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Question 1.
In the Manufacturing Sales Order Prefs window (Setup > Sales > Sales Order Proc > Extras > Manufacturing Sales Order Prefs) what are the MFG Order Status choices for an MO created by entering a Sales Order?
A. Open or Released
B. Quote/Estimate or Open
C. Firmed or Hold
D. Hold or Complete
Answer: A
Question 2.
When configuring an item, what happens when an item option is selected that is excluded by an earlier option selection?
A. An alert message will be displayed, telling you that the item selections are incompatible and
the user can continue adding other options
B. An alert message will be displayed, telling you that the item selections are incompatible and
the user cannot continue adding other options
C. An alert message will not be displayed and the user can continue adding other options
D. An alert message will not be displayed and the user cannot continue adding other options
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following Inquiry Windows will display MRP generated information? Choose the 4 that apply.
A. MRP View
B. MRP Workbench
C. MRP Quantity Pegging
D. MRP Item Inquiry
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 4.
CRP Released View for employee and machine in the CRP View Window includes which of the following manufacturing orders?
A. Open
B. Complete
C. Quote
D. Released
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following routing times are calculated on a per piece basis? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Setup Time
B. Labor Time
C. Machine Time
D. Queue Time
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
When a work center has been entered and saved which of the following statements are true?
A. The work center is assigned as a default
B. The work center is automatically excluded from MPP calculations
C. An inventory site record has been created
D. The work center is automatically assigned to all items
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the purpose of the BOM Security window?
A. Control who has access to the BOM Entry window
B. Ensure a bill of material will not be changed
C. Used to audit who made the last update to a BOM
D. Used to see who has a bill of material record currently in use or locked
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following is a valid order policy in Manufacturing? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Lot for Lot
B. Period Order Quantity
C. Manufacture Order Policy
D. Fixed Order Quantity
Answer: A, B, D
Question 9.
Which statement below best defines Fixed Quantity?
A. The quantity of the component item that is required for every manufacturing order, regardless
of the order quantity
B. The quantity of the component item that is required to make one finished good
C. The quantity of the finished good at the end of production
D. A fixed quantity can not be entered on the BOM
Answer: A
Question 10.
Before a bill of material can be used in manufacturing order entry, what dates will affect the use of this bill of material?
A. The system does not validate dates for bill of materials
B. The component in/out dates and MO end date
C. The BOM effective date and component in/out dates
D. The allocation dates on the pick list
Answer: C
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com has back-end databases that support HR+, MfgData+, and Outlook. If ITCertKeys.com decides to centralize the MfgData+ databases in New York, where should the Presentation Servers hosting the MfgData+ application be deployed?
A. The Presentation Servers hosting MfgData+ should be deployed in all locations.
B. The MfgData+ application should be deployed in Mexico City, Shanghai and Bangalore.
C. Servers hosting the MfgData+ application should be deployed in New York, Mexico City,
Shanghai and Bangalore.
D. Servers hosting MfgData+ should be deployed in New York.
Answer: B
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has recently deployed Active Directory on Windows 2003 and has asked for recommendations regarding OU structure, Terminal Services GPOs, and Terminal Services Licensing.
Why are only user-based Group Policies required?
A. This is determined by the location of the timeout settings.
B. User configuration Group Policies will satisfy the access requirements for the mission critical
applications.
C. Timeout settings must be applied to all user sessions to meet ITCertKeys.com's security
requirements.
D. Policies for Presentation Server can only be applied on the user level.
Answer: A
Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com currently has one Secure Gateway server deployed for access by remote users and has had no issues related to capacity. Secure access is high priority, so they have decided to upgrade to Access Gateway Advanced Edition. Based on the decision to implement two Access Gateway appliances in each data center that houses a Presentation Server zone and remove Secure Gateway from the implementation.
Why should Web Interface be deployed within the internal network?
A. By placing the Web Interface servers on the internal network port 443 does not have to be
opened.
B. This prevents internal users from having to traverse the DMZ to access Web Interface through
port 443 or port 80.
C. By placing the Web Interface servers on the internal network, external access can be limited to
the Access Gateway appliance through port 443.
D. This is the only way to avoid opening port 80 on the internal firewall.
Answer: A
Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com has decided that remote users will access the environment by means of Access Gateway 4.2 with Advanced Access Control. In addition, they have advised you that they would like to implement as many client types as possible to take advantage of seamless windows, as well as accessibility by means of Program Neighborhood Agent. In regard to the Presentation Server Client deployment.
Why is downloading from the ITCertKeys.com intranet site the best option?
A. All clients can be downloaded automatically.
B. All clients can be downloaded. Clients for Windows and Java download automatically.
C. Users have access to this source and can get clients.
D. Users can get the most up-to-date clients independently.
Answer: A
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com plans to allow some business partners, over whom they have no jurisdiction, access confidential published content that is specific to each vendor.
Which features of Access Gateway should they recommend to best maximize security?
A. To maximize security split tunneling, two-factor authentication, HTML Preview, and end-point
analysis features should be configured for the Access Gateway. Active Directory authentication
should be used, making it necessary that user account be created.
B. To maximize security split tunneling, two-factor authentication, HTML Preview, and end-point
analysis features should be configured for the Access Gateway. Users will access by means of
Active Directory guest accounts.
C. To maximize security split tunneling, SSL Client certificate, HTML Preview, and end-point
analysis should be configured for the Access Gateway. Active Directory authentication should
be used, making it necessary that user account be created.
D. To maximize security split tunneling, SSL Client certificate, HTML Preview, and end-point
analysis should be configured for the Access Gateway. Users will access by means of Active
Directory guest accounts.
Answer: C
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com plans to allow some customers, over whom they have jurisdiction, access to confidential published content that is specific to each vendor.
Which features of Access Gateway Advanced Edition should you recommend that best maximize the overall security for ITCertKeys.com's environment in a cost-effective manner?
A. Split tunneling, SSL client certificate, and endpoint analysis. Active Directory authentication
should be used, necessitating the need for the creation of user accounts.
B. Split tunneling, SSL client certificate, and endpoint analysis. Users will access by means of
Active Directory guest accounts.
C. Split tunneling, two-factor authentication, and endpoint analysis. Users will access by means of
Active Directory guest accounts.
D. Split tunneling, two-factor authentication, and endpoint analysis. Active Directory
authentication should be used, necessitating the need for the creation of user accounts.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which type of Terminal Services profile should be deployed?
A. Mandatory profiles with folder redirection
B. Mandatory profiles
C. Roaming profiles with folder redirection
D. Roaming profiles
Answer: C
Question 8.
ITCertKeys.com plans to implement Presentation Server for users in Shanghai.
Why should a static port be defined?
A. To avoid the unprecdictability of a dynamic port, a static port should be defined because it is
more secure.
B. By defining a static port, system resources can be conserved.
C. There is no other way to establish communication over firewalls other than defining a static
port.
D. A static port will allow for License Server communications to be more secure, this, this is
optimal.
Answer: D
Question 9.
How should ITCertKeys.com deploy required Citrix hot fixes?
A. All Citrix hot fixes should be deployed by means of the Access Suite Console. Testing should
be done.
B. Emergency hot fixes should be deployed through manual installation with limited
documentation. All other hot fixes should be deployed by means if Installation Manger with full
documentation.
C. All Citrix hot fixes should be deployed by means of Resource Manager. Testing should be
done.
D. All required hot fixes should be deployed by means of Installation Manager. Testing should be
done.
Answer: D
Question 10.
In regard to ITCertKeys.com's Advanced Access Control deployment.
Why should an Advanced Access Control web server be placed at this customer's location?
A. Adding an Advanced Access Control deployment enables the customer to incorporate their
own security standards.
B. Adding an Advanced Access Control deployment expedites administrative changes because
approval chain is closer to the customer.
C. Adding an Advanced Access Control web server will provide better load balancing across
existing hardware.
D. Adding an Advanced Access Control deployment makes administration more cost-effective for
the customer.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Based on the following output in ITCertKeys 1, which statement is true ITCertKeys 1#show mpls forwarding-table 50.0.0.3 detail Local Outgoing Prefix Bytes tag Outgoing Next Hop tag tag or VC or Tunnel Id switched interface 19 17 50.0.0.3/32 0 Et0/0 192.168.0.14 -------
A. None of the other alternatives apply.
B. If a labeled packet arrives with the top most label of 19, it will be replaced with label 17 and
sent out on Ethernet 0/0 interface.
C. If a labeled packet arrives with the top most label of 17, it will be replaced with label 19 and
sent out on Ethernet 0/0 interface.
D. If a labeled packet arrives with the top most label of 17, all the labels will be removed and a
clear IP packet is sent to Next Hop 192.168.0.14 on Ethernet 0/0.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Based on the following output in a router A running LDP, which statement is true? show mpls ldp bindings 50.0.0.1 32
tib entry: 50.0.0.1/32, rev 5
local binding: tag: imp-null
remote binding:tsr:50.0.0.4:0, tag:16
A. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to the non-directly connected LDP neighbor, 50.0..0.4.
B. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to its directly connected LDP neighbor, 50.0..0.4.
C. None of the other alternatives apply.
D. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to one of its own interfaces.
Answer: D
Question 3.
What OSPF LSA is used to support MPLS-traffic Engineering ?
A. Opaque LSA (Type 9 )
B. Opaque LSA (Type 10 )
C. NSSA LSA (Type 7 )
D. Opaque LSA (Type 11 )
E. External LSA (Type 5 )
Answer: B
Question 4.
What statement about Transit AS is true?
A. Traffic and prefixes originating from Source AS are carried across a Transit AS to reach their
destination AS.
B. None of the other alternatives apply.
C. Traffic and prefixes originating from Transit AS are carried across a Stub AS to their
destination AS.
D. Traffic and prefixes originating from Transit AS are carried across a Stub AS to their Source
AS.
Answer: A
Question 5.
In which state can BGP peers exchange Update messages?
A. Idle
B. OpenConfirm
C. OpenSent
D. Active
E. Established
Answer: E
Question 6.
Which of the following technologies can improve convergence time following a link failure in a service provider network?
A. VPLS
B. MPLS TE FR
C. RSVP
D. MPLS VPN
E. SNMP
F. BFD
Answer: B, F
Question 7.
A Successor is:
A. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination.
B. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination and whose reported distance equals
the feasible distance.
C. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition
D. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition and has the lowest cost path towards the
destination
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following processes in IOS XR run exclusively on the Route Processor?
A. gsp
B. wdsysmon
C. sysmgr
D. mpls_idp
E. bgp
Answer: D, E
Question 9.
In which of the following lists of APS Action Requests is the priority correctly arranged from lowest to highest?
A. Wait-to-Restore, Forced Switch, Manual Switch, Lockout of Protection.
B. Wait-to-Restore, Manual Switch, Forced Switch, Lockout of Protection
C. Wait-to-Restore, Manual Switch, Lockout of Protection, Forced Switch
D. Manual Switch, Wait-to-Restore, Lockout of Protection, Forced Switch.
E. Lockout of Protection, Forced Switch, Manual Switch, Wait-to-Restore
F. Lockout of Protection, Manual Switch, Forced Switch, Wait-to-Restore
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.)
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
B. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a brodcast network.
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router
becoming DIS.
D. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
E. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC
address becomes the DIS.
F. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9500-sfek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "sic"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "ips" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "system" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "kickstart"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "loader" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Compatibility check is done:
Module bootable impact install-type reason
--------- --------- ---------- ------- ----- ---------
2 yes non-disruptive rolling
3 yes disruptive rolling Hitless upgrade is not supported
5 yes non-disruptive reset
6 yes non-disruptive reset
Images will be upgraded according to following table:
Module Image Running-Version Net-Version Upg-Required
--------- ------- ---------- ----------- ------ ----------
2 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
2 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
3 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
3 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
6 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
6 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n]
What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?
A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The "rolling-upgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity
which could provide a "stable" upgrade.
E. No reason - the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 4.
In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN.
What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
Answer: C
Flow based load balancing : all frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
Question 5.
Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.
A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee
Answer: B, D
=> T11 for fiber channel, T10 for SCSI
Question 6.
What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092
Answer: B
=> user-specific VSAN 2-4093
Question 7.
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio
Answer: C
=> FCIP profile for TCP port, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
Question 8.
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS.
What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
Answer: D
=> interop mode 3 for Brocade 12000
Question 9.
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?
A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size
Answer: C
Question 10.
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?
A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The biggest benefit of using switches instead of hubs in your internetwork is that each switch port is actually its own collision domain. (Conversely, a hub creates one large collision domain.) But even armed with a switch, you still can't break up broadcast domains. Neither switches nor bridges will do that. They'll typically simply forward all broadcasts instead. Switch creates the collision domain per port, so we can say switch increase the number of collision domains.
Question 2.
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?
A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a
network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN.
Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice,
switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to
them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.
Question 3.
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each
frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports
than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic
remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating
additional, smaller collision domains.
Question 4.
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers
do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can
not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment.
D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default.
Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the
router level.
Question 5.
The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeysCorporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network.
Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN. Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.
Question 6.
Cisco is the leader in the router market space.
What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)
A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.
Question 7.
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN.
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Answer: B, E, F
Question 8.
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use.
Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
E. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
G. A modem is used to terminate a T1
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching is considered hardware-based bridging because it uses specialized hardware called an application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC). ASICs can run up to gigabit speeds with very low latency rates. Switches usually have higher port number then bridge. Generally bridges have two ports. Both operates on Data link layer.
Question 9.
The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network.
What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)
A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.
Question 10.
CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network.
What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)
A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.
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Question 1.
You need to implement QoS for the ITCertKeys VOIP network.
Which three statements are true about the data traffic characteristics of voice traffic? (Select three)
A. Voice packets require TCP for rapid retransmission of dropped packets.
B. Latency is not a concern as long as jitter is kept below 30 ms.
C. Voice packets require a fairly constant bandwidth reserved for voice control traffic as well as
for the voice payload.
D. Voice packets do not require a specific type of queuing.
E. Latency must be kept below 150 ms.
F. Voice packets are rather small
Answer: C, E, F
Explanation:
QoS refers to the ability of a network to provide improved service to selected network traffic over various underlying technologies including Frame Relay, ATM, Ethernet and 802.3 networks, SONET, and IP-routed networks.
QoS features provide improved and more predictable network service by offering the following services:
1. Dedicated bandwidth
2. Improved loss characteristics
3. Congestion management and avoidance
4. Traffic shaping
5. Prioritization of traffic
Voice quality is directly affected by all three QoS quality factors such as loss, delay, and delay variation.
Loss causes voice clipping and skips. Industry standard codec algorithms can correct for up to 30 ms of lost voice. Cisco Voice over IP (VoIP) technology uses 20 ms samples of voice payload per VoIP packet. Only a single Real Time Transport (RTP) packet could be lost at any given time. If two successive voice packets are lost, the 30 ms correctable window is exceeded and voice quality begins to degrade. Delay can cause voice quality degradation if it is above 200 ms. If the end-to-end voice delay becomes too long, the conversation sounds as if two parties are talking over a satellite link or a CB radio. The ITU standard for VoIP, G.114, states that a 150 ms one-way delay budget is acceptable for high voice quality. With respect to delay variation, there are adaptive jitter buffers within IP Telephony devices. These buffers can usually compensate for 20 to 50 ms of jitter.
Question 2.
ITCertKeys uses G.711 for the VOIP calls. When analog signals are digitized using the G.711 codec, voice samples are encapsulated into protocol data units (PDUs) involving which three headers? (Select three)
A. UDP
B. RTP
C. IP
D. TCP
E. Compressed RTP
F. H.323
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
When a VoIP device, such as a gateway, sends voice over an IP network, the digitized voice has to be encapsulated into an IP packet. Voice transmission requires features not provided by the IP protocol header; therefore, additional transport protocols have to be used. Transport protocols that include features required for voice transmission are TCP, UDP, and RTP. VoIP utilizes a combination of UDP and RTP.
Question 3.
VOIP has been rolled out to every ITCertKeys location.
What are three features and functions of voice (VOIP) traffic on a network? (Select three)
A. Voice traffic is bursty
B. Voice traffic is retransmittable
C. Voice traffic is time-sensitive
D. Voice traffic is bandwidth intensive
E. Voice traffic is constant
F. Voice traffic uses small packet sizes
Answer: C, E, F
Explanation:
The benefits of packet telephony networks include
i. More efficient use of bandwidth and equipment: Traditional telephony networks use a 64-kbps channel for every voice call. Packet telephony shares bandwidth among multiple logical connections.
ii. Lower transmission costs: A substantial amount of equipment is needed to combine 64-kbps channels into high-speed links for transport across the network. Packet telephony statistically multiplexes voice traffic alongside data traffic. This consolidation provides substantial savings on capital equipment and operations costs.
iii. Consolidated network expenses: Instead of operating separate networks for voice and data, voice networks are converted to use the packet-switched architecture to create a single integrated communications network with a common switching and transmission system. The benefit is significant cost savings on network equipment and operations.
iv. Improved employee productivity through features provided by IP telephony: IP phones are not only phones, they are complete business communication devices. They offer directory lookups and access to databases through Extensible Markup Language (XML) applications. These applications allow simple integration of telephony into any business application. For instance, employees can use the phone to look up information about a customer who called in, search for inventory information, and enter orders. The employee can be notified of a issue (for example, a change of the shipment date), and with a single click can call the customer about the change. In addition, software-based phones or wireless phones offer mobility to the phone user.
Question 4.
ITCertKeys is rolling out an H.323 VOIP network using Cisco devices.
Which IOS feature provides dial plan scalability and bandwidth management for H.323 VoIP implementations?
A. Digital Signal Processors
B. Call Routing
C. Gatekeeper
D. Call Admission Control
E. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Enterprise voice implementations use components such as gateways, gatekeepers, Cisco Unified CallManager, and IP phones. Cisco Unified CallManager offers PBX-like features to IP phones. Gateways interconnect traditional telephony systems, such as analog or digital phones, PBXs, or the public switched telephone network (PSTN) to the IP telephony solution. Gatekeepers can be used for scalability of dial plans and for bandwidth management when using the H.323 protocol.
Question 5.
A Cisco router is being used as a VOIP gateway to convert voice signals in the ITCertKeys network.
What steps are taken when a router converts a voice signal from analog to digital form? (Select two)
A. Quantization
B. Serialization
C. Packetization
D. Sampling
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Step 1 Sampling: The analog signal is sampled periodically. The output of the sampling is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.
Step 2 Quantization: The PAM signal is matched to a segmented scale. This scale measures the amplitude (height) of the PAM signal.
Step 3 Encoding: The matched scale value is represented in binary format.
Step 4 Compression: Optionally, voice samples can be compressed to reduce bandwidth requirements. Analog-to-digital conversion is done by digital signal processors (DSPs), which are located on the voice interface cards. The conversion is needed for calls received on analog lines, which are then sent out to a packet network or to a digital voice interface.
Question 6.
You need to implement the proper IOS tools to ensure that VOIP works over the ITCertKeys network.
Which queuing and compression mechanisms are needed to effectively use the available bandwidth for voice traffic? (Select two)
A. Priority Queuing (PQ) or Custom Queuing (CQ)
B. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. Low Latency Queuing (LLQ)
D. Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)
E. TCP header compression
F. UDP header compression
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
1. Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion.
CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight. By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
2. TCP/IP header compression subscribes to the Van Jacobson Algorithm defined in RFC 1144. TCP/IP header compression lowers the overhead generated by the disproportionately large TCP/IP headers as they are transmitted across the WAN. TCP/IP header compression is protocol-specific and only compresses the TCP/IP header. The Layer 2 header is still intact and a packet with a compressed TCP/IP header can still travel across a WAN link. TCP/IP header compression is beneficial on small packets with few bytes of data such as Telnet. Cisco's header compression supports Frame Relay and dial-on-demand WAN link protocols. Because of processing overhead, header compression is generally used at lower speeds, such as 64 kbps links.
Question 7.
You want to ensure the highest call quality possible for all VOIP calls in the ITCertKeys network.
Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?
A. G.711, PCM
B. G.729, CS-ACELP
C. G.729A, CS-ACELP
D. G.728, LDCELP
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a call is placed between two phones, the call setup stage occurs first. As a result of this process, the call is logically set up, but no dedicated circuits (lines) are associated with the call. The gateway then converts the received analog signals into digital format using a codec, such as G.711 or G.729 if voice compression is being used. When analog signals are digitized using the G.711 codec, 20 ms of voice consists of 160 samples, 8 bits each. The result is 160 bytes of voice information. These G.711 samples (160 bytes) are encapsulated into an RTP header (12 bytes), a UDP header (8 bytes), and an IP header (20 bytes). Therefore, the whole IP packet carrying UDP, RTP, and the voice payload has a size of 200 bytes. When G.711 is being used, the ratio of header to payload is smaller because of the larger voice payload. Forty bytes of headers are added to 160 bytes of payload, so one-fourth of the G.711 codec bandwidth (64 kbps) has to be added. Without Layer 2 overhead, a G.711 call requires 80 kbps.
Question 8.
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs four separate steps.
From the options shown below, which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding
quantization
optional compression
sampling
B. optional compression
encoding
sampling
quantization
C. sampling
quantization
encoding
optional compression
D. optional compression
sampling
encoding
quantization
E. sampling
quantization
optional compression
encoding
F. encoding
optional compression
quantization
sampling
G. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step 1 Sampling: The analog signal is sampled periodically. The output of the sampling is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.
Step 2 Quantization: The PAM signal is matched to a segmented scale. This scale measures the amplitude (height) of the PAM signal.
Step 3 Encoding: The matched scale value is represented in binary format.
Step 4 Compression:
Optionally, voice samples can be compressed to reduce bandwidth requirements. Analog-to-digital conversion is done by digital signal processors (DSPs), which are located on the voice interface cards. The conversion is needed for calls received on analog lines, which are then sent out to a packet network or to a digital voice interface.
Question 9.
ITCertKeys has determined that during its busiest hours, the average number of internal VoIP calls across the WAN link is four (4). Since this is an average, the WAN link has been sized for six (6) calls with no call admission control.
What will happen when a seventh call is attempted across the WAN link?
A. The seventh call is routed via the PSTN.
B. The call is completed, but all calls have quality issues.
C. The call is completed but the seventh call has quality issues.
D. The call is denied and the original six (6) calls remain.
E. The call is completed and the first call is dropped.
F. None of the above.
Answer: B
Explanation:
IP telephony solutions offer Call Admission Control (CAC), a feature that artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls to prevent oversubscription of WAN resources. Without CAC, if too many calls are active and too much voice traffic is sent, delays and packet drops occur. Even giving Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets absolute priority over all other traffic does not help when the physical bandwidth is not sufficient to carry all voice packets. Quality of service (QoS) mechanisms do not associate individual RTP packets with individual calls; therefore, all RTP packets are treated equally. All RTP packets will experience delays, and any RTP packets may be dropped. The effect of this behavior is that all voice calls experience voice quality degradation when oversubscription occurs. It is a common misconception that only calls that are beyond the bandwidth limit will suffer from quality degradation. CAC is the only method that prevents general voice quality degradation caused by too many concurrent active calls.
Question 10.
While planning the new ITCertKeys VOIP network, you need to determine the size of the WAN links to use. To do this, you need to calculate the bandwidth required by each call.
Which three pieces of information are used to calculate the total bandwidth of a VoIP call? (Select three)
A. The serialization of the interface
B. The quantization
C. The TCP overhead
D. The packetization size
E. The UDP overhead
F. The packet rate
Answer: D, E, F
Explanation:
Packet rate: Packet rate specifies the number of packets sent in a certain time interval. The packet rate is usually specified in packets per second (pps). Packet rate is the multiplicative inverse of the packetization period. The packetization period is the amount of voice (time) that will be encapsulated per packet, and is usually specified in milliseconds.
Packetization size: Packetization size specifies the number of bytes that are needed to represent the voice information that will be encapsulated per packet. Packetization size depends on the packetization period and the bandwidth of the codec used.
IP overhead: IP overhead specifies the number of bytes added to the voice information during IP encapsulation. When voice is encapsulated into Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and IP, the IP overhead is the sum of all these headers.
Data link overhead: Data-link overhead specifies the number of bytes added during data-link encapsulation. The data-link overhead depends on the used data-link protocol, which can be different per link.
Tunneling overhead: Tunneling overhead specifies the number of bytes added by any security or tunneling protocol, such as 802.1Q tunneling, IPsec, Generic Route Encapsulation (GRE), or Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS). This overhead must be considered on all links between the tunnel source and the tunnel destination.
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Question 1.
Which two characteristics of optical networks data to be transmitted over extremely long distances? (Choose two.)
A. No electromagnetic interference (EMI)
B. Minimal signal loss
C. No bandwidth limits
D. No encryption
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
What is a wide-area network (WAN)?
A. A network that is restricted to a single building, a group of buildings, or even a single room
B. A network that connects client devices wirelessly using radio waves
C. A network that crosses metropolitan, regional or national boundaries
D. A network that encompasses an entire city or metropolitan area and connects multiple local-
area networks (LANs)
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which IP telephony component provides call processing, such as signaling that in a traditional voice network is provided by switching equipment, such as a PBX?
A. Voice gateways, such as the Cisco VG248 analog phone gateway
B. Call-management hardware and software, such as Cisco Call Manager
C. Client-based software, such as Cisco SoftPhone
D. Advanced call-handling software, such as Cisco Unity
Answer: B
Question 4.
A software engineering firm wants to streamline call center operations to reduce customer wait times and improve employee productivity.
Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP Telephony
B. DSL
C. WLAN
D. Optical Network
Answer: A
Question 5.
A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet to the company extranet.
Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP telephony
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C. Content Networking
D. Wireless network
Answer: B
Question 6.
What creates an encrypted tunnel through a shared public network infrastructure, such as the Internet to provide a secure connection between remote users and a private network?
A. VPN
B. HTTP
C. DSL
D. Optical Networking
Answer: A
Question 7.
What does a router do?
A. Reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location
and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)
B. Stores data on network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network
(WAN)
C. Routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-
area network (WAN)
D. Broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and
wide-area network (WAN)
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which device is used in wireless networks to send transmission to a target area?
A. Directional Antenna
B. Optical fiber
C. Omni-directional antenna
D. Access point
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which wireless local-area network (WLAN) device is often used to make wireless connections between buildings or campuses?
A. Access Point
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Client Adapter
Answer: B
Question 10.
On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communications system reside?
A. A single, joined voice, video and data network
B. Voice networks only
C. Wireless networks only
D. Data networks only
E. Independent voice, video and data networks
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A
Question 4.
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
Question 5.
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimise the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimise salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration
Management Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B
Question 8.
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
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Question 1.
You need to propose the most cost-effective licensing solution for Courseware Publishers.
What should you do? (Choose TWO.)
A. Propose that the company obtain user client access licenses (CALs).
B. Propose that the company obtain device client access licenses (CALs).
C. Propose that the company obtain Windows Server 2003 licensed in Per User mode.
D. Propose that the company obtain Windows Server 2003 licensed in Per Server mode.
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
You need to propose the best licensing solution for Courseware Publishers.
What should you do?
A. Propose license acquisition through an Open Business agreement.
B. Propose license acquisition through an Open Volume agreement.
C. Propose license acquisition through a Select License agreement.
D. Propose license acquisition through an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel.
Answer: A
Question 3.
You are busy sorting out the licensing for the computers at Courseware Publishers.
You need to determine which computers at Courseware Publishers are qualified desktops.
Which of the following would be qualified desktops?
A. All computers and mobile devices.
B. All computers that the company uses for work purposes and are able to run enterprise
products.
C. All computers that are bought by the company during the term of its licensing agreement.
D. All computers that are running a Microsoft Windows operating system.
E. Not the computers that are running as a server, computers running line-of-business software
only, and systems running an embedded operating system.
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
The owner of Courseware Publishers wants to know which license agreement offers downgrade rights in case the company wants to downgrade CP-SR01.
What would you reply?
A. All agreements on Select License agreements, Open License agreements and Software
Assurance agreements.
B. Only Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses.
C. Small Business Server Client Access Licenses and Open License agreements.
D. User client access licenses, Open License agreements and Software Assurance agreements.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The Courseware Publishers CEO wants to know what the main factors are that would require the company to change its licensing acquisition process.
What would you reply?
A. Budget considerations and licensing management concerns.
B. The upgrading to Windows Server 2003.
C. The need to hire two additional full-time employees and licensing management concerns.
D. The upgrading to Windows Server 2003 and Access 2003 and the desktops to Office 2003
Professional.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Should Courseware Publishers acquire license through an Open Business agreement that includes Software Assurance, how much time will the company have to renew only the Software Assurance agreement once the Open Business agreement expires.
A. 10 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
B. 60 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
C. 90 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
D. 2 months after the Open Business agreement expires.
E. 6 months after the Open Business agreement expires.
Answer: C
Topic 2, City Central, Inc., Scenario
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has a customer named City Central, Inc.
Company Background
City Central, Inc is a 10 year old company provides personnel placement for small businesses. The company currently has 50 employees that are spread across four departments named Sales, Marketing, Recruitment and Finance. The company is currently experiencing an annual growth rate of 10% and expects this to continue over the next five years.
Due to the expected growth of the company, City Central, Inc has hired an IT administrator named Clive Wilson. Clive Wilson will evaluate the current network environment and will develop a plan to support the company's expected growth.
Existing Network
The City Central, Inc network contains three Microsoft Windows NT Server 4.0 server computers named CC-SR01, CC-SR02 and CC-SR03 and 60 client computers. CC-SR03 is configured as a Mail server that runs Microsoft Exchange Server.
Hardware and software for the client computers have been added as required by each department with no centralized control. The client computer distribution is as follows:
* The Recruitment department has 20 Windows XP Professional client computers that run Microsoft Office XP Professional. These client computers were purchased a year ago.
* The Sales department has 15 Windows 98 client computers that run Microsoft Office 97.
* The Marketing department has 21 Windows 98 client computers that do not meet the minimum requirements for Windows XP Professional or Microsoft Office 2003
Professional.
* The Finance department has 4 Windows 98 client computers that run third-party finance application. The third-party finance application cannot run on Windows 2000 Professional or Windows XP Professional.
Current Licensing Solution
Clive Wilson cannot identify the ownership of the software that is in use as the purchase records for the current software are incomplete.
Business Goals
City Central, Inc wants greater control over IT costs but also wants to stay up to date with the latest software.
The company wants to replace CC-SR01, CC-SR02 and CC-SR03 with one server named CC-SR04. CC-SR04 will run Microsoft Small Business Server 2003. The company also wants to standardize the client computers, except those in the Finance department, to Windows XP Professional and Office 2003 Professional.
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