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Question 1.
For the following items .which one correctly describes fading?
A. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
B. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
C. A time varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. ReaD. write access is not available; only reaD. only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not
nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to
which the client is associated.
Answer: C
Question 3.
As a network technician, you must know Cisco WiSMs . Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 16
B. 12
C. 24
D. 5
Answer: B
Question 4.
You work as a network technician read this subject carefully .then answer the question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D
Question 5.
What are the four types of wireless networks? (Choose four)
A. Wireless PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. VLAN
E. WAN
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 6.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the following options .which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. requires CCXv5
C. implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
What happens when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero ?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Client exclusion is disabled.
C. Clients are never excluded.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
Answer: A
Question 8.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D
Question 9.
How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D
Question 10.
What is the typical maximum range of a wireless PAN?
A. 45 feet
B. 50 feet.
C. 55 feet
D. 60 feet
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic
before forwarding data packets
B. NBX phones tag voice packets usingDiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
D. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Users can use a TAPI4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a
computer
B. Can use the computer default media player to listen to a message
C. Requires NBXpcXset client software
D. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
E. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a
computer
F. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM and full-duplex sound card
Answer: B, E, F
Question 3.
Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communication System? (Choose three.)
A. Is a combination of two required chassis ?the Network Call Processor and the interface
chassis
B. Offers optional hot-swap power supply
C. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are
Installed on a LAN
D. Provides one 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity
E. Has 7 card slots, 6 of which are useable with the top useable slot designated for the Network
Call Processor Card
F. Requires a Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown
Answer: C, E, F
Question 4.
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped
for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route
decisions
B. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be
mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps
incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP
routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the NBX administrator get both internal and external calls to use Timed Routes?
A. Create the necessary entries in the Dial Plan using the keywords "inbound" and " outbound" to
specify call direction
B. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and External Dial Plan tables
C. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and Incoming Dial Plan tables
D. The Dial Plan has an inbound and outbound section where the specific Timed Routes are
coded
E. The Dial Plan does not support alternate routes for inbound calls
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
C. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
answered at a phone
D. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if
They are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
E. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
F. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end
of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
Answer: A, C, E
Question 7.
The NBX Dial Plan can be configured to route calls to an alternate carrier or to replace an internal extension number with an external number, for example, a cell phone.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems support software version R5.0? (Choose three.)
A. NBX 25
B. VCX 7000
C. VCX 6000
D. NBX 100
E. NBX V5000
F. NBX V3000
Answer: D, E, F
Question 9.
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data
network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX system and NBXConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from
the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
C. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBXConneXtions Gateways at each site,
Users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via
a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a single NBX system at HQ andpcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call
to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
Which three changes require a NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
B. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card,
etc.
C. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
D. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
F. New software version
Answer: A, C, F
|
Question 1.
Which of the following are Link State protocols?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer.
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A. From the router's route table, select the best routes to be installed in the FIB for forwarding
data.
B. Based on the metrics of the routingprotocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in the
route table.
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route table.
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active route
in the route table.
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to the
router's neighbors.
Answer: D
Question 4.
What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer.
A. Network address, mask and metric
B. Network address and metric
C. Prefix and mask
D. prefix, next-hop and metric
E. prefix and next-hop
Answer: A
Question 5.
Choose the most accurate statement about the connections between eBGP peers.
A. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.
B. eBGP peers are always directly connected to each other.
C. eBGP peers are never directly connected to each other.
D. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other, unless they are in the same
autonomous system.
E. eBGP peers are usually not directly connected to each other, additional configuration is
required if they are.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What message is issued by a neighbor as a response to a valid Open?
A. Keepalive
B. Open
C. Exchange
D. Notification
E. Ping
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is not exchanged in a BGP Open message?
A. BGP version number
B. The local AS number
C. The hold time
D. Thekeepalive timer
E. The Router ID
Answer: D
Question 8.
The state of one BGP neighbor shows Established, which of the following is false?
A. The router has established a complete session with that neighbor.
B. BGP can exchange update, notification andkeepalive messages with that neighbor
C. If thekeepalive timer expires, the local system sends a keepalive message and restarts its
keepalive timer
D. If the local system receives a notification message, it changes its state toOpenConfirm
E. Established is the operational state
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following is a Well Known Mandatory attribute?
A. Origin Code
B. Local Preference
C. MED
D. AS Path
E. (a) and (d)
F. (b) and (d)
Answer: E
Question 10.
Which of the following is true, based on the AS Path list shown here? 65206 65111 65100
A. AS 65206 originated the route
B. AS 65111 is a transit AS
C. AS 65100 is a transit AS
D. AS 65100 originated the route
E. (b) and (d)
F. (a) and (c)
Answer: E
|
Question 1.
In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: A, B, C
Question 2.
Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with
the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing
protocol for exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E
Question 3.
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: A, B, D
Question 5.
Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information betweensitesDistributing the customer? Routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: B, C, E
Question 8.
In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D
Question 9.
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A
Question 10.
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1.
Review the configuration information shown below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: E
Question 2.
Which of the following debug statements can be used to troubleshoot if the OSPF adjacency is staying at xstart state? Select two answers.
A. Debug routerospf rtm
B. Debug routerospf packet dbdescr
C. Debug routerospf neighbor
D. Debug routerospf packet hello
E. Debug routerospf spf
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Based on the following configuration, which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. No OPSF adjacency found on Node 1
B. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-2
C. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-3
D. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-4
E. OSPF is enabled on Node 1
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration information below.
What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: D
Question 5.
Two routers are physically connected running ISIS. ISIS L2 adjacency is up and running but L1 adjacency is not up. Review the configuration information shown below:
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level is not configured on both routers
B. The ISIS interface type should be configured as point-to-point interfaces
C. ISIS System IDs are not configured on both routers
D. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
E. ISIS level capacity are not configured on both routers
Answer: D
Question 6.
Two routers are physically connected to each other with ISIS configured. No ISIS adjacency can be found on both routers. Ping works fine on the local and the remote interface addresses on both routers. Review the confguration information shown below.
Which of the following statements best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level configured does not match the ISIS level capability supported on the
routers
B. The ISIS authentication check is enabled but there is no authentication type and password
configured
C. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
D. L1 wide Metrics are disabled on the routers
E. ISIS Circuit id does not match on Node-1 and Node-2
Answer: C
Question 7.
L1 ISIS adjacency is up between two routers (Node-1 and Node-2) with MD5 authentication configured. During a maintenance window, an operator was planning to change one of the ISIS hello authentication key from admin to admin123. After removing the hello authentication key from Node-1 (no change on Node-2 side), the ISIS adjacency stayed up. The operator decided to fall back to the original configuration and called Alcatel for support.
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS hello authentication key was not configured properly in the first place, that's why
removing the authentication key does not impact the adjacency
B. The ISIS authentication key is the same as the hello authentication key, therefore removing
hello authentication key does not impact the adjacency
C. The system interface is missing from theISIS configuration, therefore ISIS is not working
properly even before the change
D. ISIS hello authentication key is only used for hello packet exchange. It does not affect ISIS
adjacency
E. ISIS hello authentication key is not used to bring up ISIS adjacency when traffic-engineering is
enabled on the routers
Answer: B
Question 8.
What are the typical RIP related issues found during troubleshooting?
A. Interface filters
B. Broadcast/Multicast mismatch
C. Area id not match with neighbor
D. Group name not match with neighbor
E. Hop count too high
Answer: A, B, E
Question 9.
Two direct connected routers are running RIPv2, neighbors are up but there is no route in the RIP database. Review the configuration information below.
What is the potential problem?
A. System interface is not added to the RIP protocol
B. No import policy is configured
C. No export policy is configured
D. Split-horizon has to be disabled in RIP
E. Message-size has to be configured with a non-zero value
Answer: C
Question 10.
Node A has an active BGP route 10.1.1.1 in its routing table, but the same route is not found in Node D routing table.
Which of the following configurations are required to resolve this problem?
A. Add Interface X to OSPF on Node B as passive interface
B. Redistribute interface address Y and Z into BGP
C. ISIS Enable route-reflection on Node B
D. Enable next-hop-self on Node C
E. Enable route-reflection on Node C
Answer: A, E
|
Question 1.
A customer has an Exchange server on a Windows 2003 and would like to perform daily backups.
It is required that the Exchange server is always available. What is the best solution to achieve this?
A. UseNTbackup for Exchange Services.
B. Useonly offline backups that uses Logical Volume Snapshot Agent.
C. Use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) for Mail for online backups daily.
D. Use Tivoli Storage Managerclient without stopping the Exchange server.
Answer: C
Question 2.
A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment.
Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D
Question 3.
A new storage pool is to be defined for providing off-site data protection by using an existing tape library at the off-site location and needs to provide optimized restore performance in the case of disaster.
How should the storage pool be optimally configured?
A. an active-data copy pool that uses a tape device class
B. a copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
C. a copy pool that uses a tape device class with group collocation
D. an active-data copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which type of device class should be defined in order to use the SnapLock feature in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. DLT device class
B. LTO device class
C. FILE device class
D. DISK device class
Answer: C
Question 5.
In a server to server communication (or in enterprise configuration), after defining a target IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server on the Tivoli Storage Manager source server, how can an administrator test that the details entered are correct?
A. Check the Tivoli Storage Managerserver activity log.
B. Ping the server from the operating system command line.
C. Use the Ping Server Tivoli Storage Manager command.
D. Open the Tivoli Storage Manager client on the Tivoli Storage Manager server, and see if the
client can access the defined Tivoli Storage Manager server.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which client command launches file level VMware Consolidated Backup, eliminates VMware scripts for managing virtual machine snapshots, and automatically performs snapshot management on each virtual machine?
A. dsmc backvm
B. dsmc backup vm
C. dsmc backup vcb
D. dsmc launch backup vm
Answer: B
Question 7.
What best describes the default settings for the primary, copy, and active data storage pools processed during creation of the disaster recovery plan by using the prepare command?
A. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
B. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and no active data pools.
C. Process no primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
D. Process no primary pools, no copy pools, and no active data pools.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which client option controls whether IBM Tivoli Storage Manager should create a differential snapshot when performing a snapdiff incremental backup?
A. diffshot
B. snapdiff
C. diffsnapshot
D. Incrsnapshot
Answer: C
Question 9.
In order to obtain an individual file level restore of a SnapMirror backup. what must be done?
A. Restore individual file from image backup.
B. Restore TOC, and then restore individual file.
C. Restore fullSnapMirror Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
D. Restore IBMTivoli Storage Manager Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which command is issued on IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server administrative command line to view the actual option settings?
A. query node
B. query state
C. query option
D. queryconfig
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
What is the key advantage of implementing an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller rather than a DS4000 only storage configuration for a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery solution?
A. 1024 LUN consistency group support for Metro Mirror
B. Dynamic RAID Migration
C. Space EfficientFlashCopy
D. Dynamic Volume Expansion
Answer: A
Question 2.
The client already has LTO2 and LTO3 tape drives and cartridges, but is concerned that LTO4 drives are too expensive. The client is currently favoring SDLT as a solution.
What is the recommended response to this client?
A. Quantum manugactures LTO4 as well as SDLT
B. LTO4 can process the client's existing tape cartridge
C. IBM announced LTO4 in April 2007
D. SDLT is a single-hub cartridge technology
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is an advantage of IBM SAN Volume Controller (SVC) virtualization over an HP Enterprise Virtual Array virtualization?
A. SVC supports more RAID levels than HP EVA
B. SVC is a SAN virtualization at the network level
C. SVC is an IBMVirutalization solution for IBM Disks
D. SVC has a broader world-wide installation base than HP EVA
Answer: B
Question 4.
The client has installed an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller to virtualize DS400 disk systems attached to a Windows 2003 Server.
Which method is recommended to confirm the appropriate multi-path driver is installed?
A. Issue the "datapath query adapter" command to confirm subsystem device driver (SDD) is
properly configured
B. Log in to the SAN Volume Controller master console
C. Issue the "powerpath" command to confirm both SVC and DS4000 are connected to each
other
D. Use DS4000 Storage Manager to verify that MPIO/DSM driver is running correctly
Answer: A
Question 5.
A client has reached maximum power capacity going into their data center which prevents further business growth. A new facility with greater power capacity will take 12 to 18 months to build.
From an IT industry perspective, what is a description of short-term business objective that deals with this crisis?
A. Additional UPS units can be used to avoid power outage issues
B. Data can be archived to tape and stored outside the data center
C. A raised floor can use perforated tiles to increase air flow
D. Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units can be added to reduce temperature
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which resource provides information about the general availability date for a new IBM System Storage product?
A. Announcement Letter
B. Sales Manual
C. Competeline
D. Interoperability Matrix or Guide
Answer: A
Question 7.
A new client currently has a multi-tier storage environment consisting of EMC DMX subsystems. They are dissatisfied with the high costs of TimeFinder and additional disks in the DMX systems.
Which solution would provide the lowest cost alternative for providing instant copies of the DMX LUNs for backups?
A. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS4700 with SATA drives
B. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS3400 with SATA drives
C. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS3400 and a DS3400 with Fibre Channel drives
D. N5600 Gateway withSnapShot feature with DS4800 Fibre Channel drives
Answer: B
Question 8.
A customer has a requirement for 8 TB if data to be stored on tape. The customer wants the most cost-effective automated LTO4 solution.
Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. TS2340
B. TS3200
C. TS3310
D. TS3100
Answer: D
Question 9.
On the IBM System Storage Web Site, under which category would you find information about IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller?
A. Network Attached Storage
B. Storage Area Network
C. Disk Systems
D. Software
Answer: D
Question 10.
An IBM System Storage DS4000 LUN connected to Linux server was dynamically expanded from 500 GB to 600 GB.
Which Linux command confirms the change was performed correctly?
A. Route -n
B. Fdasd -p
C. Iostat
D. Df -h
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
You see an amber light flashing on an EXP810 ESM. Where should you start to find information on how to handle the flashing amber light?
A. Recovery Guru
B. Major Event Log (MEL)
C. Storage Manager online help
D. Read Link Status counters related to the specific ESM
Answer: A
Question 2.
How often will a Windows operating system without multi-pathing software detect a target LUN?
A. Once per controller
B. Once per bus
C. Once per path
D. Once per port
Answer: C
Question 3.
Before opening a call with support on your DS5300, other than the serial number and description of the failure, what additional information should be expected? Outputs of:
A. Supportshow
B. Collect all support data
C. Health check
D. Config Show
Answer: B
Question 4.
A customer has attempted to migrate an existing 4 drive, RAID 1+0 array group to a RAID 6 Array group and been unsuccessful. Why is this?
A. You can't mix RAID levels on the same controller
B. RAID 6 is not supported on the DS5000 storage array
C. DS5000 storage arrays require 5 drives in an RAID 6 array group.
D. RAID 6 is a premium feature on the DS5000 and needs to be activated
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which different drive expansion modules can be attached to a DS5000 subsystem?
A. EXP810, EXP710
B. EXP5000 and EXP810
C. EXP5000, EXP100, EXP810
D. EXP5000, EXP810, EXP710
Answer: B
Question 6.
The global background media scan setting can be enabled to scan for media errors on the disk drives.
Which increment is used when configuring media scans?
A. Minutes
B. Hours
C. Days
D. Weeks
Answer: C
Question 7.
A customer finds that their storage administration coverage is too thin. They want to have their system call IBM when there is a critical alert.
Which configuration enables this capability?
A. RSM on any Linux Intel server
B. RsM on an IBM power system server
C. IBM Director running on an IBM server
D. Agent installed on a management server
Answer: A
Question 8.
A customer has ordered a DS4800 with four EXP810s. They will use 48 FC drives and 16 SATA drives.
Which configuration allows the DS4800 the highest bandwidth?
A. All SATA drive should be placed in one EXP810 as they will run slower.
B. Pairing EXP810 on redundant drive port pairs.
C. Each EXP810 should be on separate loops and contain 12 FC drives and 4 SATA drives.
D. All FC drives should be connected to the first channel on each controller to obtain the lowest
drive channel IDs
Answer: C
Question 9.
The DS4000 series uses the Automatic Drive Transfer (ADT) feature to allow mplicit?logical drive transfers between controllers. The DS4000 series uses the Automatic Drive Transfer (ADT) feature to allow ?mplicit?logical drive transfers between controllers.
What determines if ADT should be enabled?
A. HBA type
B. ESM firmware
C. Controller firmware version
D. Host multi-pathing software
Answer: D
Question 10.
The customer is considering expanding an existing Logical drive using the Dynamic Volume Expansion function in Storage Manager.
Which operating system, below does not support a volume expansion?
A. AIX
B. Windows Dynamic Disk
C. Netware
D. Solaris
Answer: D
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