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QUESTION NO: 1.
One domain cannot deposit a cookie for another domain. This would be cross-domain posting and in theroy, is not possible. However, the cross-domain posting rule can be bypassed with the use of shared cookies.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B.
QUESTION NO: 2.
Which of the following, if any, shows the appropriate syntax for accessing a function stored in a frame file?
A. relationship.frameName.functionNameQ;
B. relationship.frameName.objectName;
C. frameName.functionNameQ;
D. None. This cannot be done.
Answer: A.
Question No: 3.
You must declare variables that will become object references to a newly instantiated objects to
A. populate the properties of each new instance
B. instantiate and then populate the properties of each new instance with actual data.
C. instantiate and then call the properties of each new instance with actual data.
D. instantiate the object.
Answer: B.
Question No: 4.
alertQ, promptQ, and confirm() are all examples of
A. behaviors
B. values
C. methods
D. actions
Answer: C.
Question No: 5.
The only way to use date and time information in JavaScript is through the Date object.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B.
Question No: 6.
Which of the following is the correct way to test for the presence of a cookie?
A. test(document.cookie);
B. alert(document.cookie);
C. document.cookie
D. prompt(document.cookie);
Answer: B.
Question No: 7.
A is the specific color, width or height that belongs to the property of an object.
A. method
B. value
C. property
D. behavior
Answer: B.
Question No: 8.
In JavaScript, in order to target a frame, you need to know
A. the frame’s name.
B. a frame’s number in the frames array
C. the URL of the frame.
D. a frame’s number in the frames array, or the frame’s name.
Answer: D.
Question No: 9.
When the alert() method and the prompt() method are both used in the same statement, the method will process first.
A. open()
B. prompt()
C. alert()
D. confirm()
Answer: B.
Question No: 10.
The ________ indicator delineates a comment on a single line of script.
The ______ indicator is used for multiple line comments.
A. /1,1* *1
B. II,!...!
C. //,/. ../
D. /
Answer: D.
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Question 1.
An administrator created a template of a Microsoft Windows XP SP3 virtual machine (VM) and now needs to modify it.
How can the administrator modify the template?
A. Export the template from the XenServer host, import it to another system, power it on and
Make the changes
B. Power on the VM template, make the changes and save the template
C. Create a new VM based on the original template, make the changes to the new VM and turn
the new VM into the new template
D. Put the XenServer host in Maintenance mode, make the changes to the VM template and then
exit Maintenance Mode
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which step requires an administrator to enable maintenance mode on a XenServer host?
A. Creating Fibre Channel storage repositories
B. Enabling high availability
C. Creating NIC bonds
D. Enabling storage multipathing
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which storage repository type allows an administrator to create a new storage repository that does not erase any existing data on the specified storage target?
A. EQUAL
B. NFS
C. EXT
D. NetApp
Answer: B
Question 4.
What must an administrator configure on the pool master to allow migration of virtual machines (VMs) between servers in the pool?
A. Shared Storage
B. NIC bond
C. High availability
D. Management Interface
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which is a valid MAC address?
A. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0:04
D. 127.0.0.1
Answer: C
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
An administrator needs to connect a network to an external VLAN using the command line interface (CLI). Click the Task button to place the steps necessary to connect a network to an external VLAN using the CLI in the correct order. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to place the steps in the correct order for an administrator to configure multipathing using XenCenter. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
What is the correct order of steps for the configuration of multipathing using XenCenter?
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two XenServer CLI commands are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Pool-ha-enable
B. Pool-backup
C. Pool-recover-slaves
D. Pool-create-pool
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
An administrator recently created an ISO library for a XenServer environment. The administrator now wants to make the ISO library available to all XenServer hosts.
What must the administrator do before the ISO library can be attached using XenCenter?
A. Copy the ISO library to the control domain
B. Build a directory to copy the ISO library into
C. Make an exploded network repository using FTP
D. Create an external NFS or CIFS share directory
Answer: D
Question 10.
An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0.
Which upgrade path should the administrator take?
A. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager
B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0
C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0
D. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1
Gb/sec
D. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8
Gb/sec
Answer: C
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the backend servers except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address.
On which entity should RNAT be configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?
A. ACL
B. Client
C. Virtual server
D. Back-end server
Answer: A
Question 3.
How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?
A. Use the default TCP monitor
B. Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C. Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D. Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E. Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
Answer: C
Question 4.
An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is functioning in the network environment.
What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?
A. The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver
B. The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected
C. The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver
D. The request and response rates option in the Dashboard oncete correct vserver is selected
Answer: B
Question 5.
Page 2 of 24
An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server performance.
Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?
A. Client connection count increases
B. Server side request rate increases
C. Client connection count decreases
D. Server side request rate decreases
Answer: D
Question 6.
An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
A. SNMP trap
B. SNMP user
C. SNMP group
D. SNMP community
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?
A. entityup
B. entitydown
C. monRespTimeoutAboveThresh
D. monRespTimeoutBelowThresh
Answer: D
Question 8.
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds.
How can the administrator create the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?
A. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
Answer: D
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator is planning on configuring health checks for services bound to web servers 1 and 2 which are listening on TCP port 80 for HTTP and TCP port 443 for HTTPS. Service1 receives the encrypted traffic and Service 2 receives the clear text traffic.
How should the administrator create the monitor for Service1 using the command line interface?
A. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -secure YES
B. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -secure YES
C. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -transparent NO
D. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -transparent NO
Answer: B
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Scenario: A multinational company operates in areas where there is significant threat of natural disaster. The administrator decides to create redundancy in their network because of a continuous power outage threat at the South America site. The company also has two sites in North America, one near New York and the other near the San Andreas fault line, a site of frequent earthquakes and tremors. The company also has a site in Tokyo, Japan, which experiences several natural disaster threats. The company plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and to prevent interruption of network services because of a local natural or human disaster.
Would a high availability (HA) deployment resolve the issue described in the scenario, and if so, how should the HA nodes be paired?
Click the Task button to answer.
Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:
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Question 1. What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets? A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0 B. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255 C. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255 D. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 Answer: D Question 2. What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection? A. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value B. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path C. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value D. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path Answer: A Question 3. Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.) A. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping C. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing D. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification E. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification Answer: B, F Question 4. Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type? A. Link-state request B. Hello C. Database description D. Goodbye E. Link-state acknowledgment Answer: D Question 5. Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules? A. 4300 B. 5012 C. 6040 D. 5682 E. 6080 Answer: B Question 6. Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support? A. PVCs only B. SVCs only C. PVCs and SVCs Answer: A Question 7. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)? A. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks B. Site and content blocking C. Enhanced session logging D. Java Blocking E. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM) Answer: B Question 8. Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.) A. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion B. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO) C. All packets have equal rights to network resources D. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP E. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped Answer: A, B, C Question 9. Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.) A. Dynamic Security Link B. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) C. Network Address Translation (NAT) D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) E. IP Security (IPSec) F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) Answer: B, D, E Question 10. In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way? A. FIFO Queuing B. Weighted Fair Queuing C. Class Based Queuing D. Fair Queuing E. Priority Queuing F. Custom Queuing Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A
Question 2.
VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C
Question 3.
fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer.
What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in
the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D
Question 5.
You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E
Question 9.
The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's troubleshooting guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A
Question 10.
NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it
access to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load
passing through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B
Question 2.
Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Agent
Answer: B
Question 3.
SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D
Question 4.
The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources.
They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B
Question 5.
What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B
Question 6.
Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B
Question 7.
What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D
Question 8.
What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: A, C, F
Question 9.
When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D
Question 10.
CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B
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Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down.
What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Answer: E
Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.
User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Answer: C
Question 3.
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Answer: E
Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
Answer: A
Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:
A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP
addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in
The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses
in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same
subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP
Addresses in the same subnet
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Answer: D
Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?
A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems
Answer: B, C
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