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Question 1.
Which Cisco Security product is used to perform a Security Posture Assessment of client workstations?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Posture Assessment Tool
D. Cisco NAS Appliance
E. Cisco ACS
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three policy types can be assigned to a network user role in the Cisco NAC Appliance architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Allowed IP Address ranges
B. Network Port Scanning Plug-ins
C. VPN and roaming policies
D. Inactivity period
E. Session Duration
F. Minimum Password length
Answer: B, C, E
Question 3.
Which two components should be included in a network design document? (Choose two.)
A. Complete network blueprint
B. Operating Expense
C. Risk Analysis
D. Configuration for each device
E. Detailed part list
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested in Cisco Security modules. Match the descriptions with the proper module. Use only options that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Which statement is true about the Cisco Security MARS Global Controller?
A. Rules that are created on a Local Controller can be pushed to the Global Controller
B. Most data archiving is done by the Global Controller
C. The Global Controller receives detailed incidents information from the Local Controllers and
correlates the incidents between multiple Local Controllers
D. The Global Controller Centrally Manages of a group of Local Controllers
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which certificates are needed for a device to join a certificate-authenticated network?
A. The Certificates of the device and its peer
B. The Certificates of the certificate authority, the device and the peer
C. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the peer
D. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the device
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which three Cisco Security products help to prevent application misuse and abuse? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco IOS FW and IPS
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Trust Agent
F. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access)
Answer: A, B, D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested attack methodologies. Match the descriptions with the proper methodology.
Use only options that apply.
Answer:
Question 9.
Which two of these features are integrated security components of the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? (Chose two.)
A. VRF-aware firewall
B. Cisco ASA AIP SSM
C. VTI
D. Control Plane Policing
E. Anti-X
F. DMVPN
Answer: B, E
Question 10.
Which of these items is a valid method to verify a network security design?
A. Computer simulation
B. Network audit
C. Sing-off by the operations team
D. Pilot or prototype network
E. Analysis of earlier attacks
Answer: D
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Question 1.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, in Cisco client security software applications. Match the applications with the descriptions.
Answer:
Question 2.
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Answer: D, E
Question 3.
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not
supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Answer: D
Question 5.
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Answer: F
Question 6.
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA
propagation
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Answer: A, D
Question 8.
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic
flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Answer: C
Question 9.
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Answer: A, B
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, in Cisco NAC appliance components. Match the applications with the appropriate descriptions.
Answer:
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Question 1.
How are the voice and data devices organized in the LAN for SBCS
A. By workgroup affiliation
B. By LAN switchport assignment
C. By WLAN association
D. By WAN address
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB Site? Select two.
A. Simplifies Smart Business Communications System install
B. Automated monthly reporting on system performance
C. Allows the end customer to get free updates
D. Monthly recurring revenue model
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
What are two ways to test LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? Select two.
A. Ping the IP of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the US520 console
B. Ping the IP of the Cisco distribution VLAN from the UC520 console
C. Ping the IP address of the Cisco Voice VLAN from a device attached to the CE520
D. Ping IP of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the CE520
E. Ping the default gateway from the Cisco CE520
F. Ping the default gateway from the UC520
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
In a SBCS install with 16 users, what is the max number of teleworkers the system can accommodate?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 10
Answer: A
Question 5.
In the SBCS which two services are provided to each teleworker, home office or mobile worker locations?
A. Wireless Connectivity
B. Instant Messaging
C. Integrated Security
D. Voice Gateway
E. Data Networking
Answer: E
Question 6.
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP either statically or through DHCP?
A. LAN
B. Switchport
C. WAN
D. PSTN Interface
E. By workgroup affiliation
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for ountbound?
A. All employees,autoattendant or receptionist and voicemail and the remaining employess do not
have direct inward dial numbers
B. All employees,autoattendant or receptionist and voicemail have direct inwaqrd dial numbers
using analog trunks
C. All employees,autoattendant or receptionist and voicemail have direct inwaqrd dial numbers
using digital interfaces
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of these statements correctly describes the security audit that is run on the Cisco UC520?
A. It configures firewall addresses on the network
B. It configures the infrastructure protection services
C. It automatically fixes any failed items
D. It provides a separate interface for the DMZ
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which 3 features does the Cisco UC520 support? Select three.
A. Analog devices
B. Storage Area Networks
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. distributed routing
E. Security firewall and VPN
F. Telepresence
Answer: A, C, E
Question 10.
Which Cat 520 feature optimizes QOS?
A. CiscoSmartPorts
B. Cisco configuration assistant
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Key System
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which service component in the security implement phase includes activities such as executing test cases, capturing test result, and tuning test procedures?
A. Staging
B. Network Ready for Use
C. Define Technical Procedures
D. As-Built Documentation
E. Acceptance Testing
Answer: E
Question 2.
Which of the following is the best description of the develop project management plan activity within the project-planning service component?
A. Obtains customer surveys, captures lessons learned, and update leading practices
B. Integrates devices without disrupting the existing network or creating points of vulnerability
C. Documents planning of assumptions and decisions; facilitates communication among
stakeholders, and documents approved scope, cost and schedule baselines.
D. Create final network documentation that reflects "as-built" information for customer, including
specific design requirements and configurations
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which three business requirement development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. Document and Categorize the Business Requirement of Customer in Terms of Performance,
Availability, Capacity, and Security
B. Create a Business Case
C. Produce a Documented Technology Strategy
D. Identify and Assess the Business Requirements of Customer
E. Conduct a Systems Strategy Meeting.
F. Create a Bill of Materials
Answer: A, D, E
Question 4.
CORRECT TEXT
Which implement phase service component provides for creating the final network documentation that reflects information for the customer, including specific desing requirements and configurations?
1. Device Deployment
2. Post-Implementation support handoff meeting
3. As-Built Documentation
4. Staff Training for IT Admin and Help Desk.
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which three of the following service component are included in the desing phase? (Choose Three)
A. Account Qualification and Planning
B. Staging Plan Development
C. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
D. Proposal Development
E. Staff Training
F. Detailed Desing Customer Sing-off
Answer: B, C, F
Question 6.
Which service component is in the security operate phase ?
A. Operations Design
B. Change Management
C. Operation Assessment
D. Security Technology Assessment
Answer: B
Question 7.
In which service component of the security operate phase are network issues analyzed to identify trends?
A. Security Administration
B. Incident Management
C. Operation Setup
D. System Monitoring
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which Cisco Lifecycle Services security phase defines operational excellence through ongoing improvement of system performance and functionality?
A. Optimize
B. Design
C. Operate
D. Implement
E. Prepare
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which service component is part of the security implement phase?
A. Select Fault Management Tools and Products
B. Change Management
C. Project Closeout
D. Operations Setup
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the technology strategy development service component in the prepare phase?
A. Create a network diagram that contains network topology and location of each management
console
B. Create a breakdown of project tasks and responsibilities
C. Create a model network that will allow the customer to how the proposed security technology
solution will work
D. Include a statement of work that defines the scope of work to be completed for the proposed
security solution
E. Help identify and document the customer´s current network architecture and security policies
and create a gap analysis.
Answer: C
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Question 1. Based on the principles of clustering, what is required to obtain a voting Quorum in a 3-node cluster at any given time? A. Three devices must be able to vote. B. Two devices must be able to vote. C. Only one device is needed. D. No quorum is needed in a 3-node cluster. Answer: B Question 2. What is the BEST reason for utilizing a cluster in a datacenter environment? A. The Enterprise Backup procedures can be handled. B. Having clustered systems ensures faster execution. C. It is required now to run most critical applications. D. A cluster makes applications highly available. Answer: D Question 3. When installing Sun Cluster 3.0, how much disk space should be allocated for /globaldevices on the root disk? A. 50 mb B. 100 mb C. All available disk space D. It depends on the configuration Answer: B Question 4. When removing Sun Cluster 3.0 from a system, what is considered the BEST procedure? A. Uninstall Cluster packages and reboot. B. Remove the Cluster database and do a reconfiguration boot. C. Re-install the complete Operating System. D. Individually remove the packages and disconnect TC. Answer: C Question 5. What BEST describes the upgrade process from SC2.x to SC3.0? A. Remove SC2.0 and install 3.0. B. Run an upgrade script. C. Install new Cluster pkgs and reboot. D. Install Solaris 8 and SC3.O software. Answer: D Question 6. You must install the KJP on all nodes of a SC 3.0 cluster. Which of the following must you do? A. init 6, patchadd, reboot B. scshutdown, boot -x, patchadd, reboot C. patchadd, reboot D. patchadd, reboot -- -x Answer: B Question 7. In a 2-node cluster running Sun Cluster 3.0, what is required to start clustered operation during normal operations? A. Quorum device and the interconnect B. One node and no quorum device C. One node and a quorum device D. Both nodes and the cluster transport Answer: C Question 8. How would you BEST describe, "cluster transport"? A. The heartbeat network between nodes. B. The switch used to bring shared storage to the nodes. C. The terminal concentrator and its connection to the nodes. D. The cabling associated with the shared storage. Answer: B Question 9. What is the command to check the current status of a 3.0 cluster? A. scstat B. scprint C. hastat D. scset -l Answer: B Question 10. In order to install the Quorum device, what command is used to check for available devices? A. scstat -lv B. quorumlist -a C. hastat -l quorum D. scdidadm -L Answer: D
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