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Question No: 1
Why is password lockout an effective deterrent to cracking attempts?
A. Passwords cannot be changed through brute-force methods
B. A limited number of login attempts before lockout reduces the number of guesses the potential
cracker can made
C. Passwords protected in this manner are impossible to find because they are locked out of the
main flow of information on the WAN
D. Password lockout provides no real improvement over traditional locking methods.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Password lockout is where the user account is locked out and disabled after a specified number of consecutive incorrect password attempts. The duration of the lockout can be a time period, or until an administrator goes in and manually re-enables the account. Usually a time period is used to reduce administration. In either case this reduces the guesses. For example, suppose we set a lockout so that a lockout occurs after 3 failures, and then automatically remove the lockout after 20 minutes. This provides a maximum of 9 failures per hour, or 216 passwords per day. Without lockout, on a fast system, a hacker could probably run thousands of guesses per hour, so password lockout introduces a substantial speed bump to the cracking process.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Password lockout does not affect password changing, unless the account requires the original password to make the change. At this point the hacker already has the password, because entry to the account has already occurred.
C: Whether passwords are in the clear, or encrypted, lockout does not protect the actual password as it flows through the system. Password lockout acts as a governor on attempts to use brute force to guess the actual password. No one is looking for the actual passwords as they flow through the WAN, this is eavesdropping such as sniffing or snooping, and password lockout is not a solution for that type of problem.
D: Password locking is highly effective.
Question No: 2
Which of the following choices best defines the Windows NT security account manager?
A. It is the portion of the GINA DLL that controls security
B. It is the database containing the identity of the users and their credentials
C. It is the name of the machine responsible for the management of all the security of the LAN
D. Tt is the interface that is responsible for logging on and user IDs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Windows NT security account manager. a.k.a “the SAM” is a set of files that make up the database where user and password information is stored.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The GINA DLL is called to process the logon request. It is only the logon interface that interacts with the user. Eventually the information gathered has to be compared to the SAM, so GINA DLL may USE the SAM, but it does not fit as a definition of the SAM.
C: The machine(s) in Windows NT responsible for security on the LAN is either the Windows NT machine itself (if using local security) or a PDC/BDC domain controller if using Domain accounts. The name of any such machine does not fall in the definition of the SAM.
D: Since the GINA DLL is part of that interface, see the explanation in A above.
Question No: 3
Under the level C2 security classification, what does “discretionary access control” mean?
A. Discretionary access control means that the owner of a resource must be able to use that
resource
B. Discretionary access control is the ability of the system administrator to limit the time any user
spends on a computer
C. Discretionary access control is a policy that limits the use of any resource to a group or a
security profile
D. Discretionary access control is a rule set by the security auditor to prevent others from
downloading unauthorized scripts or programs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is a definition, and basically it says that the owner of the resource should be able to use the resource. The point is simple, what good is a security system if no one can do their work. Some people will joke that the most secure system is a system that is powered off. And in some senses, this is correct, if the computer is powered off, no code is executed, so no damage can occur. But there would be no discretionary access since the owners of the resources would not be able to use those resources.
Incorrect Answers:
B,C,D: are wrong because they do not fall into the definition, as explained above.
Question No: 4
Michel wants to write a computer virus that will cripple UNIX systems. What is going to be the main obstacle preventing him from success?
A. UNIX computers are extremely difficult to access illicitly over the internet, and therefore
computer viruses are not an issue with UNIX systems
B. Due to the file permission structure and the number of variations in the UNIX hardware
architectures, a virus would have to gain root privileges as well as identify the hardware and
UNIX flavor in use.
C. Due to availability of effective free anti-virus tools, computer viruses are caught early and
often.
Michel’s virus would have to evade detection for it to succeed.
D. Due to the extensive use of ANSI “C” in the programming of UNIX, the virus would have to
mimic some of the source code used in the infected iteration of the UNIX operating system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unix has a strong permission structure that in order to breach the system, root privilege will be required. Root is a superuser account, and is kept locked up by a secure system because of the power that the root user has. Hardware variations will make the use of machine and assembly language difficult. Most viruses depend on modifying machine instructions, and the instruction set can vary widely. Since Unix is written in C language, the operating system is very portable. But to write an effective virus, the use of machine language is NOT portable, so the virus will not really work on all platforms.
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Question 1. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements? A. Two dual port adapters B. Four dual port adapters C. Four single port adapters D. Two single port adapters Answer: C Question 2. A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response: 0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. What can be the cause of this problem? A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC C. Promiscuous mode onlp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1 Answer: C Question 3. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection? A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters C. Assign each LPAR 2fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter D. Assign each LPAR afibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch Answer: B Question 4. A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. What is the probable cause? A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured B. PowerVM key is not registered C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR D. Networking is not configured Answer: D Question 5. An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log. What is the reason for this error? A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true" C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value Answer: A Question 6. A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze: Exhibit: What should be recommend to the customer? A. The system doesn't need additional hardware B. The system needs additional network cards C. The system needs additional memory D. The system needs additional CPU Answer: A Question 7. What command is used to create an application Workload partition? A. crwpar B. wparexec C. mkwpar D. mkappwpar Answer: B Question 8. Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface? A. ifconfig B. Csmitty chinet C. mkdev D. Smitty mktcpip Answer: B Question 9. Which command provides output for mixed page sizes? A. mpstat B. svmon -P C. vmstat -o D. lvmstat -m Answer: B Question 10. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders? A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator C. System planning tool D. HMC Answer: C
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Question 1.
An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. AnejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in
the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with tne same numoer and types of parameters must be present in
the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
class.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system
will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system
failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each
others partial results.
Answer: D
Question 3.
An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation.
To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C
Question 4.
A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key.
Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind...() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a remote
object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
And invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection
of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding
ejbFind...() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the
client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection of
primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE FROM MyTable WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the
home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in
the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the home interface.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand. held computer when traffic
conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an E. mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information
from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove
enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about
runtime status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise
beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to
enterprise beans.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create,
find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an
enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface
for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform
enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
An administrator has implemented QoS (prioritization) to ensure that ICA traffic is prioritized appropriately. Session Reliability is using the default port.
What should the administrator check on the firewall to verify that Session Reliability will work?
A. TCP 1494 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
B. TCP 2598 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
C. TCP 1494 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
D. TCP 2598 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator is attempting to restart one of the servers in a Presentation Server farm. However, the IMA Service fails with an error message that states:
"Setup Could Not Start The IMA Service."
To troubleshoot the issue in this scenario, the administrator should verify that the ____________.(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. server name has not been changed
B. startup type of the IMA Service is set to manual
C. WMI Service is started in the context of the administrator
D. print spooler service was started in the context of the system
Answer: D
Question 3.
An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.
What is the reason for this issue?
A. NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B. The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C. Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D. The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.
How can the administrator correct this issue?
A. Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B. Configure local time estimation for all users.
C. Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D. Disable the time zone ruleDo not use client local time in the policy.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to their desktops in a Presentation Server farm. The users all receive a message that states:
"You do not have access to logon to this session."
How can the administrator troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check the listener from the Presentation Server Console.
B. Check the settings on the listener port in the Terminal Services Configuration.
C. Look for the users' accounts in the User Summary Report in the Resource Manager node.
D. Look at the amount of sessions on the server in the Server Summary Report from the
Resource Manager node.
Answer: B
Question 6.
How can an administrator remove a server in a Presentation Server farm from the load balance table after an IMA Service failure?
A. Enable the appropriate Health Monitoring check.
B. Configure the IMA Service to run QFARM/LOAD upon failure.
C. Enable the Load Throttling rule within the Server Load Evaluator.
D. Change the Windows services dependencies of the IMA Service.
Answer: A
Question 7.
When restoring a backup of a Microsoft SQL data store database, what is the LAST thing that needs to be done to complete the restoration sequence?
A. Copy the DSN file to the new database server.
B. Verify that all servers are using the correct DSN.
C. Stop and restart the IMA Service on all servers in the farm.
D. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA Service configuration on all servers
in the farm.
Answer: C
Question 8.
An administrator needs to deliver a video-based training application that is highly graphical on a server running Presentation Server.
What should be enabled to configure this type of application?
A. CPU optimization
B. Memory optimization
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
Answer: C
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator just obtained a new server to add to a farm. Once the server is added to the farm it begins a trust query cycle. However, the cycle could not complete due to communication issues.
Which component does the server need to communicate with to complete the trust query cycle?
A. Data store
B. Data collector
C. Summary database
D. Database connection
Answer: A
Question 10.
Scenario: Users at a small remote office report that ICA sessions are slow and sometimes drop, especially When large print jobs are running. The administrator plans to upgrade the WAN link later this year but is currently unable to do so. The administrator has already implemented Session Reliability. The next step the administrator should take is to______________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. implement ICA Keep-Alive
B. adjust the bandwidth policies
C. select Auto Client Reconnect
D. prioritize the Print Manager Service
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Identify two descriptive flexfield components whose values are used to determine contexts. (Choose two.)
A. the Context field
B. global segments
C. the Reference field
D. context-sensitive segments
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
ABC Corp. is running on 11 i Oracle Applications and wants to ensure that supply records of one supplier are not visible to another supplier.
Which action will meet the requirement?
A. by securing attributes for each supplier
B. by excluding attributes for individual suppliers
C. by assigning the same attribute value for VENDOR_CONTACT_ID
D. by assigning a separate attribute value for INTERNAL_CONTACT_ID
Answer: A
Question 3.
Identify two correct statements regarding Function Security. (Choose two.)
A. defines access controls through roles
B. is built on the Role Based Access Control layer
C. is the base layer of Access Control in Oracle Applications
D. restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
E. restricts user access to data within menus and menu options
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Identify three features of Data Groups. (Choose three.)
A. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Menu.
B. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Responsibility.
C. A data group identifies the Oracle username that a form connects to when a Responsibility is
selected.
D. Data groups can be used to support multiple installations of an Oracle Applications product
That supports multiple sets of books.
E. Concurrent managers use a data group to identify the application that owns a report or
concurrent program.
Answer: C, D, E
Question 5.
Which two statements are true regarding ownership of shared entities? (Choose two.)
A. Customers is owned by Oracle Human Resources whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Receivables.
B. Items is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.
C. Sales Force is owned by Oracle Order Management whereas Employees is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
D. Set of books is owned by Oracle General Ledger whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
E. Suppliers is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Units of Measure is owned by Oracle
Inventory.
Answer: D, E
Question 6.
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
A value set has the validation type set to "Independent." When a user enters a partial segment value, the list of values then retrieves all available values. Identify the List Type attribute.
A. poplist
B. list ofvalues
C. long listofvalues
D. poplist and list ofvalues
Answer: C
Question 8.
As a system administrator for ABC Corp. you are required to notify the sales manager as soon as a customer's shipment gets processed.
How might you do this?
A. through an Event Alert
B. through a Periodic Alert
C. by configuring the Workflow Engine
D. by configuring the Application server
Answer: A
Question 9.
Identify three features of Oracle Workflow builder. (Choose three.)
A. monitors workflows
B. runs on Linux platform
C. saves workflow definition as a flat file
D. defines and customizes workflow definitions
E. has Navigator tree and Process diagram as its components
Answer: C, D, E
Question 10.
XYZ Corp. is in the business of manufacturing cosmetics. It obtains and pays for raw materials.
Which business flow in Oracle E-Business Suite would map to the above activities of obtaining and paying for raw materials?
A. Order to Cash
B. Procure to Pay
C. Forecast to Plan
D. Demand to Build
E. Contract to Renewal
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A report output file gets generated when you run "Validate APPS schema" by using the adadmin utility in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite environment. If the report shows something similar to "GL_CODE_COMBINATIONS table does not exist or is an invalid object", what is the first step that the database administrator (DBA) should take to correct this issue?
A. Run the AD Relink utility and relink the GL product.
B. Use License Manager, and register the GL product.
C. Run the "Recreate grants and synonyms for APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
D. Run Autopatch, and apply GL latest available patch.
E. Run Rapid Install to reinstall the database components.
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which three cases is it most effective to run validation on the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite setup? (Choose three.)
A. before performing an export/import
B. immediately after an upgrade or applying a maintenance pack
C. after converting to multiple organizations or multiple reporting currencies
D. after a patch or multiple patches are applied
E. whenever you receive a run-time error that suggests that a problem is caused by the AD_DDL
package
Answer: B, D, E
Question 3.
Which four statements correctly describe a schema? (Choose four.)
A. There is no one-to-one relationship between schemas and users in a database.
B. the concept of a database schema is directly tied to the concept of a database user, or a grant
from the schema owner
C. The database user and the schema never have the same name.
D. A schema can allow another schema to use its objects by granting access.
E. An Oracle Application products database objects are divided between the product schema and
the APPS schema.
F. A schema is a named collection of database objects.
Answer: B, D, E, F
Question 4.
You have just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applications are now experiencing problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form. You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix the problem.
You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)
2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)
4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)
5. Enter list if products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)
6. Generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)
7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)
8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmx
The utility finished with no errors in the log file.
What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors
B. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors
C. all forms in the product group fnd now render with errors
D. all forms in the product group fnd now render without errors
Answer: A
Question 5.
Where can you find the Oracle 8.0.6 and iAS files in the Oracle Applications 11i file system?
A. DB
B. ORA
C. COMN
D. FND_TOP
E. APPL_TOP
Answer: B
Question 6.
You needed to apply patches to the production environment. Applying the patches on the Test environment was successful. When you applied the patches to the Production environment, the patches finished without any errors during the process. However, patch changes were not applied and the patch histories were not changed.
What could be the cause of this situation?
A. The patch was applied in pre-Install mode.
B. The patch was applied inNormal mode.
C. The AutoPatch version is incorrect.
D. The Production database is down.
E. The patch was applied in Test mode.
F. The table for the patch history is full.
Answer: E
Question 7.
What is contained in the FND_APPLICATION_TL table found in the Oracle Applications 11i database?
A. trigger logic for all the Application Object Library (AOL) related tables
B. transaction-load statistics of Application Object Library usage
C. table list of all the Oracle Application Object Library (AOL) objects
D. language translated information about all the applications registered with Application Object
Library
Answer: D
Question 8.
You suddenly start receiving errors indicating that there are numerous Java files in the database that are corrupted and cannot be run. You have determined that you have to reload the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) to fix the errors.
In addition to reloading the JVM, what Oracle database utilities, if any, do you need to run and why? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Reload JAR files to the database, because after reloading the JVM, the Java class files would
be missing.
B. Compile the Menu information, to restore Java menu files to the application forms.
C. Compile the APPS schema, because after the JVM has been reloaded, APPS permissions
need to be reestablished.
D. None of the Oracle database utilities need to be run, because by reloading the JVM, all the
Java file corruption is corrected with the new files loaded during this process.
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is true about Rapid Install?
A. Along with creating Oracle homes, Rapid Install generates new configuration files by using
Autoconfig.
B. Rapid Install can be used to install only the new technology-stack components.
C. Rapid Install can be used to install a new database tier.
D. For an upgrade, Rapid Install installs Oracle 9i RDBMS Oracle home without a database.
E. Rapid Install can be used to set up the file system and configure server processes for an
upgraded system.
F. Rapid Install can be used only for a new installation of Oracle Applications.
Answer: F
Question 10.
In your Oracle Applications 11i EBS implementation, the database is corrupt and to resolve it the database Java Virtual Machine (JVM) was reloaded. Identify the type of problem that may occur and the related correct solution.
A. Problem: Many invalid objects are found in the APPS schema.
Solution: Run the "Validate APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
B. Problem: The Application window does not show any of the Accounts Receivables data.
Solution: Use the "Compile/Reload Applications Database Entities" option from the adadmin
utility.
C. Problem: The Application screen display does not come up with one of the installed language
characters.
Solution: Run the "Convert Character set" task by using the adadmin utility.
D. Problem: All Oracle Applications Java classes are missing.
Solution: Run the "Reload JAR files to the DB" task by using the adadmin utility.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute
Answer: D
Question 2.
You are an admin user, and have enabled the Ignore Volume Ownership option for an external FireWire hard disk.
What will happen the next time a standard user attempts to mount the disk?
A. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
B. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read any file on the disk; the user will be
required to enter an administrator password to modify or delete files on the disk.
C. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk
is mounted the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
D. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk
is mounted, the user will be able to read any file on the disk, but will be required to re-enter an
administrator password to modify or delete files.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Review the screenshot of a user's home folder, and then answer the question below.
Which folder did the user create?
A. Music
B. Pages
C. Pictures
D. Downloads
Answer: B
Question 4.
Mac OS X v10.5 can read files on a volume that is ________-formatted, but it cannot write to files on the volume.
A. UFS
B. NTFS
C. EXT2
D. FAT32
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which procedure will let someone who does not have a local user account log in to a local admin user account on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer that does NOT have a firmware password enabled?
A. Log in to the computer with the user name "root" and the master password, open Accounts
preferences, and reset the admin user password.
B. Remove a RAM DIMM from one of the computers RAM slots, restart the computer while
holding down the Command-Option-O-F keys until you hear the startup sound, then type
"reset-all" at the prompt.
C. Start the computer from the internal hard disk, log into a guest user account, open the Reset
Password utility in the /Applications/Utilities folder, then reset the password on the admin
user account that resides on the hard disk volume.
D. Press the C key while restarting the computer with the Mac OS X v10.5 Install DVD inserted,
then choose Reset Password from the Utilities menu. Select the hard disk volume and the
admin user account, then enter a new password for the account and click Save.
Answer: D
Question 6.
You have configured your Mac OS X v10.5 computer to share its connected USB printer. Mac OS X users can locate and print to it, but Windows users can not.
What additional step must you take to allow Windows users to print to it?
A. In Sharing preferences, enable file sharing over SMB.
B. In Print & Fax preferences, enable the SMB printer driver.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, enable Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
D. In Print & Fax preferences, configure the Windows Printer name and queue.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Review the screenshots of a files permissions, as seen in Finder and from Terminal, and then answer the question below.
Why are Kim's permissions to the file, Report.rtf, NOT visible in the Terminal listing?
A. Kims permissions are stored as POSIX settings.
B. Kims permissions are stored in the volume catalog.
C. Kims permissions are stored in the file data segment.
D. Kims permissions are stored in an Access Control List (ACL).
Answer: D
Question 8.
Tom wants to share a document with Harriet. Both have standard user accounts on the same Mac OS X v10.5 computer.
Which of these is NOT a location where Tom can store the document so that Harriet can read it?
A. /Users/Shared/
B. /Users/tom/Public/
C. /Users/harriet/Public/
D. /Users/harriet/Public/Drop Box/
Answer: C
Question 9.
The primary role of the master password in Mac OS X v10.5 is to let you ________.
A. Access all the passwords stored in a local keychain
B. Reset the password of an account that has FileVault enabled
C. Change the startup device by holding down the Option key while the computer starts up
D. Connect to any password-protected web server whose password is stored in a local keychain
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which statement identifies a potential effect of resetting the master password for a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password must use the old
master password to unlock their keychains.
B. Users who enabled FileVault before you changed the master password will not be able to
access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
C. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password will have their
keychain passwords automatically updated to match the new master password.
D. Users whose accounts were created before you changed the master password must use the
firmware password to access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
Answer: B
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A
Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the
Same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km? (worst case)?
A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?
A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm
Answer: C
Question 5.
Click the Exhibit to view the topology.
Router A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router B has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class subcommand should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000
Answer: E
Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it
immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection
in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84
Answer: C
Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.
What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as halF. life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.
Answer: C
Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGPMEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP
Answer: A
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards,____restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on protection.
A. 50ms,STP
B. STP.STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms
Answer: A
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Question 1. Your company's network just finished going through a SAS 70 audit. This audit reported that overall, your network is secure, but there are some areas that needs improvement. The major area was SNMP security. The audit company recommended turning off SNMP, but that is not an option since you have so many remote nodes to keep track of. What step could you take to help secure SNMP on your network? A. Change the default community string names B. Block all internal MAC address from using SNMP C. Block access to UDP port 171 D. Block access to TCP port 171 Answer: A Question 2. At what layer of the OSI model do routers function on? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 1 Answer: A Question 3. An "idle" system is also referred to as what? A. Zombie B. PC not being used C. Bot D. PC not connected to the Internet Answer: A Question 4. What operating system would respond to the following command? A. Mac OS X B. Windows XP C. Windows 95 D. FreeBSD Answer: D Question 5. Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning? A. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise D. Windows computers are constantly talking Answer: D Question 6. How many bits is Source Port Number in TCP Header packet? A. 48 B. 32 C. 64 D. 16 Answer: D Question 7. Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning? A. Windows computers are constantly talking B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise D. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans Answer: A Question 8. Simon is a former employee of Trinitron XML Inc. He feels he was wrongly terminated and wants to hack into his former company's network. Since Simon remembers some of the server names, he attempts to run the axfr and ixfr commands using DIG. What is Simon trying to accomplish here? A. Enumerate all the users in the domain B. Perform DNS poisoning C. Send DOS commands to crash the DNS servers D. Perform a zone transfer Answer: D Question 9. You are carrying out the last round of testing for your new website before it goes live. The website has many dynamic pages and connects to a SQL backend that accesses your product inventory in a database. You come across a web security site that recommends inputting the following code into a search field on web pages to check for vulnerabilities: When you type this and click on search, you receive a pop-up window that says: "This is a test." What is the result of this test? A. Your website is vulnerable to web bugs B. Your website is vulnerable to CSS C. Your website is not vulnerable D. Your website is vulnerable to SQL injection Answer: B Question 10. After attending a CEH security seminar, you make a list of changes you would like to perform on your network to increase its security. One of the first things you change is to switch the RestrictAnonymous setting from 0 to 1 on your servers. This, as you were told, would prevent anonymous users from establishing a null session on the server. Using Userinfo tool mentioned at the seminar, you succeed in establishing a null session with one of the servers. Why is that? A. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "2" for complete security B. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "3" for complete security C. There is no way to always prevent an anonymous null session from establishing D. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "10" for complete security Answer: A
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