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Braindumps for " CTT+" Exam

best of itcertkeys

 

Question 1.
If the FTP protocol fixup is not enabled for a given port, which statements are true?
(Choose two)

A. Outbound standard FTP will work properly on that port.
B. Outbound passive FTP will not work properly on that port.
C. Outbound standard FTP will not work properly on that port.
D. Outbound standard FTP will work properly on that port if outbound traffic is not explicitly
     disallowed.
E. Inbound standard FTP will not work properly on that port even if a conduit to the inside
    server exists.
F. Outbound passive FTP will work properly on that port as long as outbound traffic is not
     explicitly disallowed.

Answer: C, F

Explanation:
This workaround will force your clients to use FTP in passive mode, and inbound FTP service will not be supported.
Outbound standard FTP will not work without fixup protocol ftp 21, however, passive FTP will function correctly with no fixup protocol ftp configured.

Reference:
Cisco PIX 500 Series Firewalls - Cisco Secure PIX Firewall FTP Vulnerabilities
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/vpndevc/ps2030/products_security_advisory09186a00800b13bd.shtml

Question 2.
Which statement about the PIX Firewall and PPPoE is true?

A. When PPPoE is configured, the user enters his username and password to connect to a  
     PPPoE server and set the MTU size to 1492 bytes.
B. The PIX Firewall does not detect PPPoE session termination.
C. When PPPoE is configured, you must set the MTU size to the correct value to allow PPPoE
    to be transmitted in an Ethernet frame.
D. To clear and restart a PPPoE session, enter the clear ppp session command.
E. When configured, the PIX Firewall's PPPoE client automatically connects to a service
    provider's access concentrator without user intervention.

Answer: E

Explanation:
At system initialization, the PPPoE client establishes a session with the AC by exchanging a series of packets.
Once the session is established, a PPP link is set up, which includes authentication using Password Authentication (PAP) protocol. Once the PPP session is established, each packet is encapsulated in the PPPoE and PPP headers.

Reference:
Using PIX Firewall in SOHO Networks
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/iaabu/pix/pix_sw/v_62/config/pixclnt.pdf

Question 3.
How can dynamic outside NAT simplify router configuration on your internal or perimeter networks?

A. By controlling the addresses that appear on these networks.
B. Because you can configure your routing within the nat command.
C. Because you can configure your routing within the global command.
D. Because statics take precedence over nat and global command pairs.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Inside dynamic NAT
Translates between host addresses on more secure interfaces and a range or pool of IP addresses on a less secure interface. This provides a one-to-one mapping between internal and external addresses that allows internal users to share registered IP addresses and hides internal addresses from view on the public Internet.

Reference:
Establishing Connectivity
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/iaabu/pix/pix_sw/v_63/config/bafwcfg.htm

Question 4.
Which is likely to cause standard failover via the special serial cable not to work? (Choose two)

A. The two PIX Firewalls are running different version of software.
B. The hardware models are the same.
C. The secondary PIX Firewall has not been properly configured as a secondary PIX Firewall.
D. The secondary PIX Firewall has a 3DES license.
E. The hardware models are different.
F. The standby PIX Firewall has not yet replicated its configuration to the primary PIX Firewall.

Answer: A, E

Explanation:
Failover System Requirements
ƒ Identical PIX Firewall hardware and software versions Description
ƒ The failover feature requires two units that are identical in the following respects:
ƒ Model (a PIX 515E cannot be used with a PIX 515)
ƒ Same number and type of interfaces
ƒ Software version
ƒ Activation key type (DES or 3DES)
ƒ Flash memory
ƒ Amount of RAM

Reference:
Cisco PIX Firewall Software - Using PIX Firewall Failover
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/secursw/ps2120/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008017278a.html

Question 5.
Select the correct statement:

A. With the Diffie-Hellman exchange, the DES key never crosses the network.
B. With the Diffie-Hellman exchange, the DES key crosses the network in encrypted form.
C. With the Diffie-Hellman exchange, the DES key never crosses the network in clear text.
D. With RSA encrypt and sign technique the key never crosses the network.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cisco's IKE implementation uses a Diffie-Hellman exchange to get the secret keys. This exchange can be authenticated with RSA (or pre-shared keys). With the Diffie-Hellman exchange, the DES key never crosses the network (not even in encrypted form), which is not the case with the RSA encrypt and sign technique.

Reference:
IPSec - An Introduction to IP Security (IPSec) Encryption
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk372/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094203.shtml

Question 6.
We have already created a permanent mapping between a local ip address and a global IP address using the following command:

Pix (config)#static (inside, outside) 172.29.40.8 10.10.10.6
Now we want to create an exception to the PIX Firewall ASA using conduit command. The conduit command must permit TCP for the global IP address 172.29.40.8 that was specified in the static command statement and permit http access over port 80. Choose the correct command.

A. pix(config)#conduit permit tcp host 172.29.40.8 any eq www
B. pix(config)#conduit permit tcp host 172.29.40.8 eq www any
C. pix(config)#conduit permit ip host 172.29.40.8 eq www any
D. pix(config)#conduit permit tcp 172.29.40.8 eq 80 any

Answer: B

Explanation:
The conduit command in answer B permits the host 172.29.40.8 any HTTP access over port 80 (www).

Reference:
PIX Firewall Software Version 6.3 Commands
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/iaabu/pix/pix_sw/v_63/cmdref/qref.htm



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Braindumps for "642-971" Exam

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Braindumps for "HP0-J14" Exam

HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam

 Question 1.
To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply on the MSA2000?

A. virtual disk
B. array
C. physical disk
D. volume

Answer: D

Question 2.
You recently upgraded to CommandView EVA v7 and changed the password to pa$$word01. You can no longer manage the EVA5000.

What is a possible cause?

A. The password contains unsupported characters.
B. The password contains fewer than 12 characters.
C. The password requires at least one uppercase character.
D. The password contains more than 8 characters.

Answer: D

Question 3.
What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains preallocated reserve space for snapshot data?

A. snap pool
B. master volume
C. target volume
D. rollback pool

Answer: A

Question 4.
What is the EVAperf default setting for collecting data?

A. every second
B. every 5 seconds
C. every 15 seconds
D. every 10 seconds

Answer: D

Question 5.
After a power outage, the MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. 

Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online?

A. Refresh Disk Blocks
B. Dequarantine Virtual Disk
C. ReInitialize Disk Blocks
D. Trust Virtual Disk

Answer: D

Question 6.
What is the minimum version of CommandView to enable all the features of controller firmware XCS 6.10?

A. CommandView EVA 6.02
B. CommandView EVA 7.0
C. CommandView EVA 6.1
D. CommandView EVA 6.0

Answer: B

Question 7.
What is the maximum size LUN that can be created on the EVA4400 at initial release?

A. 2TB
B. 16TB
C. 1TB
D. 32TB

Answer: A

Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution
 

Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Question 9.
You are installing an MSA2012fc storage solution at a customer site. The manual addition of a global spare disk fails. 

What is the most probable reason for the failure?

A. No virtual disk exists on the system.
B. Global spares must be added in pairs.
C. Global spare disks must reside in the same enclosure as thevdisks.
D. Unassigned disks are automatically used as global spares.

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which items can be part of a disk group on an HP StorageWorks EVA for a successful online disk drive code load? (Select two.)

A. unprotected RSS
B. Vraid0 LUN
C. Vraid5 LUN
D. reconstructing disk group
E. Vraid1 LUN

Answer: C, E


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Braindumps for "HP0-M18" Exam

HP LoadRunner Software

 Question 1.
What is an example of a stress test?

A. purchasing at anE.commerce site
B. updating orders on a client/server system
C. viewing upcoming flight itineraries on a flight reservation application
D. displaying the home page immediately after a marketing promotion has been run

Answer: D

Question 2.
When scheduling a scenario, which run modes are available in the Controller? (Select two.)

A. Group
B. Scenario
C. Duration
D. Global Schedule
E. Real-Life schedule
F. Run Until Complete

Answer: E, F

Question 3.
You want to control the delay between iterations. Where do you set this in the Run-time settings?

A. General: Pacing
B. General: Think Time
C. Network: Speed Simulation
D. Browser: Browser Emulation

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which level of concurrency identifies how many users are currently in the process of buying a ticket?

A. system
B. application
C. transaction
D. business process

Answer: D

Question 5.
What is the appropriate scenario outline if your quantitative goal is to attain 2,500 concurrent users for the Update transaction during peak time?

A. Load test should achieve 2,500 users only.
B. Script should define the Update transaction only.
C. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 users.
D. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2.500 concurrent 
    users.

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test scenario in a single graph?

A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate

Answer: C

Question 7.
What is the LoadRunner term for varying values defined in a placeholder that replaces the hard. coded values?

A. variable
B. constant
C. parameter
D. correlation

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which scenario run is recommended to set the Run-time setting to Standard Logging?

A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability

Answer: C

Question 9.
What is the first indication of a performance problem?

A. The network delay time is above 15ms.
B. The DMG is not resolving the machine name.
C. The Web server's available memory drops below 1 GB.
D. The end userexpenences higherthan expected response times.

Answer: D

Question 10.
How can you validate that the LoadRunner Agent is running on the load generator?

A. Port 443 will be open.
B. The MlFW.exe process will be running.
C. The radar dish will appear in the system tray.
D. The load generator will be pinged using the name/DNS/IP.

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "JN0-303" Exam

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-M)

 Question 1.
What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?

A. IGP
B. LDP
C. MPLS
D. BGP

Answer: D

Question 2.
A router receives an IPv6 packet which is 2000 bytes in length. The MTU of the outgoing interface is 1500 bytes. 

What action will the router take?

A. fragments the packet
B. forwards the packet
C. drops the packet and sends an ICMP message
D. drops the packet silently

Answer: C

Question 3.
In which two ways can you influence how downstream LSRs treat MPLS traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Use a DSCP rewrite table.
B. Statically assign a CoS value to an RSVP-signaled LSP.
C. Statically assign a CoS value to an LDP-signaled LSP.
D. Use an EXP rewrite table.

Answer: B, D

Question 4.
What is the use of MSDP across multiple PIM domains?

A. It advertises RPs to all downstream routers.
B. It advertises active multicast sources.
C. It prevents multicast routing loops.
D. It scopes multicast traffic.

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which two statements are true when configuring a domain-id ? (Choose two.)

A. The default OSPF domain-id is 127.0.0.1
B. For a layer 3 VPN connecting multiple OSPF domains, configuring a domain-id can help 
    Control LSA translations
C. In most cases, a domain-id must be configured
D. In most cases, you do not need to configure a domain-id

Answer: B, D

Question 6.
Into which protocol are LDP hello messages encapsulated?

A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. MPLS

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which two forwarding classes have bandwidth assigned when CoS is not explicitly configured in JUNOS software? (Choose two.)

A. Network control (NC)
B. Assured forwarding (AF)
C. Expedited forwarding (EF)
D. Best effort (BE)

Answer: A, D

Question 8.
In JUNOS software, which type of encapsulation is required on a PE router for the CE-facing interface in a Martini-based VPN?

A. ATM
B. CCC
C. Ethernet
D. HDLC

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which routing table stores IPv6 routes?

A. inet.2
B. inet.0
C. inet.v6
D. inet6.0
E. ip-net.0

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which three authentication options does IS-IS support? (Choose three.)

A. unauthenticated
B. MD5
C. Kerberos
D. simple password
E. DES

Answer: A, B, D


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Braindumps for "MB2-633" Exam

Installation and Deployment in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0

 Question 1.
You are a system administrator at ITCertkeys.com. The corporate network of the company consists of an Active Directory domain. All the servers on the network run Windows Server 2003 servers and all client computers run Windows XP. Some servers on the corporate network run Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 and client computers run Microsoft Dynamics CRM Client for Microsoft Office Outlook with offline access. The CRM client was installed on client computers few months back using Group Policies. You now want to automate the process of patch installation on client computers so that patches are applied automatically. To accomplish this task, you decided to use Microsoft Dynamics CRM Patch Configuration tool. However, you realized that the patch should not be installed on the CEO laptop. 

Which of the following options would you choose to ensure that the patch is applied to all the client computers except CEO's laptop?

A. Move the CEO user account to a different Organizational Unit in the Active Directory.
B. Set the  tag to false in the patch configuration file.
C. In the  tag in the patch configuration file, specify the CEO user account GUID.
D. Apply the patch to all laptops using the configuration file and then uninstall the patch from the 
    CEO's laptop.

Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the patch is applied to all the client computers except CEO's laptop, you need to specify the CEO user account GUID in the < ConditionsXsl > tag in the patch configuration file.
The < ConditionsXsl > tag specifies restrictions for installing an update. For example, you can restrict updates by organization, user, operating system, Microsoft Office version, or language type.
The following configuration file excerpt restricts the update for a specific user, based on the user's ID.
< ConditionsXsl >
< xsl:transform version="1.0"
xmlns:xsl ="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> IsMandatory ]]>


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Braindumps for "NR0-017" Exam

Teradata Masters Update V2R5

 Question 1.
Which two attributes are copied for a CREATE TABLE from a subquery to the table being created? (Choose two.)

A. data types
B. FALLBACK option
C. column-level attributes
D. primary index
E. CHECK constraints

Answer: A, C

Question 2.
Which three features are associated with join indexes? (Choose three.)

A. a pre-aggregation of a single base table
B. the pre-join of multiple tables using INNER JOIN
C. the pre-join of multiple tables using FULL OUTER JOIN
D. a replicated subset of a single base table

Answer: A, B, D

Question 3.
You want to generate three mutually exclusive sample sets from a customer table.
SELECT customer_id, age, income, SAMPLEID
FROM customer_table

Which clause needs to be added to complete the task?

A. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 ;
B. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 WITH REPLACEMENT ;
C. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 ;
D. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 WITH REPLACEMENT ;

Answer: C

Question 4.
Consider the table t1 created as follows:
CREATE TABLE t1 (
a integer,
d date,
v varchar(100))
PRIMARY INDEX (a)
PARTITION BY RANGE_N(d BETWEEN
DATE '2001-01-01' AND DATE '2005-12-31'
EACH INTERVAL '7' DAY); and the query:
SELECT v FROM t1 WHERE d = DATE '2004-03-16';

Which plan does the Optimizer use to find qualifying rows?

A. full table scan on a single AMP
B. single partition scan on every AMP
C. value lookup on every AMP
D. hash lookup on each AMP
E. single partition scan on a single AMP

Answer: B

Question 5.
If neither RANGE_N nor CASE_N are used to define the number of partitions, how many partitions will the Optimizer assume?

A. 255
B. 0
C. 32767
D. 1
E. 65535

Answer: E

Question 6.
Which two statements are true concerning parameters within a stored procedure? (Choose two.)

A. Parameters and their attributes are always stored in the Data Dictionary.
B. Parameters can be used to build a dynamic SQL statement.
C. Parameters can be altered using the FORMAT clause.
D. Parameters can include status variables such as ACTIVITY_COUNT.

Answer: A, B

Question 7.
Which two tools can be used to alter database objects to improve workload performance? (Choose two.)

A. Teradata System Emulation Tool (TSET)
B. Teradata Visual Explain
C. Teradata Statistics Wizard
D. Teradata Index Wizard

Answer: C, D

Question 8.
Which three are attributes of an Active Data Warehouse? (Choose three.)

A. high availability
B. tactical queries
C. complex queries
D. expanding batch windows

Answer: A, B, C

Question 9.
Which join plan makes use of a primary index on each of two tables with matching partitioned primary indexes (PPIs)?

A. rowkey-based merge
B. nested
C. exclusion merge
D. rowhash merge

Answer: A

Question 10.
You are evaluating the possible use of a hash index on a multi-terabyte table. 

Which two factors complicate the implementation of a hash index on such a table? (Choose two.)

A. A partitioned primary index (PPI) is defined on the table.
B. A large number of users access the table.
C. Triggers are defined on the table.
D. The maintenance job for the table is MultiLoad.

Answer: C, D


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Braindumps for "UM0-300" Exam

OMG-Certified uml Professional Advanced Exam

 Question 1.
The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?

A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes

Answer: A

Question 2.
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?

A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the 
    request.

Answer: B

Question 3.
In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
 

A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.

Answer: A

Question 4.
How can UML be extended? (Choose two)

A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and 
    relationships

Answer: D, E

Question 5.
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?

A. <>
B. <>
C. <



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Braindumps for "HP0-J23" Exam

Implementing MSA Storage Solution

 Question 1.
What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (FC or iSCSI) controller at any one time?

A. 1 monitor and 5 manage
B. 4 monitor and 2 manage
C. 2 monitor and 3 manage
D. 5 monitor and 1 manage

Answer: D

Question 2.
What is the maximum affordable amount of business data loss?

A. Risk Tlerance Limit
B. Recovery point objective
C. Critical mass of information
D. Business continuity threshold

Answer: B

Question 3.
You are installing an MSA2012i array. The customer asks about the data protection features of the new array. Which capabilities does it have?

A. 64 snapshots and 64 volume copies
B. 64 snapshots and 128 volume copies
C. 128 snapshots and 64 volume copies
D. 128 snapshots and 128 volume copies

Answer: B

Question 4.
Click the Exhibit button.

Which functions does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
Exhibit:
 

A. Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
B. Data encryption to the tape device
C. Backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
D. Two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which components can be managed through the management software of the MSA2000 family? (Select Two)

A. Vdisk
B. Disk Group
C. Data Replication
D. Snap pool

Answer: A, D

Question 6.
What is a volume copy?

A. A full copy of target data
B. Backup copy of source data
C. A full allocation copy of all volume source data
D. Full copy of all configured volumes

Answer: C

Question 7.
Which type of software is the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management Utility?

A. Target based web application
B. Serial based web application
C. Java based secure management
D. Windows based remote connectivity

Answer: A

Question 8.
What does MPIO do if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns an inactive path?

A. Initiates a path failover
B. Performs automatic path verification
C. Removes the path from the load balancing policy
D. Changes the storage LUN to write-through mode

Answer: A

Question 9.
What is the maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability?

A. Installation of backup procedure
B. Recovery point objective
C. Half an hour down time
D. During off times maximum 30 minutes

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which component enables access to block storage on a Fiber Channel SAN across an Ethernet network?

A. Ethernet Switch
B. Fibre Channel Switch
C. FC-IP gateway connector
D. iSCSI to Fiber Channel bridge

Answer: D

Question 11.
What is the best solution if file serving data must be shared among many hosts on the network?

A. SAN
B. DAS
C. NAS
D. SCSI-to-SCSI

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "9L0-401" Exam

Mac OS X Support Essentials v10.4 Exam Practice Test

 Question 1.
Deborah installed a utility that downloads movies from her Mac OS X v10.4 computer to a digital video recorder (DVR), so she can play them on her television. But the DVR is only able to access the movies files on her computer while she has the firewall on the computer turned off. 

How can Deborah configure her system to allow the DVR to access movie files on her computer while the firewall is on?

A. Using a text editor, add the port numbers used by the movie sharing utility to /etc/firewall. list.
B. In the Firewall pane of Sharing preferences, create a new port definition with the port numbers 
    used by the movie sharing utility, then turn the port on in the firewall list of ports.
C. In the Firewall pane of Network preferences, enter the range of ports used by the movie 
    sharing utility in the Allow list.
D. Using the Firewall Manager utility, add the port numbers used by the sharing utility to 
    /etc/firewall. list, then enable the ports in the Firewall pane of Sharing preferences.

Answer: B

Question 2.
What are three ways to access the command line in Mac OS X v10.4? (Choose THREE.)

A. Launch Console.
B. Start up in single user mode.
C. Launch Network Utility.
D. Start up in verbose mode.
E. Launch Terminal.
F. Choose Command from the Apple menu.
G. Log in remotely using SSH.

Answer: B, E, G

Question 3.
In Mac OS X v10.4, how do you enable printing to a printer shared by a Windows computer?

A. In the Print dialog, choose the workgroup from the Windows Printer entry in the Printer pop-up 
    menu, then select the printer from the list.
B. From the Printing pane of Print & Fax preferences, choose Windows Printers in the pop-up 
    menu, then select the workgroup and printer.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, select the workgroup and printer from the Default Browser pane in the 
    Printer Browser window, and click Add.
D. In Printer Setup Utility, click More Printers in the Printer Browser window and choose Windows 
    Printing from the pop-up menu, then choose the workgroup, select the printer, and click Add.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which two utilities can display information about a wide range of system components? (Choose TWO.).

A. Network Diagnostics
B. Internet Connect
C. Console
D. Setup Assistant
E. System Profiler

Answer: C, E

Question 5.
Mac OS X v10.4 supports which two types of VPN connections by default? (Choose TWO.)

A. PPTP
B. PPPoE
C. L2TP
D. P2P
E. NAT

Answer: A, C

Question 6.
In Mac OS X v10.4, changes to network configuration ________.

A. require administrator authentication
B. require you to create a new network location
C. are made in the Internet pane of System Preferences
D. are user-specific

Answer: A

Question 7.
Press Exhibit to view the image. You have set up a network as shown in the exhibit. Computer A has been configured to share its Internet connection from the cable modem with computers B and C over Ethernet. 

Why could this configuration be problematic?

A. Internet Sharing is incompatible with cable modems.
B. A computer running Mac OS X v10.4 can use Internet Sharing to share its Internet connection 
    with only one other computer on the network.
C. Internet Sharing must be enabled on all three computers in order to share the cable modem.
D. Receiving and sharing an Internet connection over the same Ethernet port on Computer A can 
    cause network problems for other ISP customers.

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which is NOT a valid reason to use the command line rather than the Finder in Mac OS X v10.4?

A. It is easier to execute undo at the command line than to undo commands in the Finder.
B. Some file system commands executed at the command line, like chown and chmod, have 
    options for which there are no equivalents in the Finder.
C. Commands executed at the command line can be combined for efficiency.
D. Commands executed at the command line can be executed from a different user account more 
    easily than their Finder equivalents.

Answer: A

Question 9.
Press Exhibit to view the image. In the Finder, Chris creates a folder in her home directory and sets the permissions as shown in the exhibit. In Terminal, Chris types: ls -l ~ and presses Return.

What permissions are shown for the new folder?

A. -rwx-wx-wx
B. drwx-wx-wx
C. drw--w--w-
D. -rw--wx-wx
E. drw--wx-wx

Answer: B

Question 10.
Authorization verifies ________.

A. a resource availability to a given user account
B. a user's name and password
C. a file's creator and type
D. a computer's membership in a computer list

Answer: A



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