express

 Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.

A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?

A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development

Answer: A

Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?

A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit

Answer: B

Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?

A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan

Answer: C

Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?

A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development

Answer: F

Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?

A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?

A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies

Answer: F

Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? 

A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?

A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco 
    technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced 
    Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and 
    objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?

A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements 
    of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help 
    deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the 
    customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the 
    appropriate technology strategy

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "642-481" Exam

Cisco Rich Media Communications

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer: B

Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows: 
Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence
Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3:three conference participants

What will occur when the third conference is attempted?

A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for 
    three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide 
    the number of required services.

Answer: A

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. 

Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: B

Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. 

Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 

A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. 

Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer: A

Question 6.
Exhibit:
 

CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. 

In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?

A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 
    kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 
    kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 
    kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.

Answer: C

Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. 

What should this company purchase?

A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)

A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways

Answer: A, C, D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768

Answer: C

Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?

A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing

Answer: A

Question 11.
ITCertKeys.com has a small group of users who do interactive video teaching from H.323 endpoints to H.320 videoconferencing systems. 

What should you do so that incoming calls can reach endpoints that are associated with a specific E.164 address?

A. Deploy an IPCC server and configuration an IVR to act as a front end to the MCU
B. Enable the DID capability that is built into the gateway
C. Deploy the Cisco IP IVR
D. Configure the DID in the Cisco CallManager

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "642-642" Exam

Quality of Service (QOS)

 Question 1.
Which of the following markers can be set by Committed Access Rate (CAR)? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DSCP bits
B. QoS Group
C. ATM CLP bit
D. Frame Relay DE bit
E. IP precedence bits

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:
 
Source: Cisco IP QoS Introduction, Page 64

Question 2.
What makes the DiffServ model more scalable than the IntServ model? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DiffServ makes use of per-aggregate QoS instead of per-flow QoS.
B. DiffServ makes use of hop-by-hop signaling which allows DiffServ to scale to a larger number 
    of application flows.
C. DiffServ is capable of implementing admission control either locally on the routers or be 
    offloaded to a central policy server using the COPS protocol.
D. DiffServ routers are not compelled to track the state information for each individual flow.

Answer: A, D

Incorrect:
B. No hop-by-hop signaling uses per-hop behavior
C. This is a feature of both models Sources: Cisco IP QoS Introduction
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ ITK5 43/ ITK7 66/technologies_white_paper09186a00800a3e2f.shtml

Question 3.
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know what the benefits of
using traffic shaping to implement network rate limiting is.What will your reply be?
(Choose all that apply.)

A. Traffic shaping is an effective tool for rate-limiting VoIP traffic.
B. It will not increase packet loss.
C. It will not add to packet transit delays.
D. Traffic shaping can interact with congestion mechanisms embedded in Frame Relay.
E. Traffic shaping can be used on inbound and outbound traffic on a router.

Answer: B, D

Incorrect:
A. Shaping adds variable delay to traffic, possibly causing jitter
C. A shaper typically delays excess traffic using a buffer
E. This is a feature of policing

Explanation:
 
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing

Question 4.
Study the Exhibit below carefully:
Router# show interfaces hssi 0/0/0 rate-limit
Hssi0/0/0 45Mbps to R1
Input
matches: all traffic
params: 20000000 bps, 24000 limit, 24000 extended limit
conformed 8 packets, 428 bytes; action: transmit
exceed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action: drop
last packet: 8680ms ago, current burst: 0 bytes
last cleared 00:03:59 ago, conformed 0 bps, exceed 0 bps
Output
matches: all traffic
params: 20000000 bps, 24000 limit, 24000 extended limit
conformed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action: transmit
exceed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action; drop
last packet: 8680ms ago, current burst: 0 bytes
last cleared 00:03:59 ago, conformed 0 bps, exceed 0 bps
According to the exhibit, the router has been configured with Committed Access Rate (CAR) to rate limit traffic.

What data rate has the traffic been limited to?

A. 192 Kbps
B. 2400 Kbps
C. 4,5 Mbps
D. 20 Mbps
E. 40 Mbps

Answer: D

Explanation:
 

In the configuration example, CAR is applied on the input and output of a customer interface on the provider edge router. Traffic is policed to 256 Kbps on input and output, with some bursting allowed. All exceeding traffic is dropped at the provider edge. The result of the configuration is that traffic to and from the customer is limited to the average rate of approximately 256kbps (256000 in the configuration) with sustained bursts of approximately 32kbps (4kBps or 4000 in the configuration). Initial bursts at line speed can last up to 3 seconds because the token bucket can hold up to 96000 tokens (bytes) which equals 768000 bits (3 x 256000 bits).
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing, Page 4-91

Question 5:
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know which type of software queuing mechanism is Frame Relay Traffic Shaping implemented with on the physical interface. 

What will your reply be?

A. Priority Queuing (PQ)
B. Custom Queuing (CQ)
C. FIFO
D. Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
E. IP Real Time Transport Protocol (RTP) Priority

Answer: D

Explanation:
 
Works on any (sub) interface type  
Shapes traffic on that (sub)interface basis
Can use any physical interface queuing (FIFO, PQ, CQ or WFQ)
Only uses WFQ as the shaping queue (that is, on the input of the shaper)
In contrast, Frame Relay Traffic Shaping:
Works only on Frame Relay (sub) interfaces
Shapes traffic inside individual FR Virtual Circuits
Only permits WFQ as the physical interface queuing method
Can use any queuing method as the shaping queue (that is, on the input of the shaper)
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing, Page 4-47

Question 6.
Why is it beneficial to make use of Enhanced LMI (ELMI) on Cisco networks?

A. ELMI is responsible for providing virtual provisioning tools at the edge of the Frame Relay 
    network.
B. ELMI permits routers to dynamically download QoS information from Cisco switches for use in 
    traffic shaping or for congestion management purposes.
C. ELMI provides the router the ability to use additional QoS tools including rate limiting with CAR 
    and the Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC).
D. ELMI allows the router to deliver packets at the line rate of the Frame Relay interface, 
    regardless of the condition of the Frame Relay network.

Answer: B

Explanation:
 

Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing, Page 4-58

Question 7. 
Which of the following statements are true when you compare DSCP and IP Precedence to each other? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DSCP is backwards compatible with IP Precedence.
B. DSCP cannot be easily mapped into QoS because of its expanded classification options.
C. DSCP is more granular the IP Precedence, since more marking combinations are available.
D. DSCP appears stubby when compared IP Precedence, since devices make use of DSCP as 
    defined in RFC exclusively.
E. DSCP is 6 bits long and IP Precedence is 3 bits long.
F. DSCP is more restrictive than IP Precedence, since devices are only allowed to use DSCP as 
    defined in RFCs.

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:
A)DSCP is backward compatible with IP Precedence (Class Selector Code point, RFC 1812) but not with the ToS byte definition from RFC 791 ("DTR" bits) Reference: Introduction to IP QoS (Course) p.45

Question 8.
Which MQC command would you use to perform marking properly?

A. precedence 5
B. ip precedence 5
C. set ip precedence 5
D. set ip mark precedence 5
E. mark ip precedence 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
IP precedence is encoded into the three high-order bits of the ToS field in the IP header. It supports eight classes of which two are reserved and should not be used for user-defined classes (IP precedence 6 and 7). IP precedence 0 is the default value and is usually used for the best-effort class. The set ip precedence command marks packets of a class with the specified precedence value. 

Reference: 
Introduction to IP QoS (Course) p.9-104

Question 9.
Which of the following statements aptly describes a network well designed for QoS?

A. Packets are classified at each router, based on as many detail as possible, typically using 
    extended IP ACLs to match the packets for classification.
B. Packets are classified at each router, based on socket address only, typically using extended 
    IP ACLs to match the packets for classification.
C. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated 
    differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified based on different parameters, but close to the edge of the network. 
    The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers.
E. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closest to the source of the 
    traffic. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers.

Answer: C

Explanation:
To achieve the same level of quality in both directions the packets going to and coming from the customer network must first be classified and marked.
Classification and marking packets going to the customer network is a more difficult task because:
1) Classifying and marking must be performed on all edge routers.
2) Classifying and marking requires the identification of the customer network. Using PBR, CAR, CB-Policing or CB-Marking does not scale because it involves the use of access lists (this is especially difficult if customer networks are dynamically learned via BGP).

Reference: 
Introduction to IP QoS (Course) p.2-35

Question 10.
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know which bit in the ATM header can be marked by the Class Based Marker to extend IP QoS policy into an ATM network. 

What will your reply be?

A. DE
B. PTI
C. FECN
D. CLP
E. BECN

Answer: D

Explanation:
 

The ATM CLP Setting feature somewhat allows users to extend their IP QoS policies into an ATM network by setting the ATM CLP bit in ATM cells based on the IP Precedence value of the packets being sent. As congestion occurs in the ATM network, cells with the CLP bit set are more likely to be dropped, resulting in improved network performance for high priority traffic and applications. The set atm-clp command marks packets of a class with the ATM CLP bit as a part of an input or output policy.
Source: Cisco IP QoS Modular QoS CLI Service Policy, Page 9-110


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Braindumps for "70-293" Exam

Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure

 Question 1.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory forest. The functional level of the forest is set at Windows Server 2003. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a file server named ITCertKeys-SR07 that hosts a shared folder in a child domain in ITCertKeys.com's forest. ITCertKeys.com has a sister company that has its own Active Directory forest. You need to ensure that users, who belong to a child domain in the sister company's Active Directory forest, are provided with access to the shared folder in the child domain in ITCertKeys.com's Active Directory forest. You also need to ensure that these users are unable to access any other resources in ITCertKeys.com's forest.

What should you do?

A. You have to create an external trust, and configure it with the selective authentication option.
B. You have to create a forest trust, and configure it with the domain-wide authentication option.
C. You have to create an external trust, and configure it with the domain-wide authentication 
    option.
D. You have to create a forest trust, and configure it with the selective authentication option.

Answer: A

Explanation:
An external trust is always nontransitive, and can be either one-way or two-way. This type of trust is used to create a relationship between a Windows Server 2003 domain and one running Windows NT 4.0. It can also be used to connect two domains that are in different forests, and don't have a forest trust connecting them. In this scenario, you have to create outgoing external trust from the domain where the file server is located to the sister company's domain where the users require access to a resource in ITCertKeys.com's forest. This will allow users from the sister company's domain to authenticate directly to ITCertKeys.com's resource domain. Selective authentication allows users from a trusted domain to authenticate only to those resources to which they are explicitly allowed to authenticate.

Incorrect Answers:
B, D: A forest trust is appropriate when users from multiple domains in one forest require access to resources in multiple domains in another forest.
C: Configuring Domain-wide authentication would provide users from trusted domains the same level of access to local resources that local users have.

Question 2.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A new ITCertKeys.com security policy requires that all user passwords expire every 45 days. You configure a password policy that meets this requirement in a new Group Policy object (GPO) linked to the ITCertKeys.com domain. Users are now prompted to change their passwords on a regular basis. While performing a maintenance procedure on a domain controller three months later, you restart the domain controller in Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM) and discover that the old administrative password still works. You need to ensure that DSRM password is changed on this domain controller.

What should you do?

A. You have to configure the password policy in the Default Domain Controllers Policy GPO in 
    normal mode.
B. You should reset the password for the local Administrator account in normal mode using 
    Computer Management.
C. You have to configure the password policy in the Default Domain Policy GPO in normal mode.
D. You should reset the DSRM password in normal mode using the Ntdsutil utility.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
When you restart a domain controller in DSRM, the Active Directory service is not activated and the domain controller will act as a stand alone server. To log on to a computer in DSRM and to comply with the security policy, you need to set a password by using the Ntdsutil utility when the domain controller is operating in DSRM.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: If the password policies were configured in the GPOs, it will not affect DSRM passwords on domain controllers.
B: You will not find any local user accounts on a domain controller.

Question 3.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory network named itcertkeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has headquarters in London and branch office in Paris. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Sales department. The headquarters in London contains a Windows Server 2003 computer named ITCERTKEYS-SR03 that hosts the ITCertKeys.com public Web site. The public Web site consists of the goods that are advertised by the Sales department. ITCERTKEYS-SR03 is running IIS 6.0. Due to the demand on the public Web site, you installed a new ASP.NET-based application on the public Web site.

A ITCertKeys.com manager named Andy Reid is responsible for updating the public Web site on a regular basis. After the installation of the new ASP.NET-based application, Andy Reid access the public Web site, however, he received an error message stating that the page cannot be found. Andy Reid needs to access the public Web site to update the data. You need to ensure that the new ASP.NET-based application works.

What should you do?

A. You need to select support for Active Server Pages.
B. You should assign the proper permissions to the Authenticated Users group for the new 
    ASP.NET-based application.
C. You need to acquire a server certificate from your corporate certification authority and install  
    the certificate.
D. You need to select only the required Web service extensions.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
By default, in Windows Server 2003, the Internet Information Services (IIS) has only static HTML content. You will only receive an HTTP error 404 if dynamic content is requested. You need to enable the support for the appropriate Web service extensions in IIS Manager to provide dynamic content.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Since ASP and ASP.NET are different, there is no need to support ASP. 
B: It is unlikely that the Authenticated Users group needs to be assigned any permission to access. public Web site allow anonymous access.
C: The scenario does not state that the new application requires a certificate for SSL encryption or for another purpose, and even if it did, a certificate issued would not be trusted by the general public.

Question 4.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named itcertkeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Finance department. ITCertKeys.com contains a domain controller named ITCERTKEYS-DC01 which resides in the Finance department. Due to the confidential information of the data that reside on the domain controller, you need to make sure that the security is established at all time on ITCERTKEYS-DC01. You then access the Security Configuration and Analysis (SCA) MMC snap-in, and receive the following database log file as seen in the exhibit.
Exhibit:
 

You need to ensure that security is established on the ITCertKeys.com network around the clock.
What should you do?

A. Reconfigure the "Minimum Password Length" security policy.
B. Reconfigure the "Lockout Duration" security policy.
C. Reconfigure the "Password Must Meet Complexity Requirements" security policy.
D. Reconfigure the "Minimum Password Age" security policy.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The Security Configuration and Analysis (SCA) Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in is used to evaluate a computer's security settings with a predefined security template. The exhibit shows that disparity exists between the value of the " Minimum Password Length" setting on ITCERTKEYS-DC01 and the setting's value that is configured in the currently loaded security template. 

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: The Lockout Duration, Password Must Meet Complexity Requirements, and Minimum Password Age settings are marked as Not Configured. Reconfiguring these would result in inconsistent security on the ITCertKeys.com network as only ITCERTKEYS-DC01 will be configured with these settings.

Question 5.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named itcertkeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com is a relatively new company and at present has to share premises with other companies. Consequently there are added security risks and as a precautionary measure all the itcertkeys.com servers are located and maintained in a strong room and kept under lock and key. 

As a further precautionary measure you also applied the securedc.inf and the securews.inf security templates to the relative computers. There is however still the threat that unauthorized physical access could still be possible in lieu of the shared premises and unauthorized attempts at guessing the itcertkeys.com user's passwords. You received instructions from the CIO to ensure that added security measures are implemented to minimize the possibility of user passwords being at risk.

What should you do?

A. On all the domain controllers, you need to apply the hisecdc.inf predefined security template.
B. You need to generate a system key with the Syskey utility, and then specify that this system  
    key be stored locally.
C. On all the member servers, you need to apply the hisecws.inf predefined security template.
D. You need to generate a system key with the Syskey utility, and then specify that this system 
    key be stored on a floppy disk.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
To provide protection to user passwords, you need to use the Syskey utility. This will allow you to generate a system key that is used to encrypt passwords. 

The three levels of protection that is offered by the Syskey utility are as follows:
1. Store the system key locally on a computer, which is not secure.
2. Use an administrative-assign password or
3. Store the system key on a floppy disk, which is required at startup.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Hisecdc.inf and hisecws.inf are more secure than securedc.inf and securews.inf, however, it will not stop the unauthorized user to guess passwords.
B: Storing the system key locally on the computer is the least secure option.

Question 6.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named itcertkeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Sales department. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a file server named ITCERTKEYS-SR13. ITCERTKEYS-SR13 hosts a shared folder which keeps the latest goods which the users needs to access. 

A ITCertKeys.com employee named Andy Booth works in the Sales department. One morning Andy Booth complains that the performance of ITCERTKEYS-SR13 is very slow. To avoid that employees contact you regarding the performance of the file server, you are going to set counters to alarm you if any bottlenecks occur on ITCERTKEYS-SR13. . You then create a counter, and choose the following monitoring counters. 
1. PhysicalDisk: %Disk Time
2. Processor: % Processor Time
3. Network Interface: Bytes Total/sec.

What should your next step be?

A. You should specify the threshold values for performance counters, which will produce a 
     message to your workstation when reached.
B. Navigate to the System performance object, and select a ProcessorQueue Length counter.
C. Use the CSV format and configure a trace log that runs always, export the performance data to 
    a spreadsheet manually.
D. Use the CSV format and configure a counter log that record performance data on a constant 
    basis.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
Alerts can be configured when thresholds are reached. This will allow you to receive a message when the threshold values are reached. 

Incorrect Answers:
B: To find a bottleneck in a subsystem, the ProcessorQueue Length counter is used. This will not help you in defining an alert.
C: If you want to record selected system application events, you should use the Trace logs.
D: Although using this option will gather the required performance data for bottleneck detection, it would not enable you to configure an alert.

Question 7.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named itcertkeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Research department. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a domain controller named ITCERTKEYS-DC03. ITCERTKEYS-DC03 is used to communicate with other companies which form part of the alliances. 

You do not want ITCERTKEYS-DC03 to slack in performance, because it will influence the tasks of the employees in ITCertKeys.com. You want to forward a network message to your client computer in your office when CPU utilization goes beyond 80 percent. You thus need to configure ITCERTKEYS-DC03 to forward a network message to your client computer when CPU utilization goes beyond 80 percent.

What should you do?

A. On ITCERTKEYS-DC03 configure a network message to be sent to your client computer, by 
    using the Services MMC snap-in.
B. On ITCERTKEYS-DC03 configure a network message to be sent to your client computer, by 
    using the Performance Logs and Alerts MMC snap-in.
C. On ITCERTKEYS-DC03 configure a network message to be sent to your client computer, by 
    using the Network Monitor.
D. On ITCERTKEYS-DC03 configure a network message to be sent to your client computer, by 
    using the System Monitor.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The Performance Logs and Alerts Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in can be used to configure alerts that trigger an action.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Services MMC snap-in can be used to view and modify system and network services that are installed on a Windows Server 2003 computer. You need to set alerts.
C: Network Monitor is not the tool to be used in this case as it is usually used to capture and decode incoming an outgoing network packets.
D: System Monitor is used to view real-time hardware and software performance data, but in this case you require the Performance Logs and Alerts Microsoft Management Console..

Question 8.
You work as a network administrator for ITCertKeys.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains six domain controllers of which two each is configured to run Windows Server 2003, Windows 2000 Server, and Windows NT Server 4.0 The ITCertKeys.com departments are organized into organizational units (OUs). As such the Administration OU is named ITK_ADMIN, and the OU is named the ITK_SALES. All file servers for all departments are located in their respective OUs. The ITK_SALES OU is a child OU of the ITK_ADMIN OU. 

A new ITCertKeys.com written security policy states that the Administration department servers must be configured with security settings that are enhanced from the default settings. The ITCertKeys.com written security policy further also states that the Sales department servers must be configured with security settings that are enhanced from the default settings, and auditing should be enables for file  and folder deletion. Your instructions are to plan the security policy settings of the Administration and Sales departments to ensure compliance with the written security policy. To this end you decide to make use of a Group Policy Objects (GPO) for each of  these departments.

What should you do next?

A. One GPO must apply the Compatws.inf security template to computer objects. Link this GPO 
    to the ITK_ADMIN OU. The second GPO must enable the Audit object access audit policy on 
    computer objects. Link this GPO to the ITK_SALES OU.
B. One GPO must apply the Securews.inf security template to computer objects. Link this GPO to 
    the ITK_ADMIN OU. The second GPO must enable the Audit object access audit policy on 
    computer objects. Link this GPO to the ITK_SALES OU.
C. One GPO must apply to the Compatws.inf security template to computer objects. Link this 
    GPO to the ITK_ADMIN OU. The second GPO must apply the Hisecws.inf security template to 
    computer objects. Link this GPO to the ITK_SALES OU.
D. One GPO must apply the Securews.inf security template to computer objects. Link this GPO to 
    both the ITK_ADMIN and the ITK_SALES OUs. The second GPO must enable the Audit object 
    access audit policy on computer objects. Link this GPO to the ITK_SALES OU.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The Securews.inf template contains policy settings that increase the security on a workstation or member server to a level that remains compatible with most functions and applications. The template includes many of the same account and local policy settings as Securedc.inf, and implements digitally signed communications and greater anonymous user restrictions. Audit Object Access A user accesses an operating system element such as a file, folder, or registry key. To audit elements like these, you must enable this policy and you must enable auditing on the resource that you want to monitor. For example, to audit user accesses of a particular file or folder, you display its Properties dialog box with the Security tab active, navigate to the Auditing tab in the Advanced Security Settings dialog box for that file or folder, and then add the users or groups whose access to that file or folder you want to audit.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: The Compatws.inf security template is designed for Windows NT compatible applications that require lower security settings in order to run. These settings are lower than the default settings.
D: The ITK_SALES OU is a child OU of the ITK_ADMIN OU. GPO settings applied to parent OUs are inherited by child OUs; therefore we do not need to link the GPO to both the ITK_ADMIN OU and the ITK_SALES OU.

Reference:
Craig Zacker, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-293): Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, Chapters 9 and 10

Question 9.
You work as the network administrator for ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 50 application servers that are configured with Windows Server 2003. At present the security configuration of the ITCertKeys.com is not uniformly applied. Local administrators, based on their different knowledge and skill levels, were responsible for the configuration of the security settings on each of the application servers. This resulted in a wide variety of authentication methods, audit settings and account policy settings.

ITCertKeys.com thus appointed a security team to complete a new network security design. Included in the design is a baseline configuration for the security settings on all servers. The baseline security settings use the hisecws.inf predefined security template. The design also requires modified settings for servers in an application server role. These settings include system service startup requirements, renaming the administrator account, and more stringent account lockout policies. The security team created a security template named application.inf that contains the required settings.

You received instruction to plan the deployment of the new security design. Your plan must ensure that all application servers' security settings are standardized, and that after the security settings on all application servers comply with the design requirements.

What should you do?

A. First apply the setup security.inf template, and then apply the hisecws.inf template, and then 
    the application.inf template.
B. First apply the Application.inf template and then the Hisecws.inf template.
C. First apply the Application.inf template, and then apply the setup.inf template, and then the 
    hisecws.inf template.
D. First apply the Setup.inf template and then the application.inf template

Answer: A.

Explanation: 
The servers currently have different security settings. Before applying our modified settings, we should reconfigure the servers with their default settings. This is what the security.inf template does. Now that our servers have the default settings, we can apply our baseline settings specified in the hisecws.inf template. Now we can apply our custom settings using the application.inf template.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The hisecws.inf template would overwrite the custom application.inf template.
C: The setup.inf security template doesn't exist. To return a system to its default security settings, we use the security.inf template.
D: The setup.inf security template doesn't exist. To return a system to its default security settings, we use the security.inf template.

Reference:
Jill Spealman, Kurt Hudson & Melissa Craft, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-294); Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, 2004, p. 13:62 
David Watts & Will Willis, Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Infrastructure Exam Cram 2 (Exam 70-294): Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2004, Chapter 8

Question 10.
You work as a network administrator for ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains Terminal servers that host legacy applications. Only ITCertKeys.com users that have Power Users group membership can run these legacy applications. A new ITCertKeys.com security policy states that the Power Users Group must be empty on all servers. You are thus required to ensure that the legacy applications will be available to users on the servers when the new security requirement is enabled.

What should you do?

A. In the domain, the Domain Users Global group should be added to the Remote Desktop Users 
    built-in group in the domain.
B. On each terminal server, the Domain Users Global group should be added to the Remote 
    Desktop Users local group.
C. Allow the Local Users group to run the legacy applications my modifying the compatws.inf 
    security template settings. Import the security settings into the default Domain Controllers 
    Group Policy Object.
D. Allow the Local Users group to run the legacy applications by modifying the compatws.inf 
    security template settings. Apply the modified template to each terminal server.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
The default Windows 2000 security configuration gives members of the local Users group strict security settings, while members of the local Power Users group have security settings that are compatible with Windows NT 4.0 user assignments. This default configuration enables certified Windows 2000 applications to run in the standard Windows environment for Users, while still allowing applications that are not certified for Windows 2000 to run successfully under the less secure Power Users configuration. However, if Windows 2000 users are members of the Power Users group in order to run applications not certified for Windows 2000, this may be too insecure for some environments. 

Some organizations may find it preferable to assign users, by default, only as members of the Users group and then decrease the security privileges for the Users group to the level where applications not certified for Windows 2000 run successfully. The compatible template (compatws.inf) is designed for such organizations. By lowering the security levels on specific files, folders, and registry keys that are commonly accessed by applications, the compatible template allows most applications to run successfully under a User context. In addition, since it is assumed that the administrator applying the compatible template does not want users to be Power Users, all members of the Power Users group are removed.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: Global group is a group that is available domain-wide in any domain functional level, so why would you add to another group.
C: The Compatws.inf template is not intended for domain controllers, so you should not link it to a site, to the domain, or to the Domain Controllers OU

Reference:
Jill Spealman, Kurt Hudson & Melissa Craft, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-294); Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, 2004, p. 8:5 Dan Holme, and Orin Thomas, MCSA/MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit: Upgrading Your Certification to Microsoft Windows Server 2003: Managing, Maintaining, Planning, and Implementing a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 environment: Exams 70-292 and 70-296, Chapter 9



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Braindumps for "70-431" Exam

Microsoft® SQL Server 2005 - Implementation and Maintenance

 Question 1.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2000 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server. ITCertKeys-DB01 contains a database named ITK_Sales.

ITCertKeys.com intends migrating ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 in the near future. To prepare for the migration, you decide to install SQL Server 2005 Express on a server named ITCertKeys-SR31. You verify that ITCertKeys-SR31 exceeds the minimum recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.

What should you do next?

A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-SR31 to Windows Sever 2003 and install Service Pack 1.
B. Install and run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor on ITCertKeys-SR31.
C. Install SQL Server 2000 on ITCertKeys-SR31.
D. Download and install the .NET Framework 2.0.

Answer: D


Explanation: 
SQL Server 2005 requires the.NET Framework 2.0. This is automatically installed when SQL Server 2005 is installed but is not automatically installed when SQL Server 2005 Express is installed.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-SR31 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1 as SQL Server 2005 Express can be installed on Windows 2000 Server. You will need to install Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Server though. 
B: You should run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor when you want to upgrade an instance of a SQL Server 2000 database to SQL Server 2005.
C: You do not need to install SQL Server 2000 before installing SQL Server 2005 Express.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: installing SQL Server Express, before installing

Question 2.
You work as a database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 with the latest Service Packs and Hotfixes, while the client computers run Windows XP Professional, Windows 98 Second Edition, and Novell NetWare 6.5. You have received instruction to prepare for a new installation of SQL Server 2005 on a member server named ITCertKeys-SR21. ITCertKeys-SR21 will host a database named ITK_Sales. All ITCertKeys.com users must be able to connect to ITCertKeys-SR21 by computer name. A ITCertKeys.com network administrator named Rory Allen must ensure that the client computers will be able to connect to ITCertKeys-DB01.

Which protocols can ITCertKeys.com users use to ITCertKeys-SR21?

A. TCP/IP and Named Pipes
B. TCP/IP and IPX/SPX
C. Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA)
D. Shared Memory

Answer: A


Explanation: 
By default, clients have TCP and Named Pipes as available protocols. You can manipulate the protocol ordering by using the SQL Server Client utility. The client application uses the protocols in the order specified on the client computer. If you are using SQL Server 2005, the protocol order is stored in the ProtocolOrder registry entry under the following registry subkey:
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\MSSQLServer\Client\SNI9.0

Incorrect Answers:
B: SQL Server 2005 does not support IPX/SPX. The newer versions of NetWare, such as NetWare 6.5, support TCP/IP which makes it the common protocol for all clients.
C: The Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA) can be used only by VIA hardware.
D: Shared Memory can only be used on the local computer and cannot be used as a network protocol.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: client connections [SQL Server], about client network connections, choosing a network protocol

Question 3.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2000 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server. ITCertKeys-DB01 contains a database named ITK_Sales. ITCertKeys.com intends migrating ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 in the near future. To prepare for the migration, you decide to install SQL Server 2005 Express on a server named ITCertKeys-SR23. ITCertKeys-SR31 was used for previously used by application developer and contains Microsoft Visual Studio 2003, .NET Framework 1.2 and Internet Explorer 5.5. You verify that ITCertKeys-SR23 exceeds the minimum recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.

What should you do next? (Each correct answer provides part of the solution. Choose THREE.)

A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-SR23 to Windows Sever 2003 and install Service Pack 1 for Windows 
    Sever 2003.
B. Install Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Sever on ITCertKeys-SR23.
C. Upgrade the .NET Framework 1.2 to .NET Framework 2.0 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
D. Uninstall the .NET Framework 1.2 and install the .NET Framework 2.0 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
E. Upgrade Internet Explorer 5.5 to Internet Explorer 6.0 and install Service Pack 1 for Internet 
    Explorer 6.0 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
F. Upgrade Microsoft Visual Studio 2003 to Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 and install Service Pack 
   1 for Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 on ITCertKeys-SR23.

Answer: B, D, E


Explanation: 
SQL Server 2005 requires Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Sever, Internet Explorer 6.0 with Service Pack 1 and the .NET Framework 2.0. The .NET Framework 2.0 is automatically installed with other versions of SQL Server 2005 but is not automatically installed with SQL Server 2005 Express. You can upgrade .NET Framework 1.0 and upgrade .NET Framework 1.1 to .NET Framework 2.0 but .NET Framework 1.2 must be uninstalled first.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-SR31 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1 as SQL Server 2005 Express can be installed on a Windows 2000 Server once you install Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Server.
C: You can upgrade .NET Framework 1.0 and upgrade .NET Framework 1.1 to .NET Framework 2.0 but .NET Framework 1.2 must be uninstalled first.
F: SQL Server 2005 Express does not require any version of Microsoft Visual Studio.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: installing SQL Server Express, before installing

Question 4.
You are employed as a database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. You have received instruction from the CIO to prepare a new installation of SQL Server 2005. The new SQL Server 2005 database server is named ITCertKeys-DB01. A ITCertKeys.com user named Mia Hamm is a member of the Marketing department. You instruct her to identify the protocols that the client computers might use to connect to the server. Mia Hamm needs to identify the protocols that are needed to accomplish this goal.

What should she identify? (Choose all that apply)

A. She should use the Multiprotocol.
B. Mia Hamm should use the Named Pipes.
C. She should use the Shared Memory.
D. She should use the TCP/IP
E. Mia Hamm should use the Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA).

Answer: B, D


Explanation:
The clients have by default TCP and Named Pipes as available protocols. You can make use of the SQL Server Client utility to manipulate the protocol ordering. The client application uses the protocols in the order specified on the client computer. When you make use of the SQL Server 2005, the protocol order is stored in the ProtocolOrder registry entry under the following registry subkey: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\MSSQLServer\Client\SNI9.0

Incorrect Answers:
C: Shared Memory can only be used on the local computer and cannot be used as a network  protocol.
E: The Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA) can be used only by VIA hardware.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: client connections [SQL Server], about client network connections, choosing a network protocol

Question 5.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2000 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server Service Pack 4. ITCertKeys-DB01 contains a database named ITK_Trading. ITCertKeys.com wants to migrate ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 but wants to retain the ITK_Trading database with the same instance name. You decide to perform an in-place upgrade to SQL Server 2005. You verify that ITCertKeys-DB01 exceeds the minimum recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.

What should you do next?

A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1.
B. Run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Detach the ITK_Trading database on ITCertKeys-DB01.
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility.

Answer: B


Explanation: 
Before you perform an in-place upgrade of an existing database, you should run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor. The SQL Server Upgrade Advisor produces a list of items that must be addressed before and after performing the upgrade. This list of items is specific to the existing installation.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1 as SQL Server 2005 can be installed on Windows 2000 Server with Service Pack 4.
C: You need to detach a database when you need to move the database to another database instance or another database server. You do not need to detach the database before performing an in-place upgrade.
D: You should run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor before you run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility. The SQL Server Upgrade Advisor produces a list of items that must be addressed before and after performing the upgrade. This list of items is specific to the existing installation.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: updating databases, detaching and attaching databases

Question 6.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 7.0 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server. Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Server id installed on ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys.com wants to migrate ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005. You decide to perform an in-place upgrade to SQL Server 2005. You verify that ITCertKeys-DB01 exceeds the recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.

What should you do next?

A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003.
B. Install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 7.0 on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Upgrade SQL Server 7.0 on ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2000.
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on ITCertKeys-DB01 and upgrade directly to SQL 
    Server 2005.

Answer: B


Explanation: 
You can upgrade from SQL Server 7.0 with Service Pack 4 directly to SQL Server 2005. Thus you need only install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 7.0. 

Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003 as SQL Server 2005 can be installed on Windows 2000 Server with Service Pack 4.
C: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 200 as SQL Server 7.0 with Service Pack 4 can be upgraded directly to SQL Server 2005. Besides, you will need to install Service Pack 3 for SQL Server 2000 before you can upgrade it to SQL Server 2005.
D: You need to install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 7.0 before you can upgrade it directly to SQL Server 2005.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: upgrading SQL Server, upgrading to SQL Server 2005

Question 7.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains two SQL Server 2000 database servers named ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 that are configured fro log shipping. ITCertKeys-DB01 is the primary server and hosts a database named ITK_Trading. Both ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 have Service Pack 3 for SQL Server 2000 installed.

ITCertKeys.com wants to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 to SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition but the ITK_Trading database must remain available during the upgrade process. You verify that both ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 exceed the recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition. You then install Service Pack 1 for Windows Server 2003 on ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02.

What should you do next?

A. Install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 2000 on both database servers.
B. Enable failover in the SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration and upgrade ITCertKeys-
    DB02 to SQL Server 2005.
C. Run the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard on ITCertKeys-DB01 to upgrade it to SQL Server 
    2005.
D. Upgrade ITCertKeys-DB02 to SQL Server 2005 and then upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL 
    Server 2005.

Answer: B


Explanation: 
SQL Server 2005 does not support the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard which was integral to log shipping in SQL Server 2000. Hence, log shipping stops functioning when you upgrade a SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration directly to SQL Server 2005. To upgrade log shipping to SQL Server 2005, you must migrate the database servers to SQL Server 2005. If you want the database to remain available during the migration process, you must migrate with failover. To migrate with failover you must enable failover and upgrade ITCertKeys-DB02. Then you need to failover to ITCertKeys-DB02 and upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01. Then configure log shipping with the ITCertKeys-DB02 becoming the primary server and ITCertKeys-DB01 becoming the secondary server.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 2000 on the database servers as SQL Server 2000 with Service Pack 3 can be upgraded to SQL Server 2005. However, SQL Server 2005 does not support the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard which was integral to log shipping in SQL Server 2000. Hence, log shipping stops functioning when you upgrade a SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration directly to SQL Server 2005.
C: SQL Server 2005 does not support the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard which was integral to log shipping in SQL Server 2000. Hence, log shipping stops functioning when you upgrade a SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration directly to SQL Server 2005. 
D: Removing log shipping from ITCertKeys-DB02 and upgrading ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 will not ensure that the ITK_Trading database remains available.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: log shipping [SQL Server], upgrading

Question 8.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a Domain Controller named ITCertKeys-DC01 and a member server named ITCertKeys-SR21. ITCertKeys.com wants to implement a SQL Server 2005 database that will store sales data. All ITCertKeys.com users will require access to the Sales_DB database. You have been instructed to install SQL Server 2005 on ITCertKeys-SR21 and to create a database named Sales_DB. You need to ensure that ITCertKeys.com users and applications can connect to the database instance by using only the computer name. 

What should you do during the installation of SQL Server 2005 on ITCERTKEYS-SR21?

A. Select the Named Instance and use MSSQLSERVER as the instance name.
B. Select the Named Instance and use ITCertKeys-DC01 as the instance name.
C. Select the Default Instance and accept the default instance name.
D. Select the Named Instance and use ITCertKeys-SR21 as the instance name.

Answer: C


Explanation: 
To ensure that users and applications can connect to the instance using the computer name, you should select the Default Instance and accept the default instance name, MSSQLSERVER.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: You cannot use a Named Instance as users and applications will need to specify the server name and the instance name when connection to the database.

Question 9.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run on Windows Server2003 while the client computers run Windows XP Professional, Windows 98 Second Edition, and Novell NetWare 6.5. All computers are members of the ITCertKeys.com Active Directory domain. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that hosts a database instance named MSSQLSERVR. 

ITCertKeys.com wants to implement another SQL Server 2005 instance for a database named Sales_DB. Sales_DB will store sales data for the company. All ITCertKeys.com users will require access to the Sales_DB database. You have been instructed to create the SQL Server 2005 instance for the Sales_DB database. You need to ensure that all users will be able to connect to the Sales_DB database. You cannot make configuration changes to the client computers. Your solution must optimize network traffic.

What should you do?

A. Install the instance as a Named Instance and configure it to support Mixed Mode 
    Authentication. The enable TCP/IP for the instance.
B. Install the instance as a Default Instance and configure it to support Windows Authentication. 
    The enable TCP/IP for the instance.
C. Install the instance as a Named Instance and configure it to support SQL Authentication. 
    The enable IPX/SPX for the instance.
D. Install the instance as a Default Instance and configure it to support Windows Authentication. 
    The enable IPX/SPX for the instance.

Answer: A


Explanation: 
The default instance is named MSSQLSERVER. This instance name is already in use; therefore you should use a Named Instance. You should use Mixed Mode Authentication to support NetWare users.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You cannot use the Default Instance as the default instance is named MSSQLSERVER and is already in use. Furthermore, you need to use Mixed Mode Authentication as Windows Authentication does not support NetWare users.
C: You can use SQL Authentication, but this will require that you create SQL Logins for all users and groups. It would be easier to use Windows Authentication for clients that user Windows XP Professional and Windows 98 SE, and create SQL Logins for the NetWare 6.5 users. Also, SQL Server 2005 does not support IPX/SPX. The newer versions of NetWare, such as NetWare 6.5, support TCP/IP which makes it the common protocol for all clients.
D: You cannot use the Default Instance as the default instance is named MSSQLSERVER and is already in use. Furthermore, you need to use Mixed Mode Authentication as Windows Authentication does not support NetWare users. Also, SQL Server 2005 does not support IPX/SPX. The newer versions of NetWare, such as NetWare 6.5, support TCP/IP which makes it the common protocol for all clients.

Question 10.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run on Windows Server2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains two SQL Server 2005 database servers that are configured in a cluster with two nodes named NodeA and NodeB. NodeA hosts a default database instance named MSSQLSERVR.

ITCertKeys.com wants to implement another SQL Server 2005 instance for a database named Sales_DB. Sales_DB will store sales data for the company. All ITCertKeys.com users will require access to the Sales_DB database. You have been instructed to create the SQL Server 2005 instance for the Sales_DB database on Node A. You need to ensure that all users will be able to connect to the Sales_DB database.

What should you do?

A. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeA and select a Named Instance for the 
    Sales_DB database.
B. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeA and select the Default Instance for the 
    Sales_DB database.
C. Move the existing instance from NodeA to NodeB. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on 
    Node A. Select the Default Instance and accept the default instance name
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeB and select a Named Instance for the 
    Sales_DB database.

Answer: A


Explanation: 
The default instance is named MSSQLSERVER. This instance name is already in use on NodeA; therefore you should use a Named Instance.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You cannot use the Default Instance as the default instance is named MSSQLSERVER and is already in use.
C: You do not need to move the existing instance as you can install up to 50 instances on a SQL Server 2005 database server.
D: You need to install the instance on NodeA not NodeB. You can install a new instance on NodeA if you use a Named Instance.


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PRO: Optimizing and Maintaining a Database Administration Solution by Using Microsoft SQL Server 2005

 Question 1.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.

The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys-DB01 also hosts two financial applications. You need to optimize the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 and increase the performance of the two financial applications. You need to modify the SQL Server configuration to accomplish this goal.

What should you do?

A. Configure the max worker threads server option.
B. Configure the min memory per query server option.
C. Configure the max server memory server option.
D. Configure the min server memory server option.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The max server memory option is used to specify the maximum amount of system memory that SQL Server 2005 is allowed to consume. Setting this option will ensure that the SQL Server 2005 does not consume all the available memory and can be used to ensure that sufficient memory is remains available for the other applications to run.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The max worker threads option is used to specify the number of processor threads that are used to supported users connected to SQL Server. This does not assist in optimizing performance for other applications.
B: The min memory per query option is used to specify the minimum amount of memory that is allocated to the execution of a query. This is useful if there are several concurrent queries but it does not assist in optimizing performance for other applications. 
D: The min server memory option is used to ensure that SQL Server 2005 does not release memory below the min server memory value once it is reached. This ensures that SQL Server 2005 always has sufficient memory but it will not ensure that the other applications have sufficient memory.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min server memory option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min memory per query option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max worker threads option

Question 2.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.
The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys-DB01 also hosts two financial applications. Several ITCertKeys.com users in the Sales department complain that queries against the ITK_Sales database perform very poorly at times. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of by using ITCertKeys-DB01 and discover that SQL Server 2005 does not have sufficient memory to run efficiently. You need to ensure that SQL Server 2005 always has sufficient memory to run efficiently.

What should you do?

A. Decrease the min memory per query server option.
B. Increase the min server memory server option.
C. Increase the max worker threads server option.
D. Decrease the max server memory server option.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The min server memory option is used to ensure that SQL Server 2005 does not release memory below the min server memory value once it is reached. This ensures that SQL Server 2005 always has sufficient memory. By default, min server memory is set to 0.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The min memory per query option is used to specify the minimum amount of memory that is allocated to the execution of a query. This is useful if there are several concurrent queries. Decreasing this option will increase the possibility that the SQL Server 2005 will perform poorly.
C: The max worker threads option is used to specify the number of processor threads that are used to supported users connected to SQL Server. Increasing this option will not address the memory problem.
D: The max server memory option is used to specify the maximum amount of system memory that SQL Server 2005 is allowed to consume. Decreasing this option will increase the possibility that the SQL Server 2005 will perform poorly.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min server memory option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min memory per query option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max worker threads option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option

Question 3.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. The tables in the ITK_Sales database are shown in the following database diagram. 
 

The recent increase in database usage at the company has resulted in several ITCertKeys.com users complaining of timeouts when they try to retrieve sales orders from the ITK_Sales database. You need to determine whether partitioning the Orders table would improve database performance.

What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose TWO.)

A. Run Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
B. Create a performance log file to monitor SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec.
C. Run SQL Server Profiler to replay the trace file and the log file.
D. Use the SQL Server Profiler Tuning template to create a trace file.
E. Create a performance log file to monitor Logical Disk: Disk Read Bytes/sec

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to determine whether indexing and partitioning of a table would improve database performance. The Database Engine Tuning Advisor analyzes a workload file that you can create by running SQL Server Profiler and creating a trace based on the SQL Server Profiler Tuning template.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec counter is used to monitor the read activity on an instance of SQL Server. It does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.
C: You can use the SQL Server Profiler to analyze a trace file and a log file to determine which queries are causing excessive resource utilization. However, this information does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.
E: The Logical Disk: Disk Read Bytes/sec counter is used to monitor the read activity on a logical disk. It does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning Advisor [SQL Server]
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: SQL Server Profiler
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: performance counters [SQL Server]
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option 

Question 4.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named
ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. The tables in the ITK_Sales database are shown in the following database diagram.
 

Several ITCertKeys.com users start complaining of slow response time when they run queries against the ITK_Sales database. You run the sys.dm_os_schedulers view on ITCertKeys-DB01 and discover that the runnable_tasks_count is consistently at or above ten. You run System Monitor on ITCertKeys-DB01 and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. 
 

You need to improve database performance.
What should you do?

A. Increase the Random Access Memory (RAM).
B. Add an additional processor.
C. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
D. Use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to suggest new indexes.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The Processor:% Processor Time counter in the exhibit indicates that the processor is often running at over 80%. This indicates that the processor is causing a bottleneck. Adding an additional processor to the system will improve overall system performance.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Memory:Avg. Disk Queue Length counter in the exhibit is low. This indicates that the RAM is not causing a bottleneck. Therefore, adding additional RAM to the system will not improve overall system performance.
C: The PhysicalDisk:Pages/sec counter in the exhibit is low. This indicates that the disk subsystem is not causing a bottleneck. Therefore, upgrading the disk subsystem will not improve overall system performance.
D: The Processor:% Processor Time counter in the exhibit indicates that the processor is often running at over 80%. This indicates that the processor is causing a bottleneck. Indexing the tables will not reduce the load on the processor and will not improve overall system performance.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: CPU [SQL Server], monitoring 
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning Advisor [SQL Server]

Question 5.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. You use a client computer named ITCertKeys-WS444. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Products. The recent increase in database usage at the company has resulted in several ITCertKeys.com users complaining of poor query performance and query timeouts try to retrieve data from the ITK_Products database. You need to determine the cause of the poor performance. You need to minimize the effect of your monitoring strategy on system performance.

What should you do?

A. Run the SQL Server Profiler from ITCertKeys-WS444 and create a trace that monitors 
    ITCertKeys-DB01. Save the trace file to a table.
B. Run the Performance tool on ITCertKeys-DB01 to create a log that monitors ITCertKeys –
    DB01. Save the log file to a folder on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Run the SQL Server Profiler on ITCertKeys-DB01 and create a trace that monitors ITCertKeys 
    -DB01. Save the trace file to a table.
D. Run the Performance tool on ITCertKeys-WS444 to create a log that monitors ITCertKeys –
    DB01. Save the log file to a folder on ITCertKeys-WS444.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
You can use the Windows Performance tool on a client computer to monitor system performance on the database server without negatively affecting the performance of the database server. You can use the Windows Performance tool to create a log on the client computer that you can analyze to determine the cause of a resource bottleneck.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: SQL Server Profiler is used to trace SQL Server events. It is not used to troubleshoot resource bottlenecks.
B: You should run the Windows Performance tool from you client computer and save the log file to your computer. This will reduce the impact of monitoring on the database server.

Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: CPU [SQL Server], monitoring
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning Advisor [SQL Server]

Question 6.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 is running a default SQL Server instance and a named instance named ITK_Sales. ITCertKeys.com users complain that performance for both instances has deteriorated over the last six months. You want to determine the memory and processor resource requirements of the two instances as well as any resource conflicts between the two instances.

What should you do?

A. Use SQL Server Profiler to create a trace and capture typical activity for each instance with 
    both instances running.
B. Use Windows Performance to create counter log that captures performance counters for each 
    instance with both instances running.
C. Use Windows Performance to create counter log that captures performance counters for each 
    instance separately with each instance running on its own.
D. Use SQL Server Profiler to create a trace and capture typical activity for each instance 
    separately with each instance running on its own.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
You can use the Windows Performance to monitor system performance on the database server but you must capture the counters with both instances running at the same time to collect accurate data. 

Incorrect Answers:
A, D: SQL Server Profiler is used to trace SQL Server events. It is not used to troubleshoot memory and processor resource bottlenecks.
C: Multiple SQL Server instances share system resources and interact with each other; therefore you must capture the counters with both instances running at the same time to collect accurate data.

Question 7.
DRAG DROP
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server2003. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 on a server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 has five 120 GB hard disk drives. Two of the hard disks are configured as a mirrored volume that contains the operating system. The other three hard disks are configured as a RAID-5 volume. All database files are located on the RAID-5 volume while the transaction log files are located on the mirrored volume. ITCertKeys-DB01 is running a default SQL Server instance and a named instance named ITK_DB. The default instance hosts an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) database named ITK_Sales while the named instance hosts historical data used for reporting. ITCertKeys.com users complain that database performance is deteriorating. You suspect that a disk problem might be causing the bottleneck. You want to determine which SQL Server instance is using the most disk time. 

What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate performance counters that you should monitor in the left pane and drag them to the right pane.)
 

Answer:
 

Explanation:
The SQL Server:Buffer Manager object is used to monitor resource usage for each SQL Server instance. You need to monitor the SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec counter to determine the number of page reads performed by each instance and the SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page writes/sec counter to determine the number of page writes performed by each instance.

Incorrect Answers:
The Logical Disk:Disk Write Bytes/sec and Logical Disk:Disk Read Bytes/sec counters can be used to monitor the total number of disk reads or writes per second for a volume. Neither can be used to determine instance is using the most disk time. The PhysicalDisk counters can be used to monitor a RAID volume but this cannot used to determine instance is using the most disk time.

Question 8.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that hosts a database named ITK_Sales. The ITK_Sales database stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys.com users complain that the performance of the ITK_Sales database has deteriorated over the last few weeks. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. 
 

You also notice that the ratio of SQL Recompilations/sec to Batch Requests/sec is unusually high. You suspect that the number of recompiles is causing the high processor time value. You need to improve the performance of the ITK_Sales database.

What should you do?

A. Turn off automatic updates of statistics for all tables in the ITK_Sales database.
B. Install an additional processor on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
D. Use SQL Server Profiler to identify the stored procedures being recompiled.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
You can use SQL Server Profiler to identify the stored procedures that are being recompiled. SQL Profiler will indicate which stored procedures are being recompiled and why each recompilation is occurring. 

Incorrect Answers:
A: Turning off automatic updates of statistics for the tables may improve performance but it does not address the problem caused by the recompiles.
B: The high processor usage could be caused by the high number of recompiles. You should first reduce the number of recompiles before installing extra hardware on the server.
C: You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to determine whether indexing and partitioning of a table would improve database performance but you cannot use it to identify which stored procedures are being recompiled.

Question 9.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a  SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that has a single 120 GB hard disk, 1 GB of random access memory (RAM), and has a single 2.8 GHz Pentium 4 processor. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys.com users complain that the performance of the ITK_Sales database has deteriorated over the last six months. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. 
 

You need to improve server performance.

What should you do?

A. Add an additional processor.
B. Add more Random Access Memory (RAM).
C. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
D. Install a second hard disk and split data between the disks.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
A value of 62.8 for the SQL Server: Buffer Manager: Buffer Cache Hit Ratio counter indicates that the system requires more RAM. This counter should be above 90. A lower value indicates that you need more RAM.

Incorrect Answers:
A: A value of 43.8% for the Processor:% Processor Time and System:%Total Processor Time counters are well below the 80% threshold that indicates a processor problem.
C, D: A value of 1.4 for the PhysicalDisk:Avg. Disk Queue Length is close to indicating a bottleneck, but this is probably caused by insufficient memory than by hard disk performance. Disk activity is likely to drop when you add more memory.

Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that has a RAID-5 disk array, 2 GB of random access memory (RAM), and has a single 3.2 GHz Xeon processor. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys.com users complain that the performance of the ITK_Sales database becomes sluggish at certain times of the day. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 during a typical day and compare them to baseline results collected shortly after the database was deployed. You identify times during the day when the hardware resources on ITCertKeys-DB01 become a performance bottleneck. You need to determine which database activities are causing the hardware bottlenecks. You want to accomplish this using minimal amount of administrator effort and do not want to consume any more system resources than necessary. 

What should you do? (To answers, select the appropriate actions from the pane on the left and place them in the pane on the right.) 
 

Answer:
 

Explanation:
You should capture a SQL Profiler trace and Windows counter log over the same time period. You can open the trace in SQL Server Profiler and the counter log in the Windows Performance utility at the same time and compare the two.


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UPGRADE: MCDBA Skills to MCITP Database Administrator by Using Microsoft SQL Server 2005

 Question 1.
You work as DBA at ITCertKeys.com. You administer two Windows Server 2003 computers named ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB. You install SQL Server 2005 on both ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB to host a new company database. ITCertKeysA hosts a read-write copy of the company database in which all changes are made. ITCertKeysB subscribes to a publication on ITCertKeysA and is only used for reporting. A Windows domain administrator provides you with a domain user account named SQLSRV to use as the security context for the SQL Server services. A password policy of 42 days exists in the Default Domain Group Policy object (GPO). You install the database on ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB and configure replication. Everything works fine for six weeks, but then all SQL Server services fail. You need to correct the problem. 

What should you do?

A. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the Log on as service right to the SQLSRV 
    domain user account.
B. Configure the SQLSRV domain user account with a new strong password. Configure the new 
    password in the properties of each SQL Server service that failed.
C. Create a local user account on ITCertKeysA named ITCertKeysA and a local user account on 
    ITCertKeysB named ITCertKeysB. Configure ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB to run under the 
    context of the appropriate local user account.
D. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the SQLSRV domain user account 
    membership in the Domain Admins group.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The Default Domain Group Policy object requires that passwords are changed every 42 days. In order to correct this problem you have to change the password in the Active Directory AND configure the new password on both you SQL Servers to the newly changed password.

Question 2.
You are a database administrator of two SQL Server 2005 computers named ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB. You have a Microsoft .NET application that has been modified so that it now accesses a database on ITCertKeysB in addition to ITCertKeys A. You do not want the user application to connect directly to ITCertKeysB. You need to enable the data retrieval from ITCertKeysB while maintaining the ability to assign different permissions to different users who use the .NET application. 

What should you do?

A. Change the .NET application to define a new server connection to ITCertKeysB.
B. Configure a linked server on ITCertKeysA to point to ITCertKeysB.
C. Change the stored procedures called by the .NET application to include the OPENXML 
    command.
D. Configure a linked server on ITCertKeysB to point to ITCertKeysA.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
SQL Server lets you access external data sources from your local Transact-SQL code. You need to define a linked server for each external data source you want to access and then configure the security context under which your distributed queries will run. After you create a linked server, you can use the Transact-SQL OPENQUERY function to execute your distributed queries.

Question 3.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. Your company uses a different company's application that is based on SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition. The application executes a query that uses an index query hint. The index query hint is not suitable for your environment, but you cannot modify the query. You need to force the application to use a different query execution plan. 

What should you do?

A. Create a plan guide for the query.
B. Clear the procedure cache.
C. Create a new covering index on the columns that the query uses.
D. Update the statistics for all of the indexes that the query uses.

Answer: A

Over the past few years, Microsoft SQL Server has increased its presence in the industry and has reduced its TCO. This reduced TCO is a direct result, primarily, of the numerous self-tuning mechanisms built into Microsoft(r) SQL Server. These mechanisms automatically perform tasks that would otherwise have to be performed by experienced database administrators. One such mechanism is the cost-based optimizer (CBO) that is used to dynamically generate query execution plans. The CBO probes several system-wide resource states and employs many complex, heuristical algorithms to generate the best possible plan for a given query and the underlying table and index structures. This mechanism works well for the vast majority of user queries, but there are times when experienced users need to force a particular query plan, based on some prior knowledge or insights into future uses.

Question 4.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. Your SQL Server 2005 computer contains one user database that holds sales transaction information. Users report that the queries and stored procedures that they use every day are taking progressively longer to execute. You also notice that the amount of free disk space on the SQL Server computer is decreasing. You need to create a maintenance plan to correct the performance and storage problems. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Check Database Integrity option.
B. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Reorganize Index option.
C. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Shrink Database option.
D. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Clean Up History option.
E. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Execute SQL Server Agent Job option.

Answer: B, C

Explanation: 
When you indexes are not heavily fragmented you can reorganize indexes, which uses few system resources and runs automatically online. In SQL Server 2005, certain operations such as large delete operations or -one-time data loads might leave database files larger than they need to be. SQL Server 2005 enables a DBA to shrink each file within a database to remove unused pages and regain disk space.

Question 5.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. You are responsible for a SQL Server 2005 database that has several indexes. You need to write a stored procedure that checks the indexes for fragmentation. 

Which Transact-SQL statement should you use? 

A. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
C. SELECT * FROM sys.indexes
D. DBCC DBREINDEX

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The index_physical_stats function takes five parameters: database_id, object_id, index_id, partition_id, and mode. This function returns row size and fragmentation information.

Question 6.
You work as DBA at ITCertKeys.com. You administer two SQL Server 2005 computers named ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB. ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB contain a copy of a database named Sales. The database is replicated between ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB by using transactional replication. A full backup of each database is performed every night. Transaction log backups are performed every hour. 

Replication latency is typically less than two minutes. One afternoon, the Sales database on ITCertKeysA becomes corrupted. You are unable to repair the database. The Sales database on ITCertKeysB is unaffected. You need to return the Sales database on ITCertKeysA to normal operation as quickly as possible. You must ensure a minimum loss of data and minimal impact to users of either server. 

What should you do?

A. Perform a full database backup on ITCertKeysB. Restore the backup to ITCertKeysA.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup and all transaction logs made since the full 
    backup was made.
C. Restore only the most recent transaction log backup.
D. Detach the Sales database on ITCertKeysB. Copy the database file to ITCertKeysA, and 
    attach the database on both servers.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
Detaching the database will not apply to the minimal impact on users as it will be offline during copy. Restoring only the latest transaction log will not give you a working database and restoring last full backup and all transaction logs after that will not apply to the restore normal operations as quickly as possible part of the requirements.

Question 7.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. The company runs a popular database-driven Web site against a SQL Server 2005 computer named ITCertKeysB. You need to ensure a quick response time and appropriate audit trail in the event that ITCertKeysB experiences excessive traffic due to denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. 

Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Configure the new performance alert to start a SQL Server Profiler trace.
B. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Current Bandwidth counter.
C. Configure the new performance alert to start a Network Monitor capture.
D. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Bytes Total/sec counter.

Answer: C, D

Explanation: 
Using alerts, System Monitor tracks specific events and notifies you of these events as requested. An alert log can monitor the current performance of selected counters and instances for objects in SQL Server. When a counter exceeds a given value, the log records the date and time of the event. An event can also generate a network alert. Characteristic for a typical DoS attack is a large number of Bytes/sec. Characteristic for a DDoS attack is also a large number of Bytes/sec but also a large number of connections made from a large number of hosts.

Question 8.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. One of the databases on a SQL Server 2005 computer contains a stored procedure. Users run this stored procedure to import data into a table. The stored procedure needs to use the TRUNCATE TABLE command before importing new data into the table. However, the users who run the stored procedure do not have permission to truncate the table. You need to provide a way for the stored procedure to truncate the table before it imports new data. 

What should you do?

A. Configure the stored procedure to use the EXECUTE AS command.
B. Configure the stored procedure to be owned by the same database user as the table.
C. Assign the users DELETE permission in the table.
D. Add the users to the db_datawriter fixed database role.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
In SQL Server 2005 you can implicitly define the execution context of the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions), procedures, queues, and triggers. By specifying the context in which the module is executed, you can control which user account the SQL Server 2005 Database Engine uses to validate permissions on objects that are referenced by the module. This provides additional flexibility and control in managing permissions across the object chain that exists between user-defined modules and the objects referenced by those modules. Permissions must be granted to users only on the module itself, without having to grant them explicit permissions on the referenced objects. Only the user that the module is running as must have permissions on the objects accessed by the module.
Syntax:
Functions (except inline table-valued functions), Stored Procedures, and DML Triggers
{ EXEC | EXECUTE } AS { CALLER | SELF | OWNER | 'user_name' }

Question 9.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. You have separate SQL Server 2005 development and production environments. You use the Business Intelligence Development Studio to create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package in your development environment. Then, you use the SSIS package to import data into your development environment from one of your company's trading partners. You need to deploy the SSIS package to your production environment. Your production environment uses different table names than your development environment. 

What should you do?

A. Save the SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to a file. Copy the file to the 
    production server. Configure the SSIS package on the production server to use the new file.
B. Back up the master database and restore it to the production server. Rename the appropriate 
    tables inside the master database.
C. Create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration. Build a deployment 
    utility. Copy the deployment folder for your SSIS project to your production server. Execute the 
    manifest file.
D. Back up the msdb database and restore it to the production server. Rename the appropriate 
    tables inside the msdb database.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
You have to use a SSIS package to accomplish this but you can not use the package built for your development environment as the table names differ.

Question 10.
You are a database administrator for ITCertKeys.com. You notice that one of the data files on a SQL Server 2005 computer is corrupted. You need to restore the database from the most recent set of backups. You want to perform this task as quickly as possible, with a minimum loss of data. 

What should you do first?

A. Restore the most recent transaction log backup.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup.
C. Perform a full database backup.
D. Perform a transaction log backup.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
In order to restore from the most recent set of backups, you have to first ensure that you can restore all transactions that have occurred between the time of the backup and the time when the database went corrupt. In order to accomplish this you should backup the transaction log.


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Security Solutions for Systems Engineers

 Question 1.
Which Cisco Security product is used to perform a Security Posture Assessment of client workstations?

A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Posture Assessment Tool
D. Cisco NAS Appliance
E. Cisco ACS

Answer:  D

Question 2.
Which three policy types can be assigned to a network user role in the Cisco NAC Appliance architecture? (Choose three.)

A. Allowed IP Address ranges
B. Network Port Scanning Plug-ins
C. VPN and roaming policies
D. Inactivity period
E. Session Duration
F. Minimum Password length

Answer:  B, C, E

Question 3.
Which two components should be included in a network design document? (Choose two.)

A. Complete network blueprint
B. Operating Expense
C. Risk Analysis
D. Configuration for each device
E. Detailed part list

Answer:  A, E

Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested in Cisco Security modules. Match the descriptions with the proper module. Use only options that apply.
 

Answer:
 

Question 5.
Which statement is true about the Cisco Security MARS Global Controller?

A. Rules that are created on a Local Controller can be pushed to the Global Controller
B. Most data archiving is done by the Global Controller
C. The Global Controller receives detailed incidents information from the Local Controllers and 
    correlates the incidents between multiple Local Controllers
D. The Global Controller Centrally Manages of a group of Local Controllers

Answer:  D

Question 6.
Which certificates are needed for a device to join a certificate-authenticated network?

A. The Certificates of the device and its peer
B. The Certificates of the certificate authority, the device and the peer
C. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the peer
D. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the device

Answer:  D

Question 7.
Which three Cisco Security products help to prevent application misuse and abuse? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco IOS FW and IPS
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Trust Agent
F. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access)

Answer:  A, B, D

Question 8.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested attack methodologies. Match the descriptions with the proper methodology. 

Use only options that apply.
 

Answer:
 

Question 9.
Which two of these features are integrated security components of the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? (Chose two.)

A. VRF-aware firewall
B. Cisco ASA AIP SSM
C. VTI
D. Control Plane Policing
E. Anti-X
F. DMVPN

Answer:  B, E

Question 10.
Which of these items is a valid method to verify a network security design?

A. Computer simulation
B. Network audit
C. Sing-off by the operations team
D. Pilot or prototype network
E. Analysis of earlier attacks

Answer:  D

Question 11.
Which three of these security products complement each other to achieve a secure remote-access solution? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco GET VPN
B. Cisco Security MARS
C. URL Filtering Server
D. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
E. NAC Appliance
F. Adaptive Security Appliance

Answer:  D, E, F



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