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I need updated dump, can any one update this site with new one
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Question 1.
What are three [3] functions of the Clone Private LUN?
A. Keep track of modified extents of Source LUNs and Clones
B. Stores fracture log for synchronization or reverse synchronization
C. Enable incremental synchronization upon starting an Out-of-Sync Clone LUN
D. Allow continuance of synchronization operation of a Clone upon a failed SP.
E. Store host write data from Source when Clone is fractured from Source LUN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
What are three [3] features that the PowerPath GUI provides to users?
A. Change theCLARiiON SP from active to standby.
B. Change the failover policy of a LUN.
C. Change aCLARiiON path from active to standby.
D. Change a host adapter from standby to active.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Monitors health of SAN
B. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
C. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
D. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
How are a production LUN and its clone(s) related?
A. Clone Private LUN.
B. Persistent fracture log.
C. Clone Group relationship.
D. Storage Group relationship.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
B. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
C. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
D. Monitors health of SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: C, D, E
Question 6.
What is the maximum number of Clone Private LUNs allowed on a CLARiiON CX Series array?
A. 50
B. 1
C. 25
D. 2
E. 100
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is a feature of the Write Intent Log (WIL)?
A. Used to minimize recovery in the event of a failure of the Primary array.
B. Tracks changes on the Primary LUN and synchronizes changes with the Secondary LUN when
reachable.
C. Is a volatile log which tracks changes to the Primary LUN during aFracture
D. Captureswrites to the Secondary LUN and release those changes when the Secondary is
promoted as Primary.
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the default stripe element size for a five disk RAID 5 CLARiiON LUN?
A. 8 blocks
B. 32 blocks
C. 128 blocks
D. 64 blocks
E. 16 blocks
Answer: C
Question 9.
For which three [3] databases can VisualSRM provide table level detail?
A. SQLserver
B. Sybase
C. mySQL
D. Oracle
E. Informix
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
What are the steps, in order, for configuring a Brocade switch for Web management?
Answer:
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Question 1.
When data is written to a SnapView source LUN, at what point are the data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool?
A. During synchronization
B. Every time data is changed on the source
C. Every time write cache is flushed
D. When source data is changed for the first time
Answer: D
Question 2.
What are the primary goals of an optimization engagement?
A. Avoid future problems, reduce complexity, enable high availability
B. Fix existing problems, avoid future problems, reduce costs
C. Fix existing problems, improve utilization, increase efficiency
D. Reduce costs, reduce complexity, increase efficiency
Answer: D
Question 3.
What does Inter-Switch Link trunking do?
A. Allows ports on the same blade to be used for ISL
B. Enables ISL between switches to reach up to 200 km distances
C. Prohibits a port from becoming an E_Port for fabric security
D. Aggregates the bandwidth of multiple ISLs
Answer: D
Question 4.
After a Data Mover failover, how is the failback operation performed?
A. Automatically
B. Data Mover failover is not supported
C. Manually
D. Recovery is not needed until another failure occurs
Answer: C
Question 5.
A customer implemented BCVs with mirrors for use with the most critical business volumes. The standard volumes were established with the BCVs at the start of the day, but later in the day the customer discovered data corruption.
Which action would enable a restore from uncorrupted BCV volumes?
A. Differential Split
B. Instant Split
C. Protected Restore
D. Reverse Split
Answer: D
Question 6.
You are giving a presentation to a customer about EMC virtualization products. They specifically ask about file storage virtualization.
Which EMC product enables file storage virtualization using industry-standard protocols and mechanisms in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Invista
B. Rainfinity
C. RecoverPoint
D. Vmware
Answer: B
Question 7.
An EMC ControlCenter customer is a United States Department of Defense contractor. The contractor needs to show that there is controlled user access to devices and to the modification of these devices. This will allow the contractor to provide proof of compliance and accountability.
Which security feature of EMC ControlCenter should you discuss with the contractor to satisfy this requirement?
A. Data collection policy (DCP)
B. EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS) Gateway
C. Role-based access control (RBAC)
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Answer: C
Question 8.
Your customer is experiencing write performance problems on a RAID 5 LUN used for backup todisk on its CX3 array. The LUN has been placed on ATA drives. The customer has determined that it would like the LUN on Fibre Channel drives instead. The customer has requested you provide the best option to alleviate this performance problem, keeping downtime to a minimum.
What action would you recommend?
A. Create a new LUN on fibre drives and restore the data from tape to the new LUN.
B. Implement a newer array and use MirrorView to migrate the data.
C. Use Dynamic Virtual LUN functionality to move the LUN from ATA to fibre drives.
D. Use SnapView to make a clone of the LUN on fibre drives and assign the LUN to the
appropriate storage group.
Answer: C
Question 9.
A customer has a CX3-80 for Exchange and a critical OLTP database application. Over the last month, during monthly batch processing, users complain of slow response times.
Which solution will you recommend to solve this issue?
A. Access Logix
B. Performance Manager
C. Navisphere Quality of Service Manager
D. StorageScope
Answer: C
Question 10.
For reporting purposes, which source provides data for the ETL process to populate the StorageScope repository?
A. EMC ControlCenter Repository
B. Host Agents
C. Master Agents
D. Store
Answer: A
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Question 1. What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.) A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth Answer: A, D Question 2. Using drag and drop, match each record type with its correct definition. Answer: Question 3. What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server? A. nisinit -a B. update all ASCII source files C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start Answer: B Question 4. Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it? A. NFS v4 B. Unified File Cache C. Memory-Mapped Access D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM) Answer: D Question 5. Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot? A. /sbin/init.d/net B. /sbin/init.d/named C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind Answer: C Question 6. Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)? A. SASL B. attribute mapping C. configuration profile D. service search descriptors Answer: B Question 7. What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product? A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf Answer: A Question 8. When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf? A. IPsec B. IPfilter C. TCP wrappers D. Security Advisor Answer: C Question 9. Which command prints out the network routing table? A. netstat B. nwmgr C. ifconfig D. lanscan E. lanadmin Answer: A Question 10. Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network? A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which function does the Onboard Administrator perform in the BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. configures and troubleshoots the server blade
B. manages connections to the interconnect modules
C. activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
D. automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software
E. drives all management features through the Inter-Integrated Circuit (I2C) and Intelligent
Chassis Management Bus (ICMB) interfaces
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Which options properly power down a c-Class blade server? (Select two.)
A. Use the virtual power button selection through iLO2.
B. Remove the c-Class blade server from the enclosure.
C. Use the virtual power button selection through RILOE II.
D. Switch off the power supplies on the back of the c7000 enclosure.
E. Press and hold the Power On/Standby button for more than 4 seconds.
Answer: A, E
Question 3.
What happens if you install extra fans in bays of a c7000 BladeSystem enclosure in such a way that they do not meet the next higher fan rule?
A. The enclosure will shut down.
B. The new fans will spin up and run at full speed.
C. The red LED will start blinking on the new fans.
D. The new fans will be marked with location errors.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which LED indicator shows a fan failure?
A. solid blue
B. solid red
C. solid green
D. solid amber
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is the correct way of removing an active cool fan from a c-Class enclosure?
A. Lift the handle upwards and pull the fan from the enclosure.
B. Turn the handle on the fan counterclockwise and remove the fan.
C. Remove the four screws securing the fan and lift it out of the enclosure.
D. Remove the power connector from the fan and lift the fan out of the chassis.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which port on a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure serves as a service port for temporary connection to a PC?
A. USB port
B. serial port
C. enclosure link-up port
D. enclosure link-down port
Answer: C
Question 7.
Exhibit:
You want to enable direct FC SAN connectivity on a c7000 enclosure.
Where must you install the primary fabric switch?
A. Position 6
B. Position 18
C. Position 21
D. Position 22
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which features are available in Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) Advanced? (Select three.)
A. monthly OS update and patch downloads
B. real-time hardware event monitoring and automated notification to the HP 3rd level support
C. event management and fault detection to enhance Support Point of Presence (SPOP)
availability
D. comprehensive enterprise view of open incidents, history, installed clients, client status, and
contact information
E. convenient central point of administration through an HP owned and maintained Support Point
of Presence (SPOP) server installed at the customer site
Answer: C, D, E
Question 9.
Which HP service offering provides a two-hour response time for software issues and a four-hour response time for hardware issue resolution?
A. Proactive 24
B. HP Support Plus
C. HP Support Plus 24
D. Software Plus Support Service
Answer: A
Question 10.
What should a customer do before calling for service during the warranty period?
A. Install the ISEE software to automatically log the event.
B. Order a Care Pack online to have service on the same day.
C. Download the maintenance and service guide for the server.
D. Run diagnostics and install the latest firmware, drivers and patches.
Answer: D
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Question 1. When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file? A. .INI B. .TXT C. .QFL D. .VBS Answer: C Question 2. What are the categories in the Step Generator? A. Object, Operation, Value B. Library, Built-in, Local Script C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions Answer: D Question 3. In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet? A. Local B. Global C. Run-time Data Table D. Design-time Data Table Answer: B Question 4. What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions? A. A Do Loop B. Recovery Scenario C. IFHEN statement D. Selectase statement Answer: B Question 5. In which command can you associate a function library to a test? A. Run Options B. Test Settings C. View Options D. Function Definition Generator Answer: B Question 6. Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action? A. Action Settings B. Action Properties C. Action Run Settings D. Action Call Properties Answer: D Question 7. Where do you mark an action as reusable? A. Action Settings B. Action Properties C. Action Run Settings D. Action Call Properties Answer: B Question 8. After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output parameter be found? A. Local DataSheet B. Global DataSheet C. Run-time Data Table D. Design-time Data Table Answer: C Question 9. If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must you do? A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings B. Remove the Collection from your machine C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list Answer: C Question 10. Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data Table during a test run? A. Value B. Import C. GetCell D. GetValue Answer: A
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Question 1.
After running /usr/sbin/pwck, the following output is displayed:
smbnull:*:101:101::/home/smbnull:/sbin/sh
Login directory not found
What should you do to tighten the security?
A. Nothing - it is a valid system user ID.
B. Nothing - it is used by CIFS/Samba to represent "nobody" with a positive UID.
C. Edit the /etc/passwd entry to specify a dummy login directory and a false login shell.
D. Delete it from /etc/passwd. Opensource Samba installs it by default and it is not required on
HP-UX.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which chatr syntax enables buffer overflow protection on a per-binary basis?
A. chatr +b enable
B. chatr -es enable
C. chatr +es enable
D. chatr +bo enable
E. chatr +es default
Answer: C
Question 3.
What is the effect of the coreadm -e global-setid command?
A. edits the core dump file
B. reads and interprets the core dump file
C. enables the kernel for system crash dumps
D. enables setuid/setgid core dumps system wide
E. causes all running setuid programs to generate a core file
Answer: D
Question 4.
Identify ways HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) can protect a system against poorly designed applications. (Select three.)
A. PRM can limit the amount of memory applications may consume.
B. PRM can limit the amount of swap space applications may consume.
C. PRM can limit the amount of disk bandwidth applications may consume.
D. PRM can limit the amount of CPU resources applications may consume.
E. PRM can limit the amount of network bandwidth applications may consume.
F. PRM can limit the number of inbound network connections to configured applications.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 5.
What is a limitation of HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) as it applies to Denial of Service (DoS) attacks?
A. Processes must be grouped before they can be managed.
B. PRM does not perform memory capping; only entitlement and selection.
C. PRM only applies to time-shared processes; real-time processes are not affected.
D. PRM requires a separate configuration file for time-shared and real-time processes.
Answer: C
Question 6.
After running kctune executable_stack=2, what happens if MyProg executes code from the stack?
A. MyProg continues running without incident.
B. MyProg is killed before a single instruction can be executed.
C. MyProg continues, but logs a warning to /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log.
D. MyProg continues, but a warning message is logged to the kernel message buffer.
Answer: D
Question 7.
You used the dmesg command to display the warning shown in the exhibit.
Which kernel parameter setting makes this warning message appear?
A. kill_overflow is set to 1
B. exc_stack_code is set to 0
C. buffer_overflow is set to 1
D. executable_stack is set to 0
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which benefits does chroot provide to an application from a security perspective? (Select three.)
A. forces an application to start in a specified directory
B. allows the users to do a cd above the specified directory
C. prevents an application from starting in a specified directory
D. prevents the users from doing a cd above the specified directory
E. allows the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
F. prevents the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
Answer: A, D, E
Question 9.
Which commands configure an application to operate within a secure compartment? (Select two.)
A. privrun
B. privedit
C. setrules
D. cmdprivadm
E. setfilexsec
Answer: D, E
Question 10.
Some open source software tools use the /usr/local/sbin and /usr/local/src directories.
What should you do with the /usr/local directory to maintain a secure system?
A. Verify that /usr/local and its subdirectories are not world writable.
B. Remove /usr/local/bin and /usr/local/sbin from the user's PATH variable.
C. Set permissions on /usr/local and its subdirectories to 047 so all users have access.
D. Use the swlist -l file | grep /usr/local command to see all files installed in those directories.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.5
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
Question 2.
What are three methods for managing a Juniper Enterprise Router? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. SDX
C. SAP
D. J-Web
E. J-Config
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
Which IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network using Juniper enterprise routers?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which configuration statement allows local non-root users access to the router only when the RADIUS server is unreachable?
A. [edit]
system {
authentication-order radius;
}
B. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius password ];
}
C. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius if-authenticated ];
}
D. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius local ];
}
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two statements about the Adaptive Services PIC are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Adaptive Services PIC supports the Layer 3 service package by default.
B. The Adaptive Services PIC is required when using the secure shell to access an M-series
router.
C. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for the Layer 2 and Layer 3 service packages
simultaneously.
D. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for either the Layer 2 or the Layer 3 service
package but not both at the same time.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What are two benefits of MLPPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cost-efficient solution when incrementing bandwidth.
B. Provides for fail over when the primary link goes down.
C. Evenly distributes traffic over participating member links.
D. Guarantees that the link will remain up during failure scenarios.
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router?
A. Monitor
B. Manage
C. Diagnose
D. Configuration
Answer: B
Question 8.
How are multiple policies evaluated within the JUNOS software?
A. alphabetically
B. as an ordered list
C. in a round robin manner
D. numerically from lowest to highest
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which statement is true about accessing a Juniper enterprise router using a Web browser?
A. J-series routers are accessible by default.
B. M7i and M10i routers are accessible by default.
C. You need to install a license before accessing a J-series router.
D. You need to enable the HTTP service on M7i, M10i, and J-series routers before accessing
them.
Answer: A
Question 10.
What are two ways to create a rescue configuration on a J-series router? (Choose two.)
A. Use the J-Web System > Rescue menu.
B. Use the J-Web Configuration > Rescue menu.
C. Issue the configure rescue save command.
D. Issue the request system configuration rescue save command.
Answer: B, D
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Question 1.
Which three of these are Cisco ASA syslog message fields? (Choose three.)
A. syslog community string
B. message.text
C. triggering packet copy
D. logging device ip
E. default ASA gateway
F. logging level
Answer: B, D, F
Question 2.
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys .com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
What does the inspect http HTTP_TRAFFIC command do in this policy map?
A. It adds HTTP traffic inspection to the OUTSIDE_POLICY policy map
B. It adds HTTP traffic limits to the OUTSIDE_POLICY policy map
C. It adds HTTP traffic inspection on TCP port 8080 to the OUTSIDE_POLICY policy map
D. It adds HTTP traffic inspection to the inspection-default global class map
Answer: A
Question 3.
An Administrator wants to protect a DMZ web server from SYN Flood attacks.
Which three of these commands, used individually would allow the administrator to place limits on the number of embryonic connections? (choose three.)
A. http redirect
B. nat
C. http-proxy
D. static
E. set connection
F. access-list
Answer: B, D, E
Question 4.
Which three of these are Cisco ASA syslog message fields? (Choose three.)
A. triggering packet copy
B. message.text
C. syslog community string
D. logging level
E. default ASA gateway
F. logging device ip
Answer: B, D, F
Question 5.
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. An administrator wants to permanently map host addresses on the DMZ subnet to the same host addresses, but a different subnet on the outside interface.
Which command or commands should the administrator use to accomplish this?
A. access-list server_map permit tcp any 192.168.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 nat(outside) 10 access-list
server_map global (dmz) 10 172.16.1.9-10 netmask 255.255.255.0
B. static (dmz,outside) 192.168.10.0 172.16.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0
C. nat (dmz) 1 172.16.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 global (outside) 1 192.168.10.9-10 netmask
255.255.255.0
D. NAT (dmz) 0 172.16.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0
Answer: C
Question 6.
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys .com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
This adaptive security appliance is configured for which two types of failover? (Choose two.)
A. Stateful Failover
B. LAN-Based Failover
C. Active/Standby Failover
D. Active/Active failover
E. Context/Group failover
F. Cable-based failover
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
Which these commands displays the status of the CSC SSM on the Cisco ASA?
A. show module 1 CSC details
B. show hw 1 details
C. show module 1 details
D. show interface GigabitEthernet 1/0
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which command both verifies that NAT is working properly and displays active NAT translations?
A. show nat translation
B. show running-confugration nat
C. show ip nat all
D. show xlate
Answer: D
Question 9.
The Cisco VPN Client supports which three of these tunneling protocols and methods? (Choose three.)
A. AH
B. LZS
C. IPSec over TCP
D. IPSec over UDP
E. SCEP
F. ESP
Answer: C, D, F
Question 10.
What does the nat 0 command do?
A. The nat 0 command, followed by an access list, specifies the addresses that are not to be
translated
B. The nat 0 command, followed by a range of IP Addresses, specifies the addresses that are to
be translated using network address translations
C. The nat 0 command, followed by a range of IP Addresses, specifies the addresses that are to
be translated when used for IPSec
D. The nat 0 command, followed by an access list, specifies the addresses that are to be used in
translations only once
Answer: A
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Question 1.
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.166.10.0.
Which IP address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.166.10.4
B. 192.166.10.5
C. 192.166.10.6
D. 192.166.10.7
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which derault administrator group has delete permissions?
A. admin
B. help-desk
C. add-edit
D. full-control
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is the result when the condition statement in a Cisco NAA check for required software evaluates to false on a client machine?
A. The required software is automatically downloaded to the user device.
B. The required software is made available after the user is quarantined.
C. The user is put in the unauthenticated role and the software is considered missing.
D. The user is placed in the temporary role and the software is made available.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which three components comprise a Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose three.)
A. a NAC-enabled Cisco router
B. a Linux server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
C. a Linux server for centralized management of network admission servers
D. a Cisco router to provide VPN services
E. a read-only client operating on an endpoint device
F. a NAC-enabled Cisco switch
Answer: B, C, E
Question 5.
Drag the default username from the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
Question 6.
Drag each feature of a Cisco NAC Appliance solution from the left to its correct benefit on the right.
Answer:
Question 7.
When configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules?
A. retrieve updates
B. require the use of the Cisco NAA
C. configure session timeout and traffic policies
D. map rules to requirement
E. configure requirements
Answer: E
Question 8.
When logging in to a Cisco NAC Appliance solution, an end user is prompted for a username, password, and provider.
What should be entered in the Provider drop-down field shown in the exhibit?
A. the authenticating NAS
B. the authorizing NAM
C. the name of the ISP
D. the external authenticating server
Answer: D
Question 9.
What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose two.)
A. IP-based
B. peer-based
C. host-based
D. manager-based
E. server-based
F. VLAN-based
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug-in did not access any of its dependent plug-ins.
What did you forget to do?
A. enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form
B. configure dependent plug-in support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus
plug-in rule
C. install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
D. load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in Updates form
Answer: D
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