|
I used itcertkeys, and thanks to all participants,
|
Question 1.
Which statement best describes the Monitor Administration?
A. The Monitor Administration is responsible for adding monitors to Sitescope and CMDB.
B. The Monitor Administration is responsible for the configuration of Business Process Monitor
and CM profiles ONLY.
C. The Monitor Administration is the starting point for EMS monitoring configuration and
administration activity only when the Sitescope is registered to BAC.
D. The Monitor Administration is the starting point for any monitoring configuration and
administration activity.
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which URLs are used to navigate to the Sitescope home page? Select two.
A. Http://:8080/sitescope
B. Http://:8888/sitescope
C. Http://:8180/sitescope
D. Http://:2696/sitescope
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
Which statement best describes a situation for choosing to use the Monitor Deployment Wizard?
A. When you want to create a relationship between SiteScope monitors that are already in the
CMDB and other CI's that are still not inserted to the CMDB
B. When you want to deploy a set of SiteScope monitors to applications or servers that were
already populated in the CMDB through discovery
C. When you want to create the same set of monitors for different remote machines in SiteScope
D. When you want to create a relationship between SiteScope monitors that are already in the
CMDB and other CI's that are still not inserted to the CMDB
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which operating systems support SiteScope installation?
A. Window, Linux and Solaris
B. Windows and Solaris
C. Windows only
D. Windows and Linux
Answer: A
Question 5.
If your core server is replaced by another core server, what task should you perform on
SiteScope to integrate the new core server?
A. I will reset BAC integration from the SiteScope UI and then attach SiteScope to already
existing profile.
B. I will reset integration and will reconnect SiteScope.
C. I don't need to do anything the recovery is automatic.
D. I need to detach SiteScope, redirect it to the new core server from SiteScope UI and then
attach it back to MA.
Answer: D
Question 6.
In the profile creation wizard, what will happen when you select the profile database name (in a multiple profile database environment) from the combo box?
A. A failure to create the profile since the default profile database is the only allowed option
B. Data from the created profile to be sent to the selected database ONLY if it was marked as the
default database
C. Data from the created profile to be sent to the selected database
D. You don't have an option to select the database - it is selected automatically for you by the
Business Availability Center server
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the quickest way to create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor?
A. Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach
the monitor from within the view
B. Create profile and use the attach CI option in the Monitoring Administration profile creation
operation - this will automatically create the link between the CI and the Monitor entity
C. To use the Monitor Deployment Wizard and automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI
D. To use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process
Answer: B
Question 8.
What server do you need to specify when registering SiteScope to BAC?
A. core server
B. processing server
C. center server
D. all servers
Answer: A
Question 9.
How do you change the default schedule of the business process profile execution?
A. Access the Business Process Monitor admin web UI http://:2696 and from there change the schedule interval
B. Access the Monitoring Administration business process profile wizard and Only during the
creation process of the profile
C. Access the Monitoring Administration business process profile wizard and during the creation
process of the profile or later change the scheduling interval from the Monitoring Administration
D. Change it to the minimal schedule of 15 minutes
Answer: C
Question 10.
What happens when you copy and paste a Business Process Monitor profile in Monitor Administration?
A. A logical profile will be created but the work will not be assigned to the Business Process
Monitor but rather will be used as a pointer to the same Business Process Monitor task.
B. A new profile will be created in the Monitoring administration and the job will be sent to the
Business Process Monitor but the profile will be in a stopped status until started.
C. A new profile will be created in the Monitoring administration and the job will be sent to the
Business Process Monitor but the profile will start running automatically.
D. You can only copy and paste empty containers.
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a syntax error exception is thrown.
Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for this syntax error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A
Question 2.
Given the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE staff (
id SMALLINT NOT NULL,
name VARCHAR(9),
dept SMALLINT,
job CHAR(5))
Assuming that the following statements execute successfully:
Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand()
cmdStaff.CommandText = "SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)"
Which of the following is the correct way to provide a value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
Answer: D
Question 3.
If the following code is executed in the order shown:
conDB2 As DB2Connection
conDB2.ConnectionString = "Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"
conDB2.Open()
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously defined in
the local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously
defined in the local database catalog.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a database connection to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B
Question 6.
Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a fix to be applied. Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the table with a Cursor Stability isolation level.
What would be the best course of action to improve the system's concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT
operation.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE
C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C
Question 8.
Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
====== ===== ======= =======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER track_chgs
AFTER UPDATE OF salary, name, empno ON emp
REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable
FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
INSERT INTO changes
SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP FROM ntable;
END;
After executing the following SQL statements:
DELETE FROM changes;
UPDATE emp SET deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95';
INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90', 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary + 1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;
What value will be returned by this query? SELECT count(*) FROM changes
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A
Question 9.
Given the following table and view definitions:
CREATE TABLE city (
cityid INT GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY ,
city_name CHAR(10),
state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN ('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));
CREATE VIEW city_view AS (
SELECT city_name||','||state_code AS fullname FROM city
WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL'));
and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER city_viewInput
INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view
REFERENCING NEW AS n
FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
DECLARE delim INT;
SET delim = LOCATE(',', n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code)
VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1), SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));
END;
If the following SQL statments are executed:
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ;
INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL');
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI');
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX');
INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Denver,CO');
How many rows will be returned by the following query: SELECT * FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Question 10.
An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following query: SELECT t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1
If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX database and table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the following DB2 object types must the identifier T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
A database administrator wishes to enable automatic table and index reorganization.
Which set of Database Configuration parameters must be set to ON for automatic table and index reorganization to be enabled?
A. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
B. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
C. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_RUNSTATS, AUTO_REORG
D. AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
Answer: B
Question 2.
Self tuning memory simplifies the task of memory configuration by automatically setting values for memory configuration parameters and sizing buffer pools.
When enabled, the memory tuner dynamically distributes available memory resources between _____.
A. several buffer pools
B. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, lock list areas, and buffer pools
C. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, monitor heap, and lock list areas
D. several memory consumers including load and buffer pools
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which explanation describing the AUTOCONFIGURE command is valid?
A. The AUTOCONFIGURE command will only make recommendations based on the assumption
of a single database per instance.
B. When explicitly invoking the Configuration Advisor using the AUTOCONFIGURE command,
the registry setting of DB2_ENABLE_AUTOCONFIG_DEFAULT will be honored; this variable
must be set to ON in order for the AUTOCONFIGURE command to be run successfully.
C. The AUTOCONFIGURE command does not require an explicit database connection.
D. When using the BUFFERPOOL keyword and a value of 50, AUTOCONFIGURE will tell DB2 to
use 50% of the database shared memory for the buffer pools.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which commands will set the throttling percentage for a running backup operation that has a Utility ID of 2 for a database named DBTEST in an instance named DB2INST1 to 10 percent?
A. db2set UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT=ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIM FOR 2 TO 10;
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT FOR 2 TO 10;
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which list of keywords contains values that are all valid input parameters for the AUTOCONFIGURE command?
A. mem_percent, workload_type, tpm, isolation
B. mem_percent, workload_type, stmm, isolation
C. workload_type, isolation, num_apps, tpm
D. mem_percent, tpm, stmm, isolation
Answer: A
Question 6.
Given the following server information:
Instance name: db2inst1
Port number: 50000
Service name: db2c_db2inst1
Hostname: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A
Database: db2tcp
Which command will catalog a node for this server?
A. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
B. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
C. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
D. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
Answer: B
Question 7.
Given the following command:
BACKUP DB dbtest UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY 20
Which command should be executed prior to the BACKUP command in order for the backup operation to run in throttled mode?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON
B. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 100
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 50
Answer: D
Question 8.
A database administrator needs to obtain the self tuning settings for a database named MYDB.
Which command should be issued?
A. db2set -all
B. GET DBM CFG SHOW DETAIL
C. GET DB CFG FOR mydb SHOW DETAIL
D. LIST MEMORY SETTINGS FOR mydb
Answer: C
Question 9.
During a routine inspection of database MYDB, a database administrator obtained the following information by executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb.
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic database backup (AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF
Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF
Automatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF
Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = ON
Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = ON
Which command will activate automatic statistics collection for the database MYDB?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF OFF
AUTO_PROF_UPD OFF
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON
AUTO_RUNSTATS ON
D. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
Answer: C
Question 10.
The test database MYDB requires frequent table and index reorganization to support ongoing application development. A database administrator obtained the following information by executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb.
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic database backup AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF
Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF
Automatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF
Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = OFF
Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = OFF
Which commands will enable automatic table and index reorganization for the database MYDB?
A. REORG TABLE ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY;
REORG INDEXES ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TABLE_MAINT ON;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
D. RESET DB CFG FOR mydb;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 3.
Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. The interface should have a clear purpose.
B. A single interface should include as many possible methods, if not all methods, that may be
shared by objects that implement the interface.
C. An interface should be used to restrict which methods are exposed to a client.
D. Classes may have multiple interfaces depending on the purpose of each interface it
implements.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts
Answer: D
Question 7.
Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely
surviving intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and attribute
types before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which allows
users to define the systems look and feel
Answer: A
Question 9.
An architect looks at two classes. The first class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(),getTotal(), and findAverage(). The second class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(), findAverage(), findMinimum(), and findMaximum(). The two classes share the same superclass.
Which operations are most likely contained in the superclass?
A. getName(), getSize(), and findAverage()
B. findMaximum(), findMinimum(), getSize(), and getTotal()
C. getName(), findAverage(), and findMaximum()
D. getName(), getSize(), getTotal(), and findAverage()
Answer: A
Question 10.
An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system.
Which area of focus is essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
What is the result, if any, of executing the following code?
DCL A BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
DCL B BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
DCL C BIT(1) lNlT('1'B);
A = B ! C;
A. The value of A is '0'B
B. The value of A is'1'B.
C. The value of A is unpredictable.
D. There is no result, because the syntax is wrong.
Answer: B
Question 2.
What does BX.WOK.LOAD refer to in the following job control statement? I/ACCOUNT DD DSN=BX.WOK.LOAD,DISP=SHR
A. It is the connection between program and dataset.
B. It is the physical dataset name.
C. It is the logical dataset name.
D. It is the name which must be referred to in the program.
Answer: B
Question 3.
What will be printed when the following subroutine is called for the third time?
A: PROC;
DCLX PlC '9' INIT(O);
X = X+ 1;
PUT SKIP LIST ('THE VALUE OF X IS :'!!X);
X = X+ 1;
END A;
A. THE VALUE OF X IS : 1
B. THE VALUE OF X IS : 2
C. THE VALUE OF X IS : 3
D. THE VALUE OF X IS : 5
Answer: A
Question 4.
Given the following code, with what attribute should the variable EOF be declared? DO WHILE(^EOF);
A. FIXED BIN (7)
B. BIT (1)
C. CHAR (1)
D. FIXED DEC (3)
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which is the most appropriate code to turn all of the bits in A ON? DCL A BIT(8);
A. A = 255;
B. A = '11111111'B;
C. A = 11111111B;
D. A = -1;
Answer: B
Question 6.
What changes should be made, if any, to the following code?
DCL A CHAR(100) BASED(P);
DCL P PTR;
READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(A);
A. READ FILE(DDIN) SET(A);
B. READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(P);
C. READ FILE(DDIN) SET(P);
D. No changes necessary because the code is correct.
Answer: C
Question 7..
What is the value of B after executing the following code?
DCL A CHAR(10) VAR;
DCL B BIN FIXED(31) INIT(0);
DCL C CHAR(5) INIT('ABCD');
A = C;
B = LENGTH(A);
A. 10
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which of the following is a BIN FIXED constant?
A. '1000'
B. 1E+03
C. 1000
D. 1000B
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following is NOT a valid method to activate a BEGIN block?
A. A condition is signaled and the BEGIN block is a component of the corresponding ON unit.
B. Sequential program flow approaches the BEGIN block.
C. The BEGIN block is labeled and a GOTO addresses this label.
D. The BEGIN block is labeled and a CALL addresses this label.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which is the most appropriate data type declaration for the variable A in the following expression, if A is used as a counter?
A = A + 1;
A. CHAR
B. BIN FIXED
C. FLOAT
D. PlC
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com would like to configure a virtual Ethernet between an AIX V5.3 LPAR and an AIX V5.2 LPAR.
Which of the following options is necessary to complete this task?
A. Remove the physical Ethernet adapters from the LPARs
B. Activate Advanced POWER Virtualization
C. Update microcode for the virtual adapters
D. Upgrade AIX V5.2 LPAR to AIX V5.3
Answer: D
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com wants to change the resource allocation for their AIX 5L V5.3 micro LPAR system.
What is the smallest processor allocation than can be moved between partitions?
A. A full processor
B. 1% of a processor
C. 10% of a processor
D. 25% of a processor
Answer: B
Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com has a p5-570 with an application running on each of three Micro-Partitions. The disk I/O is shared through a VIO server. A technical specialist has been asked to upgrade the VIO server.
Which of the following procedures should be taken to maintain the integrity of the partitions?
A. Shut down all client partitions before updating the VIO server.
B. Disconnect the client partitions from any IP networks before updating the VIO server.
C. Update the client partitions to the latest OS maintenance level before updating the VIO server.
D. Update the VIO server while the partitions are running, but reboot each client partition at a
convenient time after the update.
Answer: A
Question 4.
A technical specialist defined a virtual Ethernet ent2 on the VIO server that has a physical adapter, ent0.
Which of the following commands should be used to configure the Shared Ethernet Adapter?
A. mkvdev -sea ent2 -vadapter ent0 -default ent0 -defaultid 1
B. mkdev -virtual ent0 -adapter ent3 -default en2 -defaultid 1
C. mkvdev -sea ent0 -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaultid 1
D. mkvdev ent0 -sea -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaultid 1
Answer: C
Question 5.
When planning for a logically partitioned system, which of the following should be used as part of a review to ensure that each partition has the required resources?
A. Use the Workload Estimator capacity planning tool.
B. Use prtconf output from legacy systems.
C. Use the LPAR Validation Tool.
D. Use Performance Management Services.
Answer: C
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com recently experienced an unanticipated system outage when the VIO server was upgraded. The current p5-570 has six Micro-Partitions and a VIO server partition.
How can a similar outage be avoided in the future?
A. Use DLPAR to avoid an outage.
B. Deploy a redundant VIO server in the POWER5 system.
C. Add additional Host Bus Adapters and Network adapters to the VIO server.
D. Implement a standby server and move all partitions to it before applying future updates.
Answer: B
Question 7.
When creating a virtual Ethernet adapter on the HMC for a VIO server, what is the advantage of checking the box to access external network (trunk)?
A. Allows the creation of a shared Ethernet adapter
B. Allows the use of VLANs
C. Allows the consolidation of multiple networks on one adapter
D. Allows EtherChannel load balancing
Answer: A
Question 8.
A technical specialist has installed a Host Bus Adapter (HBA) on a p5-550 server. The system has four AIX 5L V5.3 partitions and a Virtual I/O server. The HBA will be used to connect all four partitions to a DS8000 storage array.
What else must be performed to make the storage available to the partitions?
A. Allocate the HBA to a client partition.
B. Restart the Virtual I/O Server to detect the changes.
C. Install the device driver for the DS8000 in each of the four AIX partitions.
D. Allocate the HBA to the VIO server partition and install necessary drivers.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which feature of the IBM p5 servers enables customers to be confident that data within two distinct partitions on the server will be isolated?
A. POWER Hypervisor
B. Virtual LAN
C. POWER5 processor
D. Redundant Power and Cooling
Answer: A
Question 10.
ITCertKeys.com wants to reassign a host bus adapter (HBA) from one partition to another to handle increased I/O workload on that partition.
What needs to be done to dynamically move the card?
A. Use the rmdev command to remove the card from the current partition before doing the
DLPAR process.
B. Take the source partition down and do the DLPAR function on the target partition.
C. Assign the card to the required section of the target partition and run cfgmgr.
D. Dynamically remove the card from the source and add to target profile then reactivate the
target profile.
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
An administrator needs to locate information regarding code deployment. IBM provides a step-by-step tutorial approach to code deployment that would be helpful in this scenario.
Where would an administrator locate such information?
A. WebSphere Commerce V6.0 Code Deployment guide
B. WebSphere Commerce V6.0 Information Center
C. WebSphere Commerce V6.0 Additional Software guide
D. WebSphere Commerce V6.0 support Web site
Answer: B
Question 2.
A developer provides a new WebSphereCommerceServerExtensionsLogic.jar file containing changes to an existing customized controller command. These updates are to be tested on an existing WebSphere Commerce instance which is running in a Network Deployment cluster environment.
Which method will deploy the updated code into the test environment?
A. Use the WebSphere Administration Console to update the WebSphere Commerce Enterprise
Application specifying the single file option.
B. Use the WebSphere Administration Console to update the WebSphere Commerce Enterprise
Application specifying the single module option.
C. Replace the WebSphereCommerceServerExtensionsLogic.jar file which is under the
installedApps directory of the Deployment Manager profile.
D. Replace the WebSphereCommerceServerExtensionsLogic.jar file which is in the wc.ear
subdirectory of the WebSphere Commerce installation.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Two task groups have been created in a single workspace. In task group 1 (TG1), several products and SKUs are added to the master catalog. In task group 2 (TG2), merchandising associations are defined using one of the new products. When TG2 is completed and approved, a commit failure occurs.
Which action needs to be taken?
A. Change the workspace locking policy.
B. Increase the size of the database transaction log.
C. Re-publish the task group.
D. Wait for TG1 to be approved.
Answer: D
Question 4.
A WebSphere Commerce administrator would use the Migration wizard to:
A. verify the migrated WebSphere Commerce instance is working properly.
B. convert any customized code to be V6.0 compatible.
C. upgrade to V6.0 supported software stack.
D. convert the existing database to the V6.0 schema.
E. apply enhancement pack to migrated WebSphere Commerce instance.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Performance tests are being run in a WebSphere Commerce cluster with two cluster members. Monitoring has determined that the optimal Web container thread pool size is a maximum of 50 connections per Java Virtual Machine.
What would be the suggested total maximum size for the JDBC connection pool of the WebSphere Commerce datasource?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
E. 125
Answer: E
Question 6.
Which component is responsible for determining which payment actions to execute?
A. Payment plug-in
B. Payment processing system
C. Payment rules engine
D. Payment service provider
Answer: C
Question 7.
Given following organizational structure shown in the exhibit, under the Root Organization there is a B2C organization which owns the store Consumer Direct.
There is also a StoreAdmin organization to which all Customer Service Representatives (CSR) and Customer Service Supervisors (CSS) belong.
If an administrator needs to be able to manage accounts for CSRs, and also assign CSRs to the Consumer Direct store, what is the minimum authority required?
A. Seller Administrator in B2C, and Seller Administrator in StoreAdmin
B. Customer Service Supervisor in B2C, and Seller Administrator in StoreAdmin
C. Seller Administrator in Consumer Direct, and Seller Administrator in StoreAdmin
D. Customer Service Supervisor in B2C, and Customer Service Supervisor in StoreAdmin
E. Seller Administrator in StoreAdmin only
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the primary purpose of the properties file created when the "Create properties file only" checkbox is selected in the Commerce Instance Creation Wizard?
A. Backup of the configuration parameters in case of instance creation failure
B. Create locale-specific files for each language to be supported by the instance
C. Input to Ant target for command-line instance creation
D. Verify instance configuration parameters
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which two tools are designed for customer care representatives to create and update orders on behalf of customers?
A. IBM Sales Center for WebSphere Commerce
B. IBM Gift Center for WebSphere Commerce
C. WebSphere Commerce Accelerator
D. WebSphere Product Center
E. WebSphere Commerce Administrative Console
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
Which mechanism is used to authenticate a browser client connecting to a secured WebSphere Commerce URL?
A. Cross site scripting protection
B. Web server SSL certificates
C. X.509 certificates
D. LDAP user registry
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
A new view has been created in a consumer direct store in the development environment, It is now ready to be tested in the development environment. The JSP file for the page has been created and placed in the proper directory, the struts configuration has been updated correctly, and the struts registry has been refreshed. When the correct URL is entered for the view in the web browser, an exception is thrown and the view is not displayed.
What step was missed above and the likely cause of this error?
A. The cache registry was not refreshed.
B. An access control policy for the view needs to be loaded using the Organization Admin
Console.
C. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using acpload.bat.
D. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using the WebSphere
Administration Console.
Answer: C
Question 2.
The recommended method for retrieving and displaying error messages passed to a view from a controller command is to use a:
A. StoreErrorDatasean
B. ResourceBundle
C. TypedProperty exception data
D. errorview name
Answer: A
Question 3.
Dynamic caching is enabled in WebSphere Application Server and some JSP fragments are being displayed twice when the cached page is served.
How should this be prevented?
A. Ensure that true is equal to true for the
fragment in the cache configuration file.
B. Set flush=true on every in the file to be cached.
C. Surround all tags with <% out.flush(); %>.
D. Use static includes for fragments.
Answer: C
Question 4.
A developer wants to display product prices in more than one currency.
How can the developer enable dual display of currencies?
A. Update the COUNTERVALUECURR field of the CURCVLIST table to the value currency that
is needed to be displayed.
B. Update the CURRSTR field of the CURLIST table to the value currency that is needed to be
displayed.
C. Use an e-marketing spot in the jsp to display pricing in more than one currency.
D. Use the price range feature of Accelerator to set up dual currency pricing.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What are the two key elements when defining a view in the struts configuration file?
A. access-mappings
B. action-mappings
C. global-forwards
D. global-mappings
E. view-mappings
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
What task must be accomplished before custom store pages can be cached using WebSphere Application Server dynacache?
A. Add custom tags to each page.
B. Add entries to cache configuration file.
C. Install the Cache Monitor.
D. Pre-compile the JSPs.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A developer wants to customize the Struts configuration tile to support form field validation.
What needs to be enabled to make the Store Struts application aware of the Validator framework?
A. CustomPlugin
B. ValidatorPlugln
C. FormValidationPlugin
D. DefaultValidationPlugin
Answer: B
Question 8.
A storefront is using the Struts declarative exception handling framework. The appropriate method for defining the text of error messages, used by the Struts framework, is to create a new:
A. global-forwards
B. action-mappings
C. message-resources
D. global-exceptions
Answer: C
Question 9.
A developer has added a new feature to the Flow Repository. How will the new feature in the jsp be referenced?
A. By using the tag
B. By using the and tags
C. By using the tag
D. By using the tag
Answer: B
Question 10.
An enterprise (seller) wishes to create stores that can be targeted to each of the product brands it sells, so that each site can have its own look and feel, shopping flow, and marketing strategy. Some of the assets will be shared across the different stores.
What is the most appropriate business model that should be used to support this site?
A. Consumer Direct
B. Extended Sites
C. Demand Chain
D. Supply Chain
E. B2B Direct
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
A client needs more disk space for another volume group and has decided to use hdisk12 from the uservg volume group containing hdisk10, hdisk11, and hdisk12 where hdisk10 and hdisk11 have sufficient PPs to contain the volume group data. The client attempted to remove hdisk12 from the volume group but received the following error:
0516-016 Cannot delete physical volume with allocated partitions.
Which of the following commands should be run to correct this problem?
A. reducevg hdisk12
B. rmdev -dl hdisk12
C. cplv hdisk10 hdisk12
D. migratepv hdisk12 hdisk10
Answer: D
Question 2.
A System p administrator is looking at changing attributes of a logical volume.
Which of the following must be defined when it is created?
A. placement of the logical volume
B. stripe size of the logical volume
C. inter-disk policy of the logical volume
D. intra-disk policy of the logical volume
Answer: B
Question 3.
A System p distribution customer is very concerned about Reliability, Availability and Serviceability (RAS). They are planning to install several p6 servers in their facilities and want to be able to move an LPAR from one System p to another.
Which of the following would accomplish this?
A. System p servers using similar SAN storage
B. System p servers must share an HMC
C. System p servers must have the same level HMC
D. System p servers with VIOS
Answer: B
Question 4.
A System p administrator has determined that a recently applied APAR needs to be removed.
Which of the following installp options will remove the APAR?
A. cleanup
B. uninstall
C. deinstall
D. reject
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following actions will enable 64-bit applications on a system with a 32-bit kernel?
A. Use "smit load64bit" to enable the 64-bit applications.
B. Re-install all applications with 64-bit versions.
C. Re-install the OS with 64-bit kernel enabled.
D. Change the kernel to 64bit, reboot, and then use the following command: chdev -l sys0 –a
"applications=64_bit"
Answer: A
Question 6.
A System p administrator needs to document system changes that have occurred recently. The company has a policy of making all possible changes via the smit interface.
Which of the following files would show the commands that have been performed from within smit and their resulting output?
A. /smit.log
B. /smit.script
C. /var/log/smit.log
D. /.history
Answer: A
Question 7.
For security reasons, an administrator is asked to modify the system to prevent someone from leaving a terminal logged in.
Which of the following options would enable a five minute timeout for all users?
A. Add the following line to /etc/environment:
TMOUT=300
B. Add the following lines to /.profile
TMOUT=5
export TMOUT
C. Run the following command:
chuser -u ALL -a TIMEOUT=5M
D. Run the following command:
chsec -u ALL -a TIMEOUT=600
Answer: A
Question 8.
A System p administrator found a process on the server that should be stopped.
Which of the following commands can be used to list all the signal actions defined for this process?
A. ps
B. pstat
C. lssig
D. procsig
Answer: D
Question 9.
A System p administrator has created a customized security profile using AIX Security Expert.
Which of the following commands will apply this to a system?
A. aixpert -f mysec.xml
B. aixpert -a mysec.xml
C. chsec -f mysec.xml
D. chsec -a mysec.xml
Answer: A
Question 10.
How can an administrator determine how many physical copies there are of a mirrored logical volume in rootvg?
A. lslv rootvg
B. lsvg rootvg
C. lsvg rootvg
D. lspv hdisk0
Answer: C
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.