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Question 1.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. You want to check the performance of a Cisco Unity System on a regular basis. You want to know about any errors the software might be generating.
What report would you run to accomplish this task?
A. Event Log.
B. Port Usage.
C. Event Viewer
D. System configuration.
E. Unresolved References.
Answer: A
Question 2.
You are the Cisco Unity system administrator at ITCertKeys. You want to give an existing subscriber access to Cisco Unity Assistant. What should you do?
A. Modify the Email account.
B. Modify the Account policy.
C. Modify the Class of service.
D. Modify the Subscriber template.
E. Modify the Active Directory for users and computers.
Answer: C
Question 3.
You are a system administrator at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys is running the Unity Telephone Integration Manager (UTIM). Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what you would configure during Cisco CallManager integration.
What will your reply be?
A. The CallManager IP address, the failover CallManager IP address, the device naming
convention, and the MWI on and off codes.
B. The device name and the MWI on and off codes. The CallManager IP address is not needed
as long as they are on the same subnet.
C. The CallManager IP address and the MWI on and off codes are configured. The failover IP
address is added as a second integration in the UTIM.
D. The CallManager IP address and the failover IP address of the second CallManager. The
device naming prefix and the MWI on and off codes are not configurable.
Answer: A
Question 4.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys has a third-party voice-mail system and a Cisco Unity server. You want to enable the two voice mail system to exchange messages. What protocol should you use to accomplish this task?
A. The x400 protocol.
B. The OSPF Protocol.
C. The AMIS protocol.
D. The IMAP protocol.
E. The PIMG Protocol.
Answer: C
Question 5.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys has Cisco Unity integrated with Cisco CallManager. ITCertKeys users report that Message Waiting indicators are intermittent on some extensions. In an attempt to resolve this issue, you have opened the Integration Monitor.
Which of the following statement is true regarding this scenario?
A. This action will not help.
B. This action will help in resolving the issue.
C. This action will help if used in conjunction with transaction data.
D. This action will not help unless the Extension Specific Processing Utility is also opened.
Answer: A
Question 6.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys has a Cisco Unity system. The ITCertKeys CEO wants a report that lists the distribution lists available through the Cisco Unity directory. Which report should you run?
A. Distribution.
B. Distribution Lists.
C. Global Address Lists.
D. Private Distribution Lists.
Answer: B
Question 7.
On which of the following versions of Windows 2000 is Cisco Unity supported?
A. Windows 2000 Server.
B. Windows XP Professional.
C. Windows 2000 Professional.
D. Windows 2000 Advanced Server.
E. Windows 2000 Datacenter Server.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which PBX features are required for Cisco Unity to support a full integration? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Message call service.
B. Call message retrieval.
C. Easy message access.
D. Direct message retrieval.
E. Message waiting indication.
F. Call forward to personal greeting.
G. Negative positive LED status codes.
Answer: C, E, F
Question 9.
Which PBX feature is required by Cisco Unity to perform release to switch transfers?
A. Easy message access.
B. Call message retrieval.
C. Message waiting indication.
D. Call forward to remote server.
E. Call forward to personal greeting.
Answer: E
Question 10.
You are a Cisco Unity subscriber. What can you change using the Cisco Unity Assistant?
A. Mailstore.
B. E-mail alias.
C. Extension ID.
D. Email signature.
E. Standard Greeting.
Answer: E
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Question 1.
A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM.
Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?
A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local
and @Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with
@Local and the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are
annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces,
annotated with @Local and ©Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the
bean class.
Answer: D
Question 2.
A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A. Usean @ld property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @ldClass annotation to denote
The primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @Embeddedld
annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or
properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or properties in the
embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @ldClass annotation
on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that
correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity suB. Classes CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as nullable in the
database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in
CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must
be defined as nullable in the database.
Answer: A, D
Question 4.
A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejB. jar with one stateless session bean.
Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. @PersistenceUnit
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU",type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception.
D. An application exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence
provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors
must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or
overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D
Question 7.
An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements Mylnt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15.}
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20.
21. AGENT
22.
23. MyBean
24. methodA
25.
26.
Which statement is true?
A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not
methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT
methodA(String).
Answer: B
Question 8.
A User entity is in a onE. to-many relationship with a Book entity.
A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of 'Fred' or 'Ginger', and writes the following Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN ('Fred1, 'Ginger')
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?
A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger'.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger' are already being
managed by the persistence context.
Answer: B
Question 9.
A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called people is defined in an LDAP server.
Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose two.)
A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware
B. Typically, finE. grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers
without the need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to
be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.
Answer: A, C
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Question 1.
Acme Computer Corp has implemented SAN Copy to fully copy 60 LUNs from a DMX to a CX700 with the default SAN Copy settings. The copy process is taking longer than expected.
What are two [2] settings that would improve performance?
A. Increase the number of concurrent sessions
B. Increase write cache
C. Increase the throttle value
D. Increase the Reserve LUN Pool
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Click the Exhibit button. BRM Company was using the MirrorView configuration shown in the graphic. The company decided that it did not need two sites to mirror to. BRM relocated the CLARiiON on Site B to a location without connectivity on Site A. Now BRM wants to destroy the mirrors on this CLARiiON.
What should be done?
A. Expand Remote Mirrors in Navisphere Manager, expand the mirror, right click on the
Secondary Image and select destroy
B. This cannot be done without connectivity to the other MirrorView connected system
C. Expand Remote Mirrors in Navisphere Manager, go into Engineering Mode, right click on the
Mirror and select force destroy
D. Expand Remote Mirrors in Navisphere Manager, right click on the Mirror and select destroy
Answer: A
Question 3.
FM Corp has a CX500 in Boston. It is mirrored with MirrorView over IP to a CX500 at a remote site, 20 miles away in Newton. FM Corp would like to add an NS700G to both existing CX500s.
Which statement is correct?
A. An NS700G can be attached to each the Boston and Newton site
B. An NS700G can be attached to the Boston CX500 but not the Newton site
C. An NS700G is not supported in this configuration
D. An NS700G can be attached to the Newton site but not the Boston site
Answer: C
Question 4.
JR Ltd has two networks. The CLARiiONs are connected to a 128.2.1 network. All hosts are connected to JR's corporate network of 128.1.1. Both networks are Class C, routable, and have firewall protection. All hosts in Navisphere are unmanaged.
How can a reporting error in the unmanaged host be fixed in Navisphere?
A. Open TCP port 6389 on the firewall(s)
B. Open TCP port 6390 on the firewall(s)
C. Manually register the unmanaged hosts
D. Open TCP port 443 on the firewall(s)
Answer: A
Question 5.
The DLC Company is planning to install a CX700 with SnapView. DLC has purchased 25 73 GB 10 krpm disks. DLC plans to have a 150 GB data LUN on each of five 4+1 RAID 5 groups. Your task is to provision the Reserved LUNs for SnapView Snapshots which will be used for backups.
How do you configure the LUNs?
A. Bind all the Reserved LUNs on one RAID Group. SnapView will assign them to the Source
LUNs
B. Bind all the Reserved LUNs on one RAID Group, and assign them to the Source LUNs
C. Bind the Reserved LUNs across RAID Groups. SnapView will assign them to the Source LUNs
D. Bind all the Reserved LUNs across RAID Group, and assign them to the Source LUNs
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is ALWAYS the best thing to do to optimize Reserve LUN Pool disk performance?
A. Use both FC and ATA disks
B. Use MetaLUNs for the Reserve LUN Pool
C. Only use dedicated FC disks
D. Use equal sized MetaLUNs
Answer: C
Question 7.
FDD Coffee Company has an environment consisting exclusively of RAID 5 LUNs. FDD is interested in a local backup solution. The replica used for backup should be available to recover the Source LUN in the event of corruption. The company also wishes to use local replicas for testing. Testing had a read/write ratio of 95/5. Three replicas of each Source LUN will be made and presented to three test hosts. The testing should have as little impact as possible on the production environment. The company also wishes to minimize the space requirements for the new solution.
What is the best solution?
A. Use a Clone of each Source LUN for backup. Use 3 Snapshots of each Clone for testing
B. Use 3 Clones of each Source LUN for testing, and a Snapshot of each Source LUN for
backups
C. Use 3 Snapshots of each Source LUN for testing, and an additional Snapshot of each Source
LUN for backups
D. Use 3 Clones of each Source LUN for testing, and an additional Clone of each Source LUN for
backups
Answer: A
Question 8.
Your customer, HLS, Inc, has written a script for its SnapView implementation. In the testing process, the customer finds that the backup host will not consistently see the Snapshot presented to it. The script includes the following lines:
navicli -h SPA snapview -startsession sess1 -snapshotname snap1
navicli -h SPA snapview -activatesnapshot sess1 -snapshotname snap1
What would you recommend be done?
A. Activate the Snapshot with admsnap on the production host
B. Start the Session with admsnap on the production host
C. Activate the Snapshot with admsnap on the backup host
D. Start the Session with admsnap on the backup host
Answer: C
Question 9.
LGC has been using MS SQL for its primary production database application. In the past, LGC has not experienced any major performance problems. Recently, the company added MirrorView/A to its CLARiiON CX500 arrays two reasons Disaster recovery Business continuance protection of its SQL environment Shortly thereafter, LGC's SQL database started to experience regular cycles of slower response.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. MirrorView/A deltaset impact on SQL LUNs
B. Intermittent network response problems
C. Insufficient Reserve LUN Pool capacity
D. SQL report queries are poorly designed
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which four [4] Clone-related operations must wait until the clone reverse synchronization is complete?
A. Add another Clone to the Clone Group
B. Create a new Clone Group on the array
C. Reverse synchronize any clone in the Clone Group
D. Delete a different Clone Group on the array
E. Remove the Clone that is reverse synchronizing
F. Synchronize any Clone in the Clone Group
Answer: A, C, E, F
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Question 1.
Why could OpenVMS Mail be considered a security risk?
A. OpenVMS Mail allows unprivileged unauthenticated (but potentially traceable) remote users to
test for valid usernames.
B. OpenVMS Mail allows unprivileged unauthenticated remote users to see who is actively logged
on.
C. DCL command procedures embedded in a mail message will be automatically executed during
user login unless the system manager defines the system logical name MAIL$DCL_DISABLE
to TRUE.
D. Buffer overflows caused by out of specification message attachments may allow arbitrary code
to be executed without prompting the recipient.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which two object classes can have audit events applied to them? Select two.
A. logical name tables
B. logical names
C. global sections
D. event flags
E. locks
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
On a system with user file activity across several volumes, which command or utility can a system manager use to determine what files a process currently has open across all disk volumes?
A. SHOW DEVICE/FILES/NOSYSTEM *
B. ANALYZE /PROCESS
C. MONITOR FILE_SYSTEM_CACHE/ALL
D. ANALYZE /SYSTEM
Answer: D
Question 4.
What two items should be included in an organization's Configuration Management records? Select two.
A. software assets
B. staff contact details
C. details of support contracts
D. physical assets
E. organizational chart
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
Which two are the correct descriptions for L and P when discussing a device protection mask (RWLP)? Select two.
A. P = protected (allows access to protected devices)
B. L = logical (allows access to logical blocks)
C. P =passall (allows unlimited access to specified devices)
D. P = physical (allows access to physical blocks)
E. L = local (allows access from the local system only)
F. L = limited (allows limited access to specified devices)
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
You need to break into a system when none of the accounts or passwords are known. Using drag and drop, place the steps in the correct sequence to accomplish this.
Answer:
Question 7.
By default, what happens to system activity if the audit server's log destination runs out of disk space?
A. all batch jobs are suspended
B. normal operation continues, oldest audits are discarded
C. system crashes to protect integrity of auditing records
D. audit-generating user processes are suspended
Answer: D
Question 8.
The DCL command DIR 0:: fails with the error message %SYSTEM-F-LINKEXIT, network partner exited. Why could this happen?
A. no proxy
B. attempts to create a NETSERVER.LOG with a version number over 32767
C. proxy into non-existent target account
D. protection violation on login command procedures
Answer: D
Question 9.
A backup system disk copy is missing. What are two of the vulnerabilities that are introduced? Select two.
A. passwords can be directly extracted from VMS$PASSWORD_HISTORY.DATA
B. licenses can be extracted from LMF$LURT.DAT
C. protected system files and data can be read
D. usernames and their associated privileges can be listed
E. passwords can be directly extracted from SYSUAF.DAT
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
What is the purpose of "high water marking"?
A. prevent an application from writing file data beyond the disk quota limit
B. limit the use of XFC (eXtended File Cache) buffers
C. prevent reading file data beyond the point in a file which has been written
D. prevent a process from exhausting its FILLM quota
Answer: C
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Question 1. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements? A. Two dual port adapters B. Four dual port adapters C. Four single port adapters D. Two single port adapters Answer: C Question 2. A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response: 0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. What can be the cause of this problem? A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC C. Promiscuous mode on lp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1 Answer: C Question 3. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection? A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters C. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch Answer: B Question 4. A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. What is the probable cause? A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured B. PowerVM key is not registered C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR D. Networking is not configured Answer: D Question 5. An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log. What is the reason for this error? A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true" C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value Answer: A Question 6. A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze: Exhibit: What should be recommend to the customer? A. The system doesn't need additional hardware B. The system needs additional network cards C. The system needs additional memory D. The system needs additional CPU Answer: A Question 7. What command is used to create an application Workload partition? A. crwpar B. wparexec C. mkwpar D. mkappwpar Answer: B Question 8. Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface? A. ifconfig B. C smitty chinet C. mkdev D. Smitty mktcpip Answer: B Question 9. Which command provides output for mixed page sizes? A. mpstat B. svmon -P C. vmstat -o D. lvmstat -m Answer: B Question 10. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders? A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator C. System planning tool D. HMC Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A. Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B. Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C. Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D. Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A
Question 2.
An encoder sensor typically detects:
A. paper position.
B. shaft rotation.
C. magnetic flux.
D. laser beam strength.
Answer: B
Question 3.
The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal selfprints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A. Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B. Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C. Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D. Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the photoconductor?
A. Writing
B. Fusing
C. Development
D. Transfer
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A. Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B. Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C. Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is
wrong.
D. Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A. PING
B. NSLOOKUP
C. TRACERT
D. IPCONFIG
Answer: D
Question 7.
How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A. One
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Question 8.
When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A. When it is full.
B. It is not recommended.
C. Before performing preventative maintenance.
D. After each call.
Answer: B
Question 9.
A customer has instal ed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option.
Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B. The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C. The driver port is not setup correctly.
D. The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D
Question 10.
A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A. Laser unit
B. Developer unit
C. Charge assembly
D. Fuser assembly
Answer: A
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Question 1.
You are the project manager for your organization and are coaching Sam on the differences between a project and operations.
Which one of the following is the best definition of a project?
A. A project is a short-term endeavor to create a unique product or service.
B. A project moves through five phases: initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling,
and closing.
C. A project creates a unique product or service for the organization's customers.
D. A project provides a service to the organization.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following processes involves monitoring the progress of the project to identify any variances in the project plan?
A. Closing
B. Controlling
C. Executing
D. Planning
Answer: B
Question 3.
You are the project manager for the HNG Project. Your project is slated to last eight months but management has asked that you create a method for reducing the project duration. You elect to allow certain phases of the project to overlap.
What schedule compression technique have you used in this instance?
A. Crashing
B. Lag time
C. Resource leveling
D. Fast tracking
Answer: D
Question 4.
You are a project manager for GTX project. The project has ten active stakeholders.
How many communication channels will be required for effective communication with the stakeholders?
A. 45
B. 2
C. 10
D. 9
Answer: A
Question 5.
You are the project manager of manufacturing process. Your project will focus on the creation of 987,600 handheld printers to be used in grocery stores around the world. The printers are manufactured largely by machine though there are several steps in the process where project team members will need to manually configure the devices. Management will be completing statistical sampling of the printers and they have established an upper control limit of 980 correct out of 1,000 and a lower control limit of 970 out of 1,000. Your expected mean is 975.
On a control chart, which is what management expects you to create, what is called should your results exceed 980 correct out of a 1,000 in any given measurements?
A. Out of control
B. Failure mode
C. Improvement
D. Variance
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following is the last deliverable at the close out meeting?
A. Customer Feedback
B. Project approval
C. Lessons Learned
D. Source code of application
Answer: C
Question 7.
You are the project manager of the NGQ Project and are reviewing the assignments for your project team. You have decided to use a RACI chart as your responsibility assignment matrix.
What does RACI mean?
A. Responsible, Active, Confirmed, Inactive
B. Resource, Action, Communicate, Inform
C. Responsible, Accountable, Communicate, Inform
D. Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform
Answer: D
Question 8.
You are the project manager of the NHH Project and you have 22 project team members on the project. You need to identify a method to promote performance on your project and are examining Herzberg's Theory of Motivation.
What will happen in this theory to your project team's motivation if you can remove the hygiene agents according to Herzberg's Theory?
A. The motivation of the team will excel once the hygiene agents are removed.
B. The motivation of the team will excel - if they're interested in the project's goals.
C. There will be no change in the team's motivation.
D. The motivation of the team will decrease.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following process groups of the project management processes utilizes the most project time and resource?
A. Planning
B. Initiation
C. Closing
D. Executing
E. Controlling
Answer: D
Question 10.
A construction company is about to start a new project. It requires hiring a project manager for this project.
Which of the following are the most important skills that a person must have to be selected as a project manager?
A. Team building and human resources
B. Leading
C. Problem solving
D. Negotiation and influential
E. Communication
Answer: E
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Question 1.
A trainer has just finished the lesson covering a complex concept that is essential to understanding the next topic of the course. Most of the learners are looking at the trainer with blank expressions. When the trainer asks questions designed to determine whether the class understands the concept, most learners look away.
Which of the following actions by the trainer prior to the lesson would MOST have helped prevent the reactions described above?
A. Having the learners state the experience they have had with the topic and helping them form
questions they would like to have answered
B. Providing an overview of the concept to be covered and stating why it is important
C. Giving the learners a summary of the concept to be covered in that particular lesson and of the
concepts that will be covered in the lessons that follow
D. Giving learners a selection of readings about the concept for them to read before the lesson is
started
Answer: A
Question 2.
For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL: To anticipate foreseeable difficulties that a class may have in understanding course material
ACTION: Develop supplemental course materials based on the instructor's technical knowledge and teaching experience in this area.
A. LIKELY, because the supplemental course material will make learners more serious about
learning the course material
B. LIKELY, because classes differ in their needs, and previous teaching experience guides the
development of supplemental materials
C. UNLIKELY, because some learners will not require supplemental materials to understand
course content
D. UNLIKELY, because the supplemental material cannot cover all possible problems
Answer: B
Question 3.
An atmosphere conducive to learning is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:
A. The instructor emphasizes the need to complete the fixed course agenda.
B. The instructor asks learners to contribute from their fields of expertise.
C. Learners feel free to share personal anecdotes related to the topics when asked.
D. Learners know each others' names.
Answer: A
Question 4.
During a two-day workshop, the instructor monitored learner understanding by asking questions to the group in general. These questions were always answered correctly. However, many learners performed poorly on the end-of-course exam.
Which of the following describes the error the instructor has MOST probably made in this situation?
A. Failure to identify some learners' needs
B. Failure to sufficiently motivate all learners
C. Failure to link course content to the learners' job requirements
D. Failure to communicate expectations for learner performance
Answer: A
Question 5.
While preparing instructional materials to teach a class, the trainer notices that over 90 percent of the class is based on lectures and slides. The appropriate action for the trainer is to:
A. prepare take-home activities to give learners after the class
B. recognize that course designers develop curriculum to best cover instructional objectives
C. create activities to use that will vary learning methods and styles
D. announce to the class that different trainers use different kinds of curriculum
Answer: C
Question 6.
To illustrate a point, the trainer uses a joke that the class does not understand.
Which of the following should the trainer do next?
A. Pretend nothing happened and continue with the lesson.
B. Retell the joke explaining its punch line.
C. Decide not to use humor in future presentations.
D. Attempt to save the situation by telling another joke.
Answer: A
Question 7.
A learner makes an inappropriate comment during class introductions and continues to do so during small-group interaction.
The instructor should first take which of the following steps?
A. Respond with humor to the comments and try to make light of them.
B. Discreetly speak to the learner to discourage this behavior.
C. Announce to the class that the comments are inappropriate.
D. Request that the learner's supervisor speak to the learner about the behavior.
Answer: B
Question 8.
A trainer is teaching a course in which it appears that the learners differ greatly in what they expect from the course.
Which of the following actions should the trainer take to ensure that instruction is effective for this class?
A. Deliver course material exactly as the trainer's manual specifies.
B. Adjust the course materials and agenda to meet the needs of the learners.
C. Poll the learners regarding what should be included and eliminated.
D. Have the learners with the highest expectations about the course modify their expectations to
Fit those of the group.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following would be an instructor's BEST source of information for determining whether course materials should be adjusted before a training course begins?
A. Learners' evaluation reports on previous course instructors
B. Evaluation data about the test scores received by previous course participants
C. Conversations with personnel at the instructional site
D. Application information about the learners' backgrounds
Answer: D
Question 10.
An instructor has been assigned to train a group of learners from different companies in a new computer application. As the instructor selects the presentation strategy to be used the MOST important information consideration is the:
A. level of expertise of the learners
B. specific uses the learners will make of the application
C. learners' job requirements
D. learners' expectations about the course
Answer: A
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Question 1. A Linux technician would like to change the default lpr queue to print to a new printer. Which file should be edited to make this change? A. /etc/printers/default.conf B. /etc/vprint C. /etc/printcap D. /etc/lpd.conf Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following commands lists the file systems available for the NFS (Network File System) server upiter? A. showmount e jupiter B. ls -l jupiter C. showmount -e jupiter D. ls jupiter Answer: C Question 3. The man page for the is command states: The full documentation for ls is maintained as a Texinfo manual. Which of the following commands will retrieve the full documentation for the ls command? A. man -info ls B. info ls C. infoman ls D. text ls Answer: B Question 4. A DHCP server has been added to the network. The local system has been reconfigured to connect using DHCP. How could an administrator restart network services and test that the interface and the DHCP server are functioning properly? A. /bin/netstat -R; ping comptia.org B. /usr/bin/network restart; ping comptia.org C. /sbin/route restart; ifconfig lo D. /etc/init.d/network restart; ifconfig eth0 Answer: D Question 5. Which of the following files contains a list of file systems that can be currently mounted on the system if all supported modules have been loaded? A. /etc/filesystems B. /var/filesystems C. /dev/filesystems D. /proc/filesystems Answer: D Question 6. A user is unable to access the Internet from their Client. The client's TCP/IP settings are 192.168.1.87/26. The default gateway's IP address is 192.168.1.1. What command must be entered on the client machine to enable communications to the Internet? A. ifconfig eth0 up 192.168.1.87 netmask 255.255.255.128 B. ifconfig eth0 up 192.168.1.1 netmask 255.255.255.0 C. ifconfig eth0 up 192.168.1.87 netmask 255.255.255.192 broadcast 192.168.1.255 D. ifconfig eth0 up 192.168.1.87 netmask 255.255.255.255 Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following services commonly uses Port 22? A. SMTP B. DNS C. FTP D. SSH (Secure Shell) Answer: D Question 8. A newly created user, john, reports that he has access to the file ?var/mail/joe? but should not have this access. Which of the following MOST likely caused this? A. User john was created with the same UID (User ID) as the removed user named joe. B. User john and joe are sharing a home directory. C. User john is forwarding all of his mail to joe. D. User joe's email is still cached by the system although his UID (User ID) has been removed. Answer: A Question 9. Which of the following can be used to determine who has scheduled a job? A. at -d B. at -l C. who D. whodo Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following commands is used to search the whole directory structure to locate a specific file, but still can execute other commands while the 'find' command is searching for the file? A. find filename > background B. find / -name filename & C. find / -name filename D. find / filename & Answer: B
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Question 1.
Certpaper.com prepared a manual invoice in Receivables for the sale of an inventory item. While performing an analysis in general ledger, Certpaper.com notices that the accounting for the sale in correct and show a debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Sales account. However, there is no entry coming from inventory, to show the decrease in the Inventory account and the increase to Cost of Goods Sold.
Which option best explains the missing entry?
A. The Ship Confirm process has not been run from Order Management
B. The final Post to General Ledger process has not been run from Receivables
C. During the entry of the manual invoice, the Accounts Receivable clerk did not click the
Complete button
D. Oracle receivables does not relieve inventory. You must use Order Management if you are
invoicing an item that needs to relieve inventory
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which four statements are true abut imported invoice lines? (Choose four.)
A. You use the interface Lines from to view invoice lines that failed AutoInvoice validation
B. You use the Transactions form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
C. You use the interface Errors form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
D. You use the interface lines form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
E. The RA_INTERFACE_LINES_ALL table contains invoices that failed AutoInvoie validation
F. The RA_CUSTOMER_TRANSACTION_ALL table contains invoices that failed AutoInvoice
validation
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 3.
Certpaper.com is implementing the Oracle Accounts receivable (AR). Certpaper.com needs a solution that provides the option of transferring a high volume of customer receipts from the bank into the Oracle AR system. In its legacy system, receipts are handled by two separate people and it wants to keep the jobs this way. Rosemary is responsible for entering the receipts and uploading them to the AR system and reporting the total collections for the day. Ben is responsible for posting and applying the receipts after performing due diligence in identifying and classifying receipts that do not have any customer information or receipts that do not have details such as specific invoice numbers against which the receipt is to be applied or receipts which have been received as an ad-hoc payment from a particular customer.
Ben does not want Certpaper.coms account balance to be affected immediately when the receipts are transferred and uploaded to the receivables system. Before the receipts are posted and applied to each individual customers accounts, he needs to check whether the receipts have been assigned with the appropriate invoice number for accurate application and whether the rest of the receipt information is correct. It is only after performing this checking process that he finally posts the receipts through a mass update in the present legacy system.
What is the most appropriate receipt creation method to implement in Oracle Receivables?
A. Cash Receipts
B. Manual Receipts
C. Automatic Receipts
D. Quick Cash Receipts
E. Miscellaneous Receipts
Answer: D
Question 4.
Cash Management maintains a Reconciled or Unreconciled status for each bank statement line. This status is displayed in Cash Management windows and reports. However, this status does not indicate the status of the system transaction. In addition to the status of the bank statement line. Cash Management also displays the status of the system transaction, which is assigned by source application.
Which four statues are in the list of Receipt Status from Receivables? (Choose four.)
A. Reversed
B. Voided
C. Confirmed
D. Reconciled
E. Approved
F. Cleared
Answer: A, C, E, F
Question 5.
Certpaper Enterprises, a customer, has informed you that it will pay for invoices of both its affiliates, Certpaper Services and Certpaper Supplies. Both these affiliates are also customers. You are told that only Certpaper Services is allowed to pay for invoices of Certpaper Enterprises. Certpaper Supplies is not.
Which option defines the Party Paying Relationship that will work?
A. Define Pay Below Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises, Certpaper Services and
Certpaper Supplies with Certpaper Enterprises being the parent
B. Define Pay Within Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Services and
Pay Below Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Supplies
C. Define a Relationship types of Pay within and Pay below. Use pay within for Certpaper
Enterprises and Certpaper services and Pay below for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper
Supplies
D. Define Relationship Type A for Pay within and Type B for Pay below. Use Relationship Type A
for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Services and Relationship Type B for Certpaper
Enterprises and Certpaper Supplies
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which four parameters are used by AutoInvoice to derive the General Ledger (GL) date for a transaction? (Choose four.)
A. Due date
B. Ship Date
C. Accounting Rule
D. Sales Order Date
E. Default date parameter in the AutoInvoice submission form
F. The latest accounting rule start date if the invoice uses Bill in Advance as the invoicing rule
G. The earliest accounting rule start date if the invoice uses Bill in Arrears as the invoicing rule
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 7.
Certpaper.com is implementing Oracle Accounts Receivable interface with an external non Oracle legacy billion system. The client wants Oracle Accounts receivable to generate accounting entries, instead of sending accounting data through the interface.
Which setup items are NOT used by Oracle Accounts Receivable to generate General Ledger (GL) code combinations? (Choose two.)
A. Customer Site
B. AutoAccounting
C. Transaction Type
D. Accounting Rules
E. Transaction Source
F. Standard Memo Line
Answer: D, E
Question 8.
Certpaper.com has some customers that have gone through mergers and acquisitions. These customers have requested that their accounts be kept separate, but in some cases they will pay each other's invoices. You are able to confirm that
A will pay for B's invoice but not the other way round (B will not pay for A's Invoice)
D will pay for invoices of C and E, whereas only E will pay for D's invoices. A is not related to C,D and E. The system option of Allow Payament of Unrelated Transaction is deselected.
Which three customer account relationships would work for applying payment to an invoice? (Choose three.)
A. Nonreciprocal relationship between C and E
B. Reciprocal relationship between A and B
C. Nonreciprocal relationship between D and C
D. Reciprocal relationship between C and E
E. Nonreciprocal relationship between A and D
F. Nonreciprocal relationship between A and B
G. Nonreciprocal relationship between D and E
H. Reciprocal relationship between D and E
Answer: C, F, H
Question 9.
Certpaper.com enables you to customize the content and format of bills viewed by customers.
Which four actions can you perform? (Choose Four.)
A. Use Applications Desktop Integrator (ADI) to publish bills
B. Design the layout and content of a bill
C. Incorporate attachments on online bills
D. Display information on bills that is not stored in Oracle Receivables
E. Assign bill formats to specific customers or to user-defined customer categories
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 10.
Which statement is true about entering invoices in batches?
A. A salesperson can be entered at the batch level
B. A maximum of 999 invoices can be included in a batch
C. A batch can contain invoices with different currencies
D. The batch source must be the same for all invoices in the batch
E. The payment terms must be the same for all invoices in the batch
F. Invoices can be entered in batches but must be printed individually
Answer: C
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