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Question 1. Which two attributes are copied for a CREATE TABLE from a subquery to the table being created? (Choose two.) A. data types B. FALLBACK option C. column-level attributes D. primary index E. CHECK constraints Answer: A, C Question 2. Which three features are associated with join indexes? (Choose three.) A. a pre-aggregation of a single base table B. the pre-join of multiple tables using INNER JOIN C. the pre-join of multiple tables using FULL OUTER JOIN D. a replicated subset of a single base table Answer: A, B, D Question 3. You want to generate three mutually exclusive sample sets from a customer table. SELECT customer_id, age, income, SAMPLEID FROM customer_table Which clause needs to be added to complete the task? A. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 ; B. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 WITH REPLACEMENT ; C. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 ; D. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 WITH REPLACEMENT ; Answer: C Question 4. Consider the table t1 created as follows: CREATE TABLE t1 ( a integer, d date, v varchar(100)) PRIMARY INDEX (a) PARTITION BY RANGE_N(d BETWEEN DATE '2001-01-01' AND DATE '2005-12-31' EACH INTERVAL '7' DAY); and the query: SELECT v FROM t1 WHERE d = DATE '2004-03-16'; Which plan does the Optimizer use to find qualifying rows? A. full table scan on a single AMP B. single partition scan on every AMP C. value lookup on every AMP D. hash lookup on each AMP E. single partition scan on a single AMP Answer: B Question 5. If neither RANGE_N nor CASE_N are used to define the number of partitions, how many partitions will the Optimizer assume? A. 255 B. 0 C. 32767 D. 1 E. 65535 Answer: E Question 6. Which two statements are true concerning parameters within a stored procedure? (Choose two.) A. Parameters and their attributes are always stored in the Data Dictionary. B. Parameters can be used to build a dynamic SQL statement. C. Parameters can be altered using the FORMAT clause. D. Parameters can include status variables such as ACTIVITY_COUNT. Answer: A, B Question 7. Which two tools can be used to alter database objects to improve workload performance? (Choose two.) A. Teradata System Emulation Tool (TSET) B. Teradata Visual Explain C. Teradata Statistics Wizard D. Teradata Index Wizard Answer: C, D Question 8. Which three are attributes of an Active Data Warehouse? (Choose three.) A. high availability B. tactical queries C. complex queries D. expanding batch windows Answer: A, B, C Question 9. Which join plan makes use of a primary index on each of two tables with matching partitioned primary indexes (PPIs)? A. rowkey-based merge B. nested C. exclusion merge D. rowhash merge Answer: A Question 10. You are evaluating the possible use of a hash index on a multi-terabyte table. Which two factors complicate the implementation of a hash index on such a table? (Choose two.) A. A partitioned primary index (PPI) is defined on the table. B. A large number of users access the table. C. Triggers are defined on the table. D. The maintenance job for the table is MultiLoad. Answer: C, D
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Question 1.
The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the
request.
Answer: B
Question 3.
In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A
Question 4.
How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and
relationships
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <>
B. <>
C. <
Braindumps: Dumps for 1D0-538 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "1D0-538" Exam
Object Oriented Analysis and Design Test (JCERT)
Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following are TRUE about the activity diagram?
Exhibit:
A. Alerting management of a conflict and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
B. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
C. A CourseSection can be added to the CourseCatalog with just department approval.
D. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done in any order.
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Which one of the following OOAD artifacts would be MOST useful in helping to plan the content of iterations in a project plan?
A. CRC cards.
B. Collaboration diagrams.
C. Use cases.
D. State diagrams.
Answer: C
Question 3.
An Interaction Diagram should be associated with:
A. a Use Case.
B. a State Transition Diagram.
C. an Activity Diagram.
D. a CRC card.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. A Course Section can be added to, deleted from and retrieved from a Course Schedule.
What is the BEST way to model the relationship between a Course Schedule and a Course Section?
Exhibit:
A. CourseSchedule is defined as a subclass of a Collection type and inherits the adding, deleting
and retrieving capabilities for CourseSections.
B. CourseSchedule delegates the management of CourseSections to Student.
C. CourseSchedule delegates the adding, deleting and retrieving of the CourseSections to a
collection it holds.
D. CourseSection has a number attribute by which it can identify the CourseSchedule to which it
belongs.
Answer: C
Question 5.
When considering OOAD artifacts and the resulting software, how far should one be able to trace specific user requirements?
A. Interaction diagrams
B. Use cases
C. Class diagrams
D. Public methods
E. Private methods
Answer: D
Question 6.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following is the BEST list of candidate interaction diagrams to directly or indirectly support the use case?
Exhibit:
A. Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, Cancel an order, View a
portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
B. Manage accounts, Handle deposits and withdrawals, Trade stocks, View a portfolio, Get a
quote, View a quote.
C. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a
stock, View a portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
D. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit by wire, Receive a deposit by check,
Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Successful log on, Failed log on, Log off, View a
quote.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Refer to the exhibits to answer the question.
Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to the Event Planning class diagram? A Facility:
Exhibit:
Exhibit:
A. can get to a particular Seat by type of Seat.
B. may find a Seat when accessing by number.
C. may get multiple Seats back when accessing by price.
D. can access Seats by price or by Seat number.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 8.
The following are the requirements for a Report-generation module in an application:
1. When new data is generated, the user-interface should be refreshed automatically to reflect the
latest values
2. Multiple view types are possible
Which of the following Model and View interactions BEST satisfies the above requirements?
A. Combine the view and model layers into a single entity so that the interactions are localized
and notifications are instantaneous.
B. Establish subscribe/notify mechanism between view and model, with the model updating the
view based upon the view type.
C. Establish a subscribe/notify mechanism between the view and model layers so that the views
get notified of the change.
D. Develop intelligence within the model so that it decides which views are to be refreshed based
on the view type.
Answer: C
Question 9.
The developer should be able to trace a class' public operations back to its:
A. public attributes.
B. associations.
C. states.
D. responsibilities.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Suppose there is a new requirement to keep track of which instructors teach what courses and sections as well as students' evaluations of the instructor. A new Instructor class has just been added.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling the information and processing requirements?
Exhibit:
A. Add an association class called TeachingAssignment between CourseSection and Instructor.
Add the new attributes and methods in TeachingAssignment.
B. Add the new attributes and methods in Instructor.
C. Add the new attributes and methods in CourseSection.
D. Add an association relationship between CourseSection and Instructor. Add some new
attributes and methods in CourseSection and some in Instructor.
Answer: A
Braindumps: Dumps for 70-262 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "70-262" Exam
Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 - Implementing, Managing, and Troubleshooting
Question 1.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 in the forest. The company's written security policy states that all instant messaging (IM) communications must be archived. You install and configure Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service. You need to configure the components that will be archived.
Which component or components should be archived? (Choose all that apply.)
A. IM communications between internal users
B. IM communications between internal users and federated partners
C. audio and video communications between internal users
D. audio and video communications between internal users and federated partners
E. file transfers between internal users
F. file transfers between internal users and federated partners
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory domain. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the domain. A user named Susan changes her last name. Susan's last name is changed in Active Directory. However, her new last name is not found by using the Find feature of Microsoft Office Communicator 2005. You discover that you can find Susan by searching on her previous last name. You need to ensure that users can immediately find Susan by searching on her new last name.
What should you do?
A. Restart the Address Book Service (ABS).
B. Run the Replmon.exe tool to force Active Directory replication.
C. Run the Abserver.exe tool with the syncnow parameter on the Address Book Service (ABS)
server. Instruct all users to sign out of Office Communicator and then sign in again.
D. Run the Gpudate.exe tool with the sync parameter on the server running Live Communications
Server 2005. Then restart the server.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 on a server named Server1 in the forest. Server1 is configured to communicate over TCP. Your company wants to support an additional Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) namespace. You create a DNS SRV record for the new namespace. You need to allow all users to sign in to Server1 by using the new SIP namespace.
What should you do?
A. Change all users' e-mail addresses to use the new namespace.
B. Add the new namespace to the list of supported SIP domains.
C. Add the new namespace to the list of User Principal Name suffixes.
D. Add the new namespace to the Host Authorization list.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool with multiple front-end servers in the forest. Live Communications Server 2005, Access Proxy runs on a server named Server2. Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service runs on a server named Server3. Server3 runs Microsoft SQL Server 2000 with Service Pack 4. The company's written security policy states that all instant messaging (IM) communications must be archived for auditing purposes. You need to ensure that all IM communications are archived.
What should you do?
A. Install Microsoft SQL Desktop Engine (MSDE) on all front-end servers.
B. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on Server2. Enable and configure the archiving
agent on Server2.
C. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on all front-end servers. Enable and configure the
archiving agent on all front-end servers.
D. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on one front-end server. Enable and configure the
archiving agent on that front-end server.
Answer: C
Question 5.
Your company's network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
Live Communications Server 2005 is deployed in the forest.
Users in na.contoso.com can locate users in na.contoso.com and sales.na.contoso.com by using the Search for a contact feature of Microsoft Office Communicator 2005. Users in asia.contoso.com cannot locate users in asia.contoso.com and research.asia.contoso.com by using the Search for a contact feature of Office Communicator.
You need to ensure that users in each domain can use the Search for a contact feature to locate users in all domains. You want to ensure that no additional rights are granted.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. On contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command to add na.contoso.com and asia.contoso.com.
B. On na.contoso.com and sales.na.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the
usersonly parameter to add asia.contoso.com.
C. On na.contoso.com and asia.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly
parameter to add contoso.com.
D. On research.asia.contoso.com and research.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with
the usersonly parameter to add na.contoso.com.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You are preparing to perform routine maintenance on one of the servers in the Enterprise pool. You need to ensure that services are not disrupted for users homed on the Enterprise pool.
What should you do?
A. Stop the Live Communications Server service on the front-end server that requires
maintenance.
B. Stop the MSSQLSERVER service on the back-end database server for Live Communications
Server 2005.
C. Create a new Enterprise pool. Move all users to the new pool.
D. Back up the existing Enterprise pool. Create a new Enterprise pool. Restore all users to the
new pool.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory domain named fabrikam.com. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the domain. The Address Book Service (ABS) is published to a network file share. You need to provide the Microsoft Office Communicator 2005 clients with the location of the ABS files.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Create an SRV record for _ABSInsideURL._TCP.fabrikam.com.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that specifies the location of the ABS files. Link the GPO
to the fabrikam.com domain object.
C. Configure the Enterprise pool to specify the location of the ABS files.
D. Configure the Office Communicator client on each user's computer to point to the ABS server
as the sign-in server.
Answer: B, C
Question 8.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You configure Live Communications Server 2005 to archive all instant messaging (IM) communications. You discover that IM communications for users in the accounting department are not being archived. You confirm that IM communications for users in other departments are being archived. You need to ensure that all IM communications are archived.
What should you do?
A. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard. Select the Configure Archiving option.
Select Use Default Archiving Settings.
B. Associate the front-end servers of the Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool with
a new Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service.
C. Run the Move Live Communications Users Wizard. Move the accounting users to a different
pool that is configured for archiving.
D. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the organizational unit (OU) holding the domain
object. Grant the accounting users Read-Write permissions on the Live Communications
Server 2005, Archiving service computer objects.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You configure Live Communications Server 2005 to archive all instant messaging (IM) communications. The company's written security policy states that all IM communications must be archived. IM communications that are sent by the users in the finance and legal departments must include the full IM communication. IM communications that are sent by users in the sales and marketing departments require only the usage data. All user accounts are stored in organizational units (OUs) for their respective department. You need to ensure that the archiving requirements are met.
What should you do?
A. Edit the Global Properties archiving settings. Select the Do not archive message body check
box.
B. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Sales and Marketing OUs.
Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Archive Without Message Content option.
C. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Finance and Legal OUs. Select
the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Use Default Archiving Settings option.
D. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Sales and Marketing OUs.
Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Use Default Archiving Settings option.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 and Live Communications Server 2005, Access Proxy in the forest. Archiving is configured to store all instant messaging (IM) communications. The company's written security policy states that internal users must be notified, upon initiation of each IM session, that the communication will be archived. You need to ensure that the Microsoft Office Communicator 2005 client is configured to meet this requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Warning Text GPO setting and enter the
appropriate notification text. Link the GPO to the domain object.
B. On the Access Proxy, select the Enable archiving disclaimer notification to federated users
check box.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Interactive logon: Message text for users
attempting to log on GPO setting and enter the appropriate notification text. Link the GPO to
the domain object.
D. Create a new tab for the Office Communicator client that connects to the company's internal
Web site that defines the company's archiving policy.
Answer: A
Braindumps: Dumps for 70-351 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "70-351" Exam
Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2006, Configuring
Question 1.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to generate daily and monthly reports. ISA1 publishes the reports to a folder named IsaReports. You
generate custom reports to indicate user activity during the weekends of the last three months. The reports for the last five weekends display correct data. However, reports for previous weekends cannot be displayed. Only monthly activity summary reports are available for previous months. You need to provide custom reports that show the actual activity for all the weekends during the last three months.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Microsoft Data Engine (MSDE) database log files to be saved for 130 days.
Restore the MSDE database log files from backup for the last three months.
B. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Restore the log summary files from backup
for the last three months.
C. Delete the log summary files. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Disable and
then re-enable log summary reports.
D. In the IsaReports folder, create a new folder for each of the weekends. Copy the respective
daily report files for each day of a weekend into their corresponding folders.
Answer: A
Question 2.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 has two network adapters. Access rules allow users on the Internal network to have HTTP access to the Internet. You add a third network adapter to ISA1 and connect the third network adapter to a perimeter network.
You place a Web server named WebServer2 on this perimeter network segment. WebServer2 must be accessible to computers on the Internal network. You create a computer object for WebServer2 and then create an access rule that allows Internal network clients HTTP access to WebServer2.
Users are not required to authenticate with ISA1 to access WebServer2. Users report that they cannot access information on WebServer2. When they attempt to access the Web site, they receive the following error message: Error Code 10060: Connection timeout. Background: There was a time out before the page could be retrieved. This might indicate that the network is congested or that the website is experiencing technical difficulties. You need to ensure that users on the Internal network can access information on WebServer2. First, you verify that WebServer2 is operational.
What should you do next?
A. Create a network rule that sets a route relationship between the Internal network and the
perimeter network.
B. Create a server publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network.
C. Create a Web publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network.
D. Create an access rule that allows WebServer2 access to the Internal network.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. The IP address bound to the external network adapter of ISA1 is 192.168.100.141. You run the netstat Cna command on ISA1. The relevant portion of the output is shown in the following table.
You need to be able to quickly verify whether ISA1 is allowing traffic to TCP port 139.
What should you do?
A. From a remote computer, run the pathping command to query ISA1.
B. From a remote computer, use a port scanner to query ISA1.
C. On ISA1, use the Portqry.exe tool to query ISA1.
D. On ISA1, use the Netdiag.exe tool to query ISA1.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine (MSDE 2000) database logging is enabled on ISA1. ISA1 is configured with 512 MB of RAM and a single 60-GB hard disk. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You need to identify the source of the slow performance.
Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Memory\Pages/sec
B. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
C. MSSQL$MSFW:Databases(*)\Transactions/sec
D. MSSQL$MSFW:MemoryManager\Target Server Memory (KB)
E. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length
F. Physical Disk\Split IO/sec
Answer: A, E
Question 5.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 provides Internet access for all users on the companys network. All computers on the network are configured as SecureNAT clients. You create an access rule on ISA1 that allows all users access to all protocols on the External network. You view the Firewall log and the Web Proxy filter log on ISA1 and notice that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are not displayed. You need to ensure that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are displayed in the ISA1 log files.
What should you do?
A. Configure all network computers as Web Proxy clients.
B. Configure all network computers as Firewall clients.
C. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for Web requests.
D. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for all protocols.
Answer: D
Question 6.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to publish two Web sites named www.fabrikam.com and www.contoso.com. Both Web sites are located on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server1. The IP address of Server1 is 10.0.0.2.
The Web publishing rules are configured as shown in the following display.
Both the www.fabrikam.com/info and www.contoso.com/info virtual directories point to a common file share. The default log view does not allow you to easily distinguish between requests for www.fabrikam.com/info and requests for www.contoso.com/info. A sample of the log with the relevant entries is shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the log viewer displays the fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) for the Web site requests. In addition, you need to filter the log viewer to display only the requests for both the www.contoso.com/info and the www.fabrikam.com/info virtual subdirectories.
What should you do?
A. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to 10.0.0.2. Configure each
Web publishing rule to use the FQDN of its respective Web site on the To tab. In the log
viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text
string info.
B. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to the external IP address
of ISA1. Configure each Web publishing rule so that requests appear to come from the original
client computer. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name. In the log
viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text
string info.
C. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first
condition so that the Rule equals Web Publish 1. Configure the second condition so that the
Rule equals Web Publish 2. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host
name.
D. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first
condition so that Server contains Fabrikam. Configure the second condition so that Server
contains Contoso. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name.
Answer: B
Question 7.
You install ISA Server 2006 on a computer that has three network adapters. One of the network adapters is connected to the Internet, one is connected to the Internal network, and one is connected to a perimeter network. The perimeter network adapter and the internal network adapter are connected to private address networks. You configure ISA Server by applying the 3-Leg Perimeter network template. You run the 3-Leg Perimeter Network Template wizard. You then make the following changes to the firewall policy:
• Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the Internet.
• Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the perimeter
network.
• Create an access rule to allow SMTP traffic from an SMTP server on the perimeter network to a
Microsoft Exchange Server computer on the Internal network.
• Create a server publishing rule to allow SMTP traffic from the External network to the SMTP
server on the perimeter network.
Users report that they cannot receive e-mail messages from users outside of the Internal network. You need to allow users to receive e-mail messages from other users on the Internet. You do not want to create a server publishing rule.
What should you do?
A. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network
and the Internal network to Route.
B. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network,
perimeter network, and External network to Route.
C. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network
and the External network to NAT.
D. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network,
perimeter network, and External network to NAT.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You suspect that insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance of ISA1. You need to verify whether insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance.
Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Memory\Pages/sec
B. Process(W3Prefch)\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
C. ISA Server Cache\Memory Usage Ratio Percent (%)
D. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length
E. ISA Server Cache\Disk Write Rate (writes/sec)
F. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is connected to the Internet. VPN access is configured to ISA1. RADIUS is configured as the only type of authentication for VPN connections. All remote users can connect to ISA1 by using a VPN connection.
All internal users can connect to the Internet. You are replacing ISA1 with a new ISA Server computer named ISA2. You export the network-level node configuration settings on ISA1 to a file named ISAconfig.xml. You import the ISAconfig.xml file on ISA2. You replace ISA1 with ISA2 on the network. Remote VPN users report that they cannot authenticate to gain access to the network. Internal network users report that they cannot connect to the Internet. You need to configure ISA2 to allow incoming and outgoing access for company users.
What should you do?
A. Export the system policy configuration settings on ISA1 to an .xml file. Import the .xml file on
ISA2.
B. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported
configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
C. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include user permission settings in the
exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
D. Export the VPN Clients configuration on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported
configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1, which runs Windows Server 2003. ISA1 has three network adapters. Each adapter is connected to one of the following: Internal network, perimeter network, and Internet. All administrative hosts exist in the Internal network. You create a file named C:\Alerts\NetworkAlert.cmd. The NetworkAlert.cmd uses net.exe to send the following message to all administrative computers: Problem with network connectivity on ISA1.
You enable the default Network configuration changed alert. You add a custom alert named Network Connectivity. The properties of the Network Connectivity alert are configured as shown in the Alert Events exhibit and the Alert Actions exhibit.
You test the Network Connectivity alert by disabling the ISA1 network adapter that is connected to the perimeter network. You see the corresponding alert in both the Alerts view and the application log of Event Viewer. However, the message is not received on any of the administrative computers.
You need to ensure that the administrative computers receive the text message when the Network Connectivity alert is triggered. You also need to be able to test the alert by disabling the perimeter network adapter on ISA1.
What should you do?
A. Disable the default Network configuration changed alert.
B. Enable and start the messenger service and the alert service on ISA1 and on your
administrative computer.
C. On ISA1, configure the DisableDHCPMediaSense entry with a value of 1.
D. Configure the Network Connectivity alert actions to run NetworkAlert.cmd by using an account
that has the Log on as a batch job right.
Answer: A
Braindumps: Dumps for E20-040 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "E20-040" Exam
EMC Technology Foundations
Question 1.
Name the Celerra software feature which creates a remote synchronous copy of production file systems at a remote location.
A. SnapSure
B. Celerra TimeFinder/FS
C. Celerra SRDF
D. Celerra Checkpoint
Answer: C
Question 2.
State the function of Centera Viewer for the System Administrator.
A. Create and manage volumes
B. Develop and maintain filesystem structure
C. Verify data authenticity
D. Monitor capacity and performance
Answer: D
Question 3.
Explain how free space is maintained in CLARiiON write cache.
A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations
B. Cache is flushed using three algorithms: Idle, Watermark and Forced
C. Cache is flushed only during read operations
D. Cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes
Answer: B
Question 4.
Explain how cache is allocated in a CLARiiON array.
A. track
B. partition
C. page
D. segment
Answer: C
Question 5.
How much space must be set aside in the array for the SnapView Clone Private LUN (CPL), per CLARiiON Storage Processor?
A. CPL must be same size as Source LUN
B. 256MB
C. 128MB
D. 64 MB
Answer: C
Question 6.
In addition to EMC arrays, name the other arrays which are supported by PowerPath.
A. NETAPP FAS980
B. IBM ESS(Shark)
C. IBM DS800
D. Sun StorEdge A5200
Answer: B
Question 7.
Explain what an iSCSI naming convention is.
A. DNS
B. CHAP
C. EUI
D. DHCP
Answer: C
Question 8.
Name two [2] features of Celerra Replicator.
A. Only sends changed data over the IP network
B. Synchronous data recovery
C. Point-in-time copy over IP network
D. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
Answer: C, D
Question 9.
Name the failover mode which is provided by Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy.
A. Real-time adaptive copy
B. Full duplex asynchronous
C. Real-time semi-synchronous
D. Real-time synchronous
Answer: D
Question 10.
Name a characteristic of cache memory on a CLARiiON array with cache enabled on the SP.
A. Page size is set for the array
B. Write cache is not mirrored
C. Page size is set for each LUN
D. Write cache is always mirrored
Answer: D
Braindumps: Dumps for E20-322 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "E20-322" Exam
Technology Architect Solutions Design
You are designing an EMC ControlCenter solution for a new customer to reduce the overall storage and management costs. ITCertKeys.com wants to manage and report on 50 large servers, 200 medium servers, 4 DMX arrays, 10 CLARiiON arrays, 1 HDS 9960 array, and 1 Celerra Gateway. All systems are located in one datacenter.
What are design considerations for this ControlCenter infrastructure?
A. Network latency, host agents, array agents, network firewalls
B. Network firewalls, host agents, array agents, tape agents
C. Network firewalls, host agents, database agents, network switch type
D. Network latency, host agents, array agents, tape agents
Answer: A
Explanation:
From the EMC ControlCenter Performance and Scalability Guidelines, 5.2 SP3
Network latency is a critical design factor, since large latencies can cause significant performance problems.
Key Control Center Design Considerations:
1. How many Sites, at what distance? (latency)
2. What sort of Firewalls separate the ControlCenter components? (Firewalls)
3. Is more than one network used?
4. Are FQDNs used?
5. What user rules/roles are needed?
6. How will users access the s/w? (Java Console can not be used through NAT)
7. What "off hours" are available for data collection?
8. How "current" must data views be?
Reference: Storage Resource Management Solution Design Concepts
Question 2.
An HP-UX 9000/800 host currently uses multi-pathed storage provisioned from a Symmetrix 8830. All LUNs are presented to the host application using Veritas Volume Manager. The storage array is being replaced by a DMX1000. This will require a data migration effort. The host is running several 24x7 applications and needs to be online during the migration. Two approaches are being considered: host-based mirror/split of the Veritas volumes or array-based SRDF.
What is a disadvantage of using host-based volume mirroring for the migration?
A. Consumes host CPU cycles and I/O resources; this could adversely impact applications
B. Could result in corrupted filesystems with write-intensive workloads during the migration
C. Requires lots of internal disks, where writes are buffered until initial sync is complete
D. The volume copy process requires four block writes for every block read
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Array-based SRDF does not use CPU cycles for copy or host I/O processes, whereas host –
based utilities do.
B. While potentially possible, this is not the best answer.
C. Not true, Veritas volume manager is handling SAN-attached disk currently
D. This depends upon RAID type.
Question 3:
ITCertKeys.com requested that you provide the number of physical disks required to support its Microsoft Exchange 2003 Storage Groups. ITCertKeys.com has 12,500 users at 1.2 IOPS. At peak activity, up to 10,000 users could be logged on to Exchange.
What other information is required to accurately calculate the number of required disk spindles to meet the user IOPS requirements?
A. Read/write ratio and write penalty
B. Size of user mailbox, RAID type and disk speed
C. Public folders location and deleted item retention period
D. Size of user mailbox, read penalty and RAID type
Answer: B
Explanation:
Key phrase is "to meet user IOPS requirements" [(IOPS x %R) + WP (IOPS x %W)] ÷ Physical disk Speed = Required # physical disks
Question 4.
What are the major characteristics of a tactical solutions design engagement?
A. Provides a scalable, repeatable and standardized change control process to achieve
transparent and successful implementations in the customer environment
B. Fixes specific issues identified in the storage infrastructure and recommend new strategies
and practices
C. Closes the gap between a current storage infrastructure and specific needs for process or
technology optimization and/or new technology features and functionality
D. Suggests business-enabling changes to storage infrastructure to accommodate growth,
change in business requirement or directions, or optimizing TCO
Answer: C
Explanation:
A - Refers to Enterprise Management Maturity (EMM) model level
B - Operational engagement
C - Tactical engagement
D - Strategic engagement
Question 5.
What is the goal of an operational solutions design engagement?
A. Business-enabling changes to storage infrastructure to accommodate growth, change in
business requirement or direction, or optimize TCO
B. Close the gap between a current storage infrastructure and specific needs for process or
technology optimization and/or new technology features and functionality
C. Fix specific issues identified in the infrastructure and recommend new strategies and practices
D. Identify operational process maturity and recommend efficiency improvements
Answer: C
Explanation:
A - Strategic engagement
B - Tactical engagement
C - Operational engagement
D - tactical
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com is interested in an SRM solution for its Storage environment. The environment is distributed over two data centers, which are 500KM apart with a network latency of less than 100ms between the two sites. The environment consists of:
120 Servers (A mix of Windows and Solaris Servers)
14 ED 64M Switches
6 Symmetrix DMX1000 Arrays
2 CLARiiON CX600 Arrays
1 Celerra NS600
The SRM Solution should be able to report on and perform configuration tasks on all the storage arrays. The solution should also be able to on the file level details on all the servers.
Which SRM Solution will satisfy ITCertKeys.com requirements?
A. ControlCenter, StorageScope, StorageScope FLR and Celerra Manager
B. VisualSAN, VisualSRM, Celerra Manager and Navisphere Manager
C. ControlCenter, StorageScope, StorageScope FLR and Navisphere Manager
D. ControlCenter, VisualSRM, Navisphere Manager and Celerra Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
With Symmetrix, need ControlCenter (Provides Volume and system-level reporting, Storage device management, and SAN device utilization reporting) With Celerra, need Celerra Manager Either VisualSRM or Storage FLR can give file level details (and are virtually interchangeable from a Design, Installation and Usage perspective)
Question 7.
You are designing a NAS solution for ITCertKeys.com. It will involve adding an NSX with four X-Blades to an existing CX700. ITCertKeys.com has two ports on each SP to dedicate to the NSX.
Which disk layout best practice should influence your design?
A. Restrict filesystems to a single DAE
B. Avoid striping Celerra filesystems across LUNs of different RAID types
C. Use CLARiiON metaLUNs to increase performance
D. The CLARiiON has a limitation of 256 LUNs per SP port
Answer: B
Explanation:
A - This is not a best practice; file system can cross DAEs
B - This is a best practice for Celerra
C - This is not a best practice; it is better to use AVM
D - This does refer to a best practice
Question 8.
You are planning the storage requirements for an Exchange 2003 server. The server supports 750 users in a single Exchange Storage Group (ESG) with five databases. You need to calculate the capacity required for the ESG. ITCertKeys.com has indicated that the average user mailbox will be 125MB. The anticipated growth is expected to be 20%.
What other factors need to be considered to calculate the required capacity?
A. Read/write ratio and write penalty
B. Size of PST, RAID type and disk speed
C. Public folders location and deleted item retention period
D. Log size, read penalty and RAID type
Answer: C
Explanation:
A - relates to IOPS (performance) more than capacity (size)
B - PSTs are not part of the Exchange database
C - Deleted item retention period will affect capacity
D - Log size will affect capacity, but can be calculated (10% of IOPS calculation * number days log files are kept)
Question 9.
ITCertKeys.com is planning to implement a new CX700 with SnapView for its Windows environment. The client is deciding if it should use Dynamic Disks or metaLUNs for its file systems.
What benefit will the client gain by choosing metaLUNs instead of Dynamic Disks? "
A. Dynamic file system growth
B. SnapView scripting is simplified
C. Improved performance with striping
D. Less drive letters required
Answer: B
A - this would be a benefit of Dynamic disks. (Basic disks can still be expanded using Dispart command line)
B - If dynamic disks are used for striping, then SnapView scripts have to account for the underlying LUNs. With MetaLuns, the snapview script only has to account for the metalun; the array masks the component luns from Snapview.
C - Performance can be affected by striping in either scenario
D - The same number of drive letters would be required
Question 10.
Which Celerra technology should you propose to ITCertKeys.com to reduce the amount of time spent creating NAS filesystems?
A. CDMS
B. AVM
C. VDM
D. NSCAP
Answer: B
A - CDMS is Celerra Data Migration Services (not related to ongoing creation of NAS filesystems)
B - AVM, Automatic Volume Manager; system used by Celerra to allow for easy and efficient creation of File Systems and their underlying storage containers (volumes)
C - VDM is a Virtual Data Mover (not related to ongoing creation of NAS filesystems)
D - NSCAP, Network Storage Capacity Audit Process (not related to ongoing creation of NAS filesystems)
Braindumps: Dumps for E20-500 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "E20-500" Exam
EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam
Question 1.
When data is written to a SnapView source LUN, at what point are the data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool?
A. During synchronization
B. Every time data is changed on the source
C. Every time write cache is flushed
D. When source data is changed for the first time
Answer: D
Question 2.
What are the primary goals of an optimization engagement?
A. Avoid future problems, reduce complexity, enable high availability
B. Fix existing problems, avoid future problems, reduce costs
C. Fix existing problems, improve utilization, increase efficiency
D. Reduce costs, reduce complexity, increase efficiency
Answer: D
Question 3.
What does Inter-Switch Link trunking do?
A. Allows ports on the same blade to be used for ISL
B. Enables ISL between switches to reach up to 200 km distances
C. Prohibits a port from becoming an E_Port for fabric security
D. Aggregates the bandwidth of multiple ISLs
Answer: D
Question 4.
After a Data Mover failover, how is the failback operation performed?
A. Automatically
B. Data Mover failover is not supported
C. Manually
D. Recovery is not needed until another failure occurs
Answer: C
Question 5.
A customer implemented BCVs with mirrors for use with the most critical business volumes. The standard volumes were established with the BCVs at the start of the day, but later in the day the customer discovered data corruption.
Which action would enable a restore from uncorrupted BCV volumes?
A. Differential Split
B. Instant Split
C. Protected Restore
D. Reverse Split
Answer: D
Question 6.
You are giving a presentation to a customer about EMC virtualization products. They specifically ask about file storage virtualization.
Which EMC product enables file storage virtualization using industry-standard protocols and mechanisms in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Invista
B. Rainfinity
C. RecoverPoint
D. Vmware
Answer: B
Question 7.
An EMC ControlCenter customer is a United States Department of Defense contractor. The contractor needs to show that there is controlled user access to devices and to the modification of these devices. This will allow the contractor to provide proof of compliance and accountability.
Which security feature of EMC ControlCenter should you discuss with the contractor to satisfy this requirement?
A. Data collection policy (DCP)
B. EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS) Gateway
C. Role-based access control (RBAC)
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Answer: C
Question 8.
Your customer is experiencing write performance problems on a RAID 5 LUN used for backup todisk on its CX3 array. The LUN has been placed on ATA drives. The customer has determined that it would like the LUN on Fibre Channel drives instead. The customer has requested you provide the best option to alleviate this performance problem, keeping downtime to a minimum.
What action would you recommend?
A. Create a new LUN on fibre drives and restore the data from tape to the new LUN.
B. Implement a newer array and use MirrorView to migrate the data.
C. Use Dynamic Virtual LUN functionality to move the LUN from ATA to fibre drives.
D. Use SnapView to make a clone of the LUN on fibre drives and assign the LUN to the
appropriate storage group.
Answer: C
Question 9.
A customer has a CX3-80 for Exchange and a critical OLTP database application. Over the last month, during monthly batch processing, users complain of slow response times.
Which solution will you recommend to solve this issue?
A. Access Logix
B. Performance Manager
C. Navisphere Quality of Service Manager
D. StorageScope
Answer: C
Question 10.
For reporting purposes, which source provides data for the ETL process to populate the StorageScope repository?
A. EMC ControlCenter Repository
B. Host Agents
C. Master Agents
D. Store
Answer: A
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