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Question 1. If a user creates a time code for sick time without pay in Attendance, what time type should be assigned to the time code? A. Benefit B. Absent C. Hourly D. Miscellaneous Answer: B Question 2. If a user creates a time code for sick time with pay in Attendance, what time type should be assigned to the time code? A. Benefit B. Absent C. Hourly D. Miscellaneous Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following is true about the applicant hire process in Human Resources? A. The applicant is added to the Employee file. B. The applicant is deleted from the applicant file. C. An employee ID must be entered when you hire the applicant. D. Some information about the applicant is transferred to an employee record. Answer: A, C, D Question 4. If an applicant is hired, which of the following information will the system transfer to their employee record? A. Skills B. Education C. Interviews D. Applicant User Defined information Answer: A, B Question 5. On the Setup Accruals window in Attendance, which of the following accrue By options should be used if all employees receive 40 hrs of sick time at the beginning of each year? A. Hr/Yr B. Interval C. Pay Period D. Post Once Answer: B Question 6. In the Attendance Transaction Transfer window, what does the checkbox indicate next to a transaction? A. The transaction needs to be posted. B. The transaction has been previously posted. C. The transaction has been voided. D. The transaction has been marked for posting. Answer: B Question 7. When pay periods are set up in Attendance, how many years need to be set up to avoid problems? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5 Answer: C Question 8. How many applications can be entered into the system for an applicant? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. Unlimited Answer: D Question 9. Which of the following statements are true about Attendance? A. Attendance is optional to use for Payroll transactions. B. Attendance can be used as a “stand alone” system independent from Payroll. C. Attendance has to be used for Payroll transactions if Human Resources are loaded. D. If Attendance is being used, Payroll Mass Transaction Entry is disabled. Answer: A, B Question 10. When linking time codes in Attendance to pay codes in Payroll, which of the following statements is true? A. An “absent” time code should not be linked to a pay code. B. Time codes are linked to pay codes for W-2 processing. C. Time codes and pay codes are for information only. D. Time codes and pay codes with the same ID will be automatically be linked. Answer: A
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Question 1.
A medium-sized insurance company has outgrown power capacity of their existing datacenter and is evaluating options to accommodate workload growth. All of the following are key benefits of CoolBlue.
Which one is of the MOST benefit to the customer in this situation?
A. System x can maximize datacenter density while lowering TCO.
B. Power Executive gives the client the ability to optimize energy utilization.
C. The IBM Rear Door Heat exchanger can be installed to reduce cooling requirements.
D. IBM energy efficient blade servers reduce the clients high energy costs for power and cooling.
Answer: D
Question 2.
A potential new customer needs servers and requests a response to their hardware requirements. The customer requests a quote from IBM within 48 hours.
Which of the following should the System x Sales Specialist do to MAXIMIZE the odds of winning this business?
A. Request an extension because 48 hours will not be enough time to propose an appropriate
solution.
B. Ask the customer for a brief meeting or call to learn more about their needs and respond to
Their request with a complete solution.
C. Use the configuration guide or spreadsheet configurator to assemble server configurations that
meet the specification, and then look for the lowest price.
D. Contact the IBM Client Representative for this account and ask for assistance in setting up a
meeting with the technical decision maker of the prospective customer.
Answer: B
Question 3.
A customer is interested in the ability to increase a system's computing power as needed.
Which of the following System x server attributes should the Sales Specialist promote?
A. Ability to hot-plug additional processors on demand
B. Low cost of System x servers makes scaling out an option
C. "Pay as you Grow" scalability of the IBM System X3950 server
D. Integration of System x servers with the existing servers using an interconnect
Answer: C
Question 4.
A potential new customer needs servers and requests a response to their hardware specifications, which are all related to hardware speeds, disk, and memory configuration. The customer requests a quote from IBM within 48 hours.
Which of the following should the System x Sales Specialist do to MAXIMIZE the odds of winning this business?
A. Request an extension because 48 hours will not be enough time to propose an appropriate
solution.
B. Ask the customer for a brief meeting or call to learn more about their needs and respond to
Their request with a complete solution.
C. Use the configuration guide or spreadsheet configurator to assemble server configurations that
meet the specification, and then look for the lowest price.
D. Contact the IBM Client Representative for this account and ask for assistance in setting up a
meeting with the technical decision maker of the prospective customer.
Answer: B
Question 5.
A customer currently buys HP ProLiant servers and EMC storage. The customer has encountered various problems getting certain servers to work with their storage.
Which of the following arguments can the Sales Specialist present to best position IBM?
A. IBM's server division regularly tests their products with other vendors' storage products.
B. IBM's storage division regularly tests their products with other vendors' server products.
C. IBM sells other vendors' products and will test compatibility with the customer's products.
D. IBM's ServerProven program assures a customer of compatibility with specific third-party
products.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which option best represents the way Capacity Manager aids optimizing performance and maximizing availability of managed servers?
A. System monitor resources are managed by thresholds.
B. Scheduled rejuvenation achieves server software peak efficiency.
C. Slot manager identifies best slot for installation of PCI/PCI-X adapters.
D. Performance analysis identifies system bottlenecks and recommends solution.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which of the following customer requirements would suggest a systems management solution on System x?
A. Higher scalability
B. Reduced operating costs
C. Improved server performance
D. Consolidation to one operating system
Answer: B
Question 8.
A customer uses a 3rd-party management system to manage all the servers in their data center. They have approached their Sales specialist about purchasing some IBM System x servers for a new project. The customer has heard about IBM Director, but is concerned that this will produce additional administrative overhead.
Which of the following statements will be MOST useful in addressing the customer's concern?
A. Most third party management systems are IBM ServerProven products.
B. IBM Director will run concurrently with third party management systems.
C. The IBM Director Console can be run on the third party management server.
D. Upward integration modules for many prominent third party management systems are
Available with IBM Director.
Answer: D
Question 9.
A customer already has an HS21 blade server and wishes to upgrade the blade to 32GB of RAM (8 x4GB DIMMs).
What should be proposed to the client?
A. 8 x4GB DIMMs to go in their existing HS21
B. 8 x 4GB DIMMs and a Memory and I/O expansion module
C. 8 x 4GB DIMMs and a Storage and I/O expansion module
D. An alternative server solution; the HS21 does not support 32GB of RAM
Answer: B
Question 10.
IBM Director allows for upward integration into some management tools.
Which management tool does NOT allow for this upward integration?
A. IBM Tivoli
B. BMC Patrol
C. HP Openview
D. Microsoft SMS
E. Microsoft WSUS
Answer: E
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Question 1.
What are the results of the command: fw sam [Target IP Address]?
A. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy
B. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the
Security Policy
C. The Security Policy is compiled and installed on the target's embedded VPN/FireWall Modules
D. Connections from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security
Policy
Answer: B
Question 2.
The command fw fetch causes the:
A. Security Gateway to retrieve the user database information from the tables on theSmartCenter
Server.
B. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the debug logs of the target Security Gateway
C. Security Gateway to retrieve the compiled policy and inspect code from theSmartCenter
Server and install it to the kernel.
D. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the IP addresses of the target Security Gateway
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which of the following deployment scenarios CANNOT be managed by Check Point QoS?
A. Two lines connected directly to the Gateway through a hub
B. Two lines connected to separate routers, and each router is connected to separate interfaces
on the Gateway
C. One LAN line and one DMZ line connected to separate Gateway interfaces
D. Two lines connected to a single router, and the router is connected directly to the Gateway
Answer: D
Question 4.
Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow Telnet service to itself from any location.
How would you set up the authentication method? With a:
A. Session Authentication rule
B. Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900
C. Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on
D. Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on
Answer: B
Question 5.
You must set up SIP with a proxy for your network. IP phones are in the 172.16.100.0 network. The Registrar and Proxy are installed on the host, 172.16.101.100. To allow handover enforcement for outbound calls from SIP-net to the Internet, you have defined the following objects:
Network object: SIP-net: 172.16.100.0/24
SIP-gateway: 172.16.101.100
VoIP Domain object: VoIP_domain_A
End-point domain: SIP-net
VoIP gateway installed at: SIP-gateway host object
How would you configure the rule?
A. VoIP_domain_A / any / sip_any / accept
B. VoIP_Gateway_A / any / sip / accept
C. Unsupported because the SIP Registrar and the SIP Proxy are installed on the same host.
Separate and create two VoIP Domain objects.
D. SIP-net & SIP-gateway / any / sip / accept
Answer: A
Question 6.
A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway
A. Stealth
B. Cleanup
C. SmartDefense
D. Reject
Answer: A
Question 7.
An advantage of using central vs local licensing is:
A. Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
B. Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
C. The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of a Security Gateway.
D. A license can be taken from oneSmartCenter Server and given to SmartCenter Server.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which command allows verification of the Security Policy name and install date on a Security Gateway?
A. fw ver -p
B. fw show policy
C. fw stat -l
D. fw ctl pstat -policy
Answer: C
Question 9.
What command displays the version of an already installed Security Gateway?
A. cpstat -gw
B. fw printver
C. fw ver
D. fw stat
Answer: C
Question 10.
When configuring objects in SmartMap, it is helpful to ____________ the objects so that they are properly defined for use in a policy rule.
A. Save
B. Actualize
C. Physically connect to
D. Expand
Answer: B
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Question 1.
The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High Availability member
When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become active?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1 1
C. Both members' state will be standby
D. Both members' state will be active
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the command to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 SmartCenter Server to VPN-1 NGX using a CD?
A. cd patch add
B. fwm upgrade_tool
C. cppkg add
D. patchadd
E. patch addcd
Answer: E
Question 3.
You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at version VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R55. You must upgrade your two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1 NGX.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the twoSmartCenter Servers.
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two Servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your primary SmartCenter Server is installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine, which is also a VPN-1 Pro Gateway. You want to implement Management High Availability (HA). You have a spare machine to configure as the secondary SmartCenter Server. How do you configure the new machine to be the standby SmartCenter Server, without making any changes to the existing primary SmartCenter Server? (Changes can include uninstalling and reinstalling.)
A. You cannot configure Management HA, when either the primary or secondary SmartCenter
Server is running on a VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
B. The new machine cannot be installed as the Internal Certificate Authority on its own.
C. The secondary Server cannot be installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine alone.
D. Install the secondary Server on the spare machine. Add the new machine to the same network
as the primary Server.
Answer: A
Question 5.
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 256 MB, Security Gateway
version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four Intel 3Com, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four other manufacturers, memory: 128 MB,
Security Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
SmartCenter Pro Server: MS Windows Server 2003, NIC: Intel NIC (one), Security Gateway and primary SmartCenter Server installed version: VPN-1 NGX
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, theSmartCenter Pro Server is not using the same operating system as the cluster
members.
B. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for aClusterXL deployment.
C. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
D. No, the SmartCenter Pro Server has only one NIC.
Answer: B
Question 6.
You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal networks can access your partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text.
How do you configure the VPN Community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the
Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the
Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP services to the
Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the
Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the Community
object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule in the
Security Policy to allow Any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How does a standby SmartCenter Server receive logs from all Security Gateways, when an active SmartCenter Server fails over?
A. The remote Gateways must set up SIC with the secondarySmartCenter Server, for logging.
B. Establish Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the primary and secondary Servers.
The secondary Server can then receive logs from the Gateways, when the active Server fails
over.
C. On the Log Servers screen (from the Logs and Masters tree on the gateway object's General
Properties screen), add the secondary SmartCenter Server object as the additional log server.
Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Create a Check Point host object to represent the standby SmartCenter Server. Then select
"Secondary SmartCenter Server" and Log Server", from the list of Check Point Products on the
General properties screen.
E. The secondary Server's host name and IP address must be added to the Masters file, on the
remote Gateways.
Answer: C
Question 8.
You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols, passing directly between end points.
Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for VPN-1 NGX?
A. VPN-1 Certificate Manager
B. SmartCenterServer
C. SmartLSM
D. Policy Server
E. Security Gateway
Answer: B
Question 10.
You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX.
Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?
A. CallManager
B. Gatekeeper
C. Gateway
D. Proxy
E. Transmission Router
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which statement is true regarding the EX-series file system?
A. Contents in the /var directory are automatically removed upon a successful software upgrade.
B. The file system must be cleaned manually after every upgrade.
C. Contents in the /var directory are automatically archived for future software rollbacks.
D. The file system must be cleaned manually before every upgrade.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)
A. All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.
B. The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.
C. The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.
D. The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the asterisk (*) indicate?
A. The interface is configure for PoE.
B. The interface receives untagged frames.
C. The interface is up and active.
D. The interface contains Layer 3 configuration.
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled in the factory-default configuration?
A. STP
B. PVST
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which statement is true for configuring a link aggregation group?
A. No more than 10 member links can belong to a link aggregation group.
B. Link duplex mode and speed must match within a link aggregation group.
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 interfaces can be mixed when creating a link aggregation group.
D. Member links cannot span multiple member switches within a virtual chassis.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which three statement describe benefits of bridging? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging allows mixed physical media types on a common LAN.
B. Bridging uses Layer 2 bridge tables to intelligently forward traffic towards its destination.
C. Bridging logically segments user groups based on administrative policy.
D. Bridging allows for the creation of multiple broadcast domains.
E. Bridging can reduce the number of collisions on a LAN.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
When configuring a redundant trunk group (RTG) on an interface, which restriction would apply?
A. The interface must be configured as a Layer 3 interface with an assigned IP address.
B. The interface cannot be configured as a Layer 2 trunk.
C. The gratuitous-ARP-reply must be disabled on the interface.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) cannot be configured on the interface.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which two commands are valid for verifying NTP operation? (Choose two.)
A. show ntp status
B. show ntp associations
C. show ntp synchronization
D. show ntp server
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
What describes the way the JUNOS software evaluates a route against a policy?
A. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the match clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in
the then clause and stops processing further terms.
B. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the
then clause and continues processing further terms if the accept action was specified.
C. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches any criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in
the then clause and stops processing further terms.
D. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the
then clause and stops processing further terms.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, in which configuration hierarchy would the block-stuff filter be defined?
A. [edit firewall family vlan]
B. [edit firewall family ethernet]
C. [edit firewall family ethernet-switching]
D. [edit firewall family inet]
Answer: C
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Question 1.
If you change the setting for the option cifs.neg_buf_size, you need to terminate CIFS on the storage appliance and do a restart for the changes to take effect.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 2.
If the client is a CIFS client, locks are _______.
A. advisory
B. mandatory
C. ordered
D. optional
Answer: B
Question 3.
To view per client NFS statistics on the storage appliance, options nfs.per_client_stats.enable must be turned on.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 4.
Three methods of creating a LUN are:
*lun setup
*lun map
*FilerView
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 5.
Applications, such as databases, running on NAS or iSCSI or FC SAN must be
A. prepared for snapshots by flushing buffers to disk and momentarily suspending activity.
B. disconnected from their storage resources during the snapshot.
C. using dynamic multipathing during a backup.
D. mirrored with a host-based volume manager to be backed-up.
Answer: A
Question 6.
To export volumes and directories automatically on reboot, include them in the /etc/exports file.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 7.
Using the output below, a co-worker determined that these are type "Solaris" LUNs.
What would your determination be?
lun show-m
LUN pathMapped to LUN ID
-----------------------------------------------
/vol/vol1/lun0 solaris-igroup0 0
/vol/Vol1/lun1 solaris-igroup1 0
/vol/Vol1/qtree1/lun2 solaris-igroup2 0
/vol/vol1/qtree1/lun3 solaris-igroup3 0
A. These are type "Solaris" LUNs.
B. These are NFS LUNs, but the exact OS cannot be determined.
C. Not enough information is given here. Run the lun show-v command to get the information
requested.
D. Not enough information is given here. Run the lun map command to get the information
requested.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which one of the following will enable "symlink_strict_security"?
A. options cifs.symIink_strict_security on
B. cifs shares -change -symlink_strict_security
C. options symlink_strict_security=true
D. options symlink_strict_security=on
Answer: B
Question 9.
To configure a storage system as a member of an active directory, the time on the storage system must be synchronized with the time on the Domain Controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 10.
The writeable snapshot that is created for a LUN clone depends on __________.
A. mirroring.
B. the snapshot taken at the time the clone was created.
C. exclusive access to the volume.
D. the data in the original LUN not changing.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A volume can contain up to___snapshots concurrently.
A. 125
B. 225
C. 255
D. Depends on capacity and number of disk drives
Answer: C
Question 2.
You can unlicense the cluster feature only in
A. normal, disabled
B. normal, enabled
C. takeover, disabled
D. takeover, enabled
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which one of the following keywords alone can be used to convert an asynchronous mirror to be synchornous?
A. cksum
B. src_con
C. sync
D. outstanding
Answer: C
Question 4.
What command would you enter to restore the /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc file from a snapshot to the /vol/flexvolO/home directory?
A. snap restore -r vol /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
B. snap restore -t /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
C. snap restore -t file -r /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
D. snap restore -s /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which three of the following configurations would increase data transfer rates for traditional volume SnapMirror?
A. The destination and source contain disks of the same size.
B. The destination and source contain RAID groups of the same size.
C. The destination and source storage appliances are no further than 30 meters apart.
D. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Correct; A, B, D
The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Correct; A, B, D
Answer: D
Question 6.
The snapvault update command is only available on the secondary system.
A. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups. Correct; A, B, D
B. True
C. False
Answer: A
Question 7.
What is the format for snapvault schedule?
A. YYYY-MM-DD
B. crontab format
C. cnt[@day_Hst][@hour_list]
D. List of dates in ISO Date format
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which one of the following commands is used to specify the destination appliance(s) that are allowed to replicate (pul data from the source appliance?
A. options snapmirror.allow
B. snapmirror release
C. snapmirror initialize
D. options snapmirror.access
Answer: D
Question 9.
Open System SnapVault agents can be installed on all non-Network Appliance platforms.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which one of the following statements apply to the Free Space Estimator utility?
A. This utility determines if there is sufficient space on the secondary volume to perform a transfer
B. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the primary to perform an
OSSV transfer
C. This utility run automatically after each transfer
D. This utility must be enabled on the secondary storage system
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Before launching the Application Publishing Wizard, what must be done to publish a package?
A. The package deployment schedule must be set.
B. The location of the package must be identified.
C. The target servers must be specified.
D. The package must be added to the Presentation Server Console.
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which two Health Monitoring and Recovery tests are enabled by default? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix SMA Service
B. Citrix XML Service
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix XTE Server Service
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
The administrator who installs the ADF packages on the target servers must have ______ and ______. (Choose the two phrases that complete the sentence correctly.)
A. administrative access to the network share point server
B. read access to the target servers
C. read access to the network share point server
D. administrative access to the target servers
E. read access to the packager server
F. administrative access to the packager server
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
A large medical research company ITCertKeys.com wants to reduce the high CPU usage on their servers in order to improve the user experience. Most users work with a web-based tool that is graphic-intensive. They work with files that need to be accessed from multiple locations and by multiple users so that researchers can access the files as they make their rounds through clinics.
What should the administrator implement to meet the company's requirements?
A. Application limits
B. Published desktops
C. Server-to-client content redirection
D. Client-to-server content redirection
Answer: C
Question 5:
The Citrix Administrator at a ITCertKeys.com plans on deploying a web-based cataloging application consisting of new items under development. The application includes JPEG images of product prototypes alongside detailed descriptions. This application will be accessed by a group of engineers from remote field sites with limited network bandwidth. This application will only be provided by means of a single set of servers running Presentation Server that will be deployed within the new server farm. Access to the data source is controlled so that data queries may originate only from the servers running Presentation Server. The JPEG images are large files and users require graphical detail even when using dial-up, wireless WAN, or other slow connections.
Which three SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration options should be configured at the server farm level? (Choose three.)
A. Determine when to compress
B. Enable SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
C. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to high
D. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to low
E. Use farm settings for SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com recently implemented Citrix Presentation Server. The company plans to use the shadowing feature to improve their help desk activities. Specifically, the company wants the help desk personnel to be able to shadow all users in the company's domain and manipulate their work stations remotely. For security and privacy reasons, the company wants to ensure that users must accept shadowing before help desk personnel can shadow them. During the Presentation Server installation, the administrator allowed shadowing but did not configure any settings for remote control or shadow acceptance. The administrator has just created a policy titled "Shadowing."
Which two steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit remote input when being shadowed.
B. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit being shadowed without notification.
C. Enable permissions for all help desk users and set status to allow.
D. Enable permissions for all users and set status to allow.
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
Which two statements are true when an administrator associates published applications with file types and then assigns them to users? (Choose two.)
A. All files of an associated type encountered in locally running applications are opened with
applications running on the server when users run the Program Neighborhood Agent.
B. The client passes the name of the published content file to the local viewer application when
users run the Program Neighborhood Agent.
C. Content published on servers is opened with applications published on servers when users
connect using the Program Neighborhood Agent.
D. The file type associations in the published applications are copied to the registry of the client
device when users connect using the Web Interface.
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
When configuring Virtual Memory Optimization, it is best to configure an optimization time ______________. (Choose the appropriate option to complete the sentence.)
A. when the administrator can manually monitor the process
B. that precedes a scheduled reboot
C. of high or maximum usage
D. of low or no usage
Answer: D
Question 9.
A network administrator at ITCertKeys.com created a policy for the Human Resources group called "HR standard" which restricts the users in that group from accessing their local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips, the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly. The administrator creates a new policy for the recruiters called "HR recruitment" and disables the rule which restricts access to the local drives.
Which two steps are required to ensure that the recruiters are able to access their local drives? (Choose two.)
A. Filter the HR recruitment policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access
B. Filter the HR standard policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access
C. Rank the HR recruitment policy higher than the HR standard policy
D. Rank the HR standard policy higher than the HR recruitment policy
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
A newly published web-based application calls a Java applet to support audio interaction with other users. The application requires Virtual IP in order to function properly. Users launched the published web browser successfully; however, only the first user on the server could initialize the audio portion. Other Java-based applications on the same servers functioned correctly.
Which option will best address this problem?
A. Remove the servers from the Virtual Loopback list and re-add them to read the new
configuration.
B. Increase the IP range for Virtual IP addresses to allow for the added users.
C. Configure the correct Java runtime path for Virtual IP loopback.
D. Add the entries directly to the registry instead of the Management Console to implement the
new Virtual IP configuration.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
A Citrix Access Gateway administrator at ITCertKeys.com creating logon points wants to enable pass-through authentication.
Which two authorization methods can be configured for pass-through authentication when configuring logon points? (Choose two.)
A. LDAP
B. RSA Security
C. Secure Computing
D. Active Directory
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
A Citrix Access Gateway administrator at ITCertKeys.com must take which two steps when creating a typical filter? (Choose two.)
A. Select endpoint analysis scan output in the filter.
B. Choose at least one condition to be included in the filter.
C. Provide a unique name for the filter.
D. Construct a logical expression for the filter.
E. Select an authentication profile for the filter.
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which two statements are true regarding licensing for a deployment that contains multiple Access Gateway appliances? (Choose two.)
A. One server is configured as the license server.
B. The primary gateway appliance serves as the license server.
C. The license server must be installed in the DMZ on a separate server.
D. Each gateway appliance must contain its own license.
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
Which type of filter should an administrator create if a filter that specifies a particular NOT logic condition must exist in order for access to be granted?
A. Exclusion filter
B. Negative filter
C. Typical filter
D. Custom filter
Answer: D
Question 5.
What are three settings that an administrator can configure per logon point for published applications? (Choose three.)
A. Window size
B. Clipboard mapping
C. Window color
D. Drive mapping
E. Printer mapping
F. Sound
Answer: A, C, F
Question 6.
From which node in the Access Management Console can an administrator configure event logging?
A. Server Farm node
B. Resource node
C. Gateway Appliances node
D. Servers node
Answer: A
Question 7.
A Citrix Access Gateway administrator at ITCertKeys.com wants to perform automatic drive mapping for clients who have a specific antivirus software installed after those clients log onto the network.
How can the administrator implement this through a connection policy?
A. By configuring "Run DRIVEMAP.EXE"
B. By enabling "Launch scripts" on the server
C. By configuring "Execute logon scripts"
D. By enabling "Connect drive"
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which two authentication methods can be implemented to provide Advanced Authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Smart Cards
B. LDAP
C. Secure Computing SafeWord PremierAccess
D. RSA Security SecurID
Answer: C, D
Question 9.
Which setting must be configured in a policy to grant privileges to an access server farm?
A. Allow Logon
B. Show Logon Resource
C. Show Local Farm
D. Permit Access Control
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which statement is true regarding Workspace Control?
A. Workspace Control is not supported if more than two Presentation Server farms are assigned
to a single logon point.
B. Users always have options to disconnect or keep launched applications when they are logged
off.
C. Only disconnected sessions can be reconnected.
D. Workspace Control can only be set per logon point.
Answer: D
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