Question 1.
What are three steps of the Security Wheel? (Choose three)
A. Improve
B. Log
C. Maintain
D. Test
E. Secure
F. Report
Answer: A, D, E,
Explanation:
The Security Wheel breaks network security into four separate phases:
Securing
Monitoring
Testing
Improving
Reference:
Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 35
Question 2.
Following termination of the VPN tunnel, what action is performed on remote user
traffic in
the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. Traffic is sent through a Layer 2 switch.
B. Traffic is sent through a Layer 3 switch.
C. Traffic is sent through a firewall.
D. Traffic is sent through a router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Following termination of the VPN tunnel, traffic is sent through a firewall to
ensure that VPN users are appropriately filtered.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User
Networks Page 20
Question 3.
Which options can be chosen for TCP session reassembly on the IDS Sensor in the
SAFE
SMR medium network design? (Choose two)
A. IP Reassembly
B. No reassembly
C. Loose reassembly
D. Total reassembly
Answer: B, C
Explanation: B, C
You can choose three options for TCP session reassembly.
ƒ No Reassembly
ƒ Loose Reassembly
ƒ Strict Reassembly
Reference:
Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 418
Question 4.
How many categories of ports exist within a VLAN.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are three categories of ports within a VLAN: isolated ports, community
ports, and promiscuous ports.
Question 5.
What does RFC 2827 filtering prevent in the SAFE SMR midsize network design
campus
module?
A. Port redirection attacks.
B. Port mapping through the firewall.
C. Source-address spoofing.
D. Packet sniffers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
RFC 2827 filtering at the ingress router should also be implemented to mitigate
the chance of an attacker from outside the network spoofing the addresses of the
management hosts.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User
Networks Page 71
Question 6.
What can mitigate the chance of a department accessing confidential information
on another
department's server through the use of access control in the SAFE SMR midsize
network design midsize network campus module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. General Layer 4 through 7 analysis
D. General Layer 1 through 3 analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Layer 3 switch provides a line of defense and prevention against internally
originated attacks. It can mitigate the chance of a department accessing
confidential information on another department's server through the use of
access control. For example, a network that contains marketing and research and
development might segment off the R&D server to a specific VLAN and filter
access to it, ensuring that only R&D staff have access to it.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User
Networks Page 23
Question 7.
What are the three modules in the SAFE SMR midsize network design? (Choose
three)
A. Frame/ATM module
B. Campus module
C. ISP edge module
D. Corporate Internet module
E. WAN module
F. PSTN module
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
The SAFE medium network design consists of three modules:
The corporate Internet module
The campus module
The WAN module.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User
Networks Page 14
Question 8.
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN
connections?
(Choose two)
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections.
B. Only frame relay connections.
C. Private WAN connections.
D. ATM connections.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
From a WAN perspective, there are two options for the remote sites connecting
into the medium design. The first is a private WAN connection using the WAN
module; the second is an IPSec VPN into the corporate Internet module.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User
Networks Page 16
Question 9.
Using the default, how does the Cisco IDS appliance log events? (Choose two)
A. Location
B. Type
C. Rule base
D. Effect
E. Severity
F. User option
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
Cisco Secure IDS Sensors can be configured to generate log file locally on the
sensor. By default, the sensors are configured to send alarms of severity of
medium and higher to CSPM.
Question 1.
What four modules exist within AssetCenter? Select FOUR.
A. Portfolio Module
B. Request Module
C. Identity Module
D. Discovery Module
E. Procurement Module
F. Financials Module
G. Contract Module
Answer: A, E, F, G
Question 2.
What two tests must be completed before deployment of the AssetCenter application into a production environment? Select TWO.
A. Performance tests
B. Consistency tests
C. No tests are required
D. Functional tests
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
Which three technologies are used within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. RDBMS
B. JavaScript
C. AQL
D. Cypress Basic
E. XML
F. C++
Answer: A, C, D
Question 4.
What three IT Asset Management best practices are incorporated within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. Network Management
B. Service Management
C. Contract Management
D. Identity Management
E. Asset Tracking
F. Procurement Management
Answer: C, E, F
Question 5.
What four common data tables exist within the Portfolio module? Select FOUR.
A. Locations
B. Employees and departments
C. Contracts
D. Expense lines
E. Models
F. Natures
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 6.
Which report software provides out-of-the-box AssetCenter reports?
A. Actuate
B. Crystal Decisions
C. Crystal Reports
D. Cognos
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which activities or utilities are provided to help control costs within the enterprise?
A. Ability to manage ITSM activities within the enterprise
B. Ability to manage the database
C. Ability to manage software license compliance and entitlement
D. Ability to manage an enterprise IT topology
Answer: C
Question 8.
AssetCenter enables your organization to _______. Select THREE.
A. Define, optimize, and track specific business processes of an organization
B. Effectively manage documents within the enterprise
C. Secure and protect your employee identitiesSecure and protect your employee? identities
D. Manage an enterprise portfolio, which includes assets, contracts, inventory, and business data
important for achieving the business objective of an organization
E. Empower employees to make educated business decisions
Answer: A, D, E
Question 9.
What are three types of filters that AssetCenter offers to enable the user to display their selected data? Select THREE.
A. Query filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Universal filter
D. Standard filter
E. Linear filter
F. Simple filter
Answer: A, D, F
Question 10.
When can the Archival function of AssetCenter be enabled?
A. Only before creating the database
B. Only after creating the database
C. Both before and after creating the database
D. There is no Archival function
Answer: C
IBM WebSphere Portal V5.1, Deployment and Administration
Question 1.
The administrator executed the following wpsconfig command to create a wps database in DB2.
WPSconfig create-wps-db-DDbPassword=
Why did the administrator specify the password property on the command line?
A. For security reasons, passwords should not be stored in the wpconfig.properties file. Password
can be provided on the command line when executing the configuration task.
B. For security reasons, the -D prefix of the password property will delete the password in
wpconfig properties file after executing the configuration task.
C. For security reasons, the command line password is used to verify against the password set in
the wpconfig.properties file.
D. For security reasons, DB2 server will not use the password directly from the command line to
its servers.
Answer: A
Question 2.
After installing a Portlet Application to a Portal Cluster, an administrator sees the following message.
"Portlets were successfully installed, but could not be activated at this time. Please manually activate the portlet application in the Manage Applications portlet"
Which of the following BEST describes the reason for this message?
A. The portlets could not be activated because the cluster nodes need to be stopped when
deploying portlets
B. Portal cannot guarantee that the portlet has been synchronized to each clustered node, so it
does not automatically activate it.
C. This message occurs because there are two or more clustered Portal Servers on the same
node, and they are not all stopped.
D. The DeploymentService.properties file has not been updated with the cluster name.
Answer: B
Question 3.
A user reports getting the following message on the login page: "Login failed.Please specify a valid ID and password."
Which of the following is the MOST probable cause?
A. WebShere Portal has public session enabled
B. WebSphere Application Server does not have global security enabled
C. The user was enrolled with the wrong suffix in the LDAP directory
D. There is time synchronization problem between the user's login machine and the LDAP server
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which of the following files contains the output generated by enabling WebSphere Portal v5.1?
A. /log/SystemOut_log
B. /log/wps_log
C. /log/SystemErr.log
D. /log/native_stdout_log
Answer: B
Question 5.
When problems occur in the production environment, the administrator should review and inspect logs to detect the source of the problem.
What should the administrator do once a problem has been detected and more information is needed to further investigate?
A. By default, detailed WebSphere Portal information is captured in the activity.log.No further
tracing is required
B. Enable tracing for WebSphere Portal to capture messages and trace information in wps
Trace.log
C. Enable tracing for WebSphere Portal trace through the AdminConsole and error information
will be captured in SystemErr.log
D. Enable WebSphere Portal trace through the AdminConsole and error information will be
captured in SystemErr.log
Answer: C
Question 6.
Consider the following error from the WebSphere Portal run-time log: 2003.05.16 13:36:14.449 w
Com.ibm.wps.services.database.DataStoreServiceimplInit DSTO0063W. The transaction isolation level is not set to READ_COMMITTED.
What does DSTO0063W refer to in this error message?
A. The logmessage describing the logged event.
B. The classification of the type of message or traces
C. The messaecode that uniquely identifies the specific message
D. The name of the Java method containing the code that triggered the log event
Answer: C
Question 7.
After adding WebSphere Portal to the cluster, the administrator accesses Portal using http:///wps/portal and receives error page not found on the browser".
Which of the following actions should the administrator perform to begin troubleshooting this error?
A. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been copied over from the WebSphere Portal nodes to the
deployment manager and the nodes have been synchronized.
B. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been copied over from the IBM HTTP Server to all WebSphere
Portal nodes have been synchronized.
C. Check that the web server host name has been added to the virtual host for the WebSphere
Portal cluster and the nodes have been synchronized.
D. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been regenerated,copied to the IBM HTTP Server,and the IBM
HTTP Server has been restarted
Answer: D
Question 8.
An administrator has added the Reminder portlet to the publically accessible Welcome page so that all users will see this reminder in their virtual portal Welcome page as well. However, all virtual portal users claimed that they cannot see the Reminder portlet.
Which of the following BEST describes what happened?
A. The administrator did not restart WebSphere_Portal server to propagate the changes to all
virtual portal Welcome Page.
B. The Reminder portlet needs to be added to each virtual Welcome page manually
C. The Reminder portlet was not installed on the virtual portal.
D. Users have not been assigned with VIEW access to the Reminder portlet.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following properties files are used by migration tasks during WebSphere Portal migration?
A. AccessControlConfigService.properties and ConfigService properties
B. migratePortalCore.properties and migrateConfigService.properties
C. PumaService.properties and Deployment Service.properties
D. Mig_core properties and mig_wmm.properties
Answer: D
Question 10.
After executing the following releaseBuilder command:
Releasebuilder .sh-InOld stagingserver_Release1_config.xml –InNew stagingServer_Release2_config.xml -out outputfile.xml
What should the administrator do with the output file?
A. The outputfile.xml which contains the differences between release 1 and release 2 of the
staging portal is used to analyze consistency in the production server.
B. The outputfile.xml which contains the differences between release 1 and release 2 of the
staging portal is then used to import these differences onto the production server.
C. The outputfile.xml which contains the checklist from both release 1 and release 2 of the
staging portal is used as a reference before deploying the release onto the production server.
D. The outputfile.xml which contains the error messages from running the releasebuilder between
release 1 and release 2 of the staging portal is used to used as a reference to eliminate
problems before releasing to the production server.
Answer: B
Question 1.
A ITCertKeys.com developer is using Rational Application Developer Portal Tools to troubleshoot a portlet application on a remote server.
Which log file directory would be the BEST place to begin looking for reasons why the portlet application is having a problem?
A. The remote WebSphere Application Server log file directory.
B. The remote WebSphere Portal log file directory.
C. The Rational Application Developer console log file directory.
D. The Rational Application Developer runtime log file directory.
Answer: B
Question 2.
A JSP developer specifies an action URL that targets a JSR 168 portlet's doEdit() handler.
Which of the following elements is MOST accurate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following types of credentials allows a portlet to extract a single secret?
A. SimplePassiveCredential
B. UserPasswordPassiveCredential
C. BinaryCredential
D. JaasSubjectCredential
Answer: A
Question 4.
A common problem when accessing the data source from the test environment is that an error about naming is indicated.
What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The database configuration did not include this datasource name.
B. No datasource has been created.
C. The datasource has insufficient client access rights to the database.
D. The datasource configured container authentication alias has insufficient access privileges.
Answer: B
Question 5.
When the WebSphere Portal V5.1 Test Environment server fails on startup on a Windows environment, which file location would be the MOST likely file to have information useful to A ITCertKeys.com developer?
Assume that all defaults were taken for product installation locations.
A. \PortalToolkit\runtime\portal_v51\log
B. \Portal51UTE\PortalServer\log
C. \runtimes\portal_v50\log\
D. \Rational\portal_v50\log
Answer: C
Question 6.
Transient application data that is specific to a user interacting with a specific portlet should be maintained in which object?
A. PortletApplicationSettings
B. PortletRequest
C. PortletSession
D. PortletData
Answer: C
Question 7.
Rational Application Developer V6.0 can be installed on all of the following Operating Systems, EXCEPT:
A. Windows 2003
B. Windows NT
C. Windows XP
D. Linux
Answer: B
Question 8.
What type of object is returned from the JNDI lookup when accessing a portlet service?
A. PortletService
B. PortletServiceProvider
C. PortletServiceHome
D. PortletServiceFactory
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following would BEST be packaged as a portlet service?
A. A service to be used by many portlets in an application
B. A service to be used by multiple J2EE modules within the enterprise
C. A service of general use to many portlet applications
D. A service whose interface evolves regularly
Answer: C
Question 10.
A team of developers must improve Portal layout and navigational features.
What tool in Rational Application Developer V6.0 should they use?
A. Portlet Designer
B. Page Designer
C. Portal Designer
D. Customization Designer
Answer: C
Question 1.
A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution.
What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?
A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer's current environment
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following statements best describes a customer's pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?
A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any
additional time."
D. "We are on oldertechnology. I know that getting upto date will help us improve on our
customer satisfaction."
Answer: B
Question 3.
A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9.
Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?
A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing
Answer: C
Question 4.
A Syslem z competitor has announced their potential entry into the main? lame market. It Rather claims that thew system can run z/OS.
What should the sales rep male sure the customer understands.
A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system wIll also run zNM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines,
subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonslrabd to run on Designated Machines.
subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.
Answer: C
Question 5.
A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows.
Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?
A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?
A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power
capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a
full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to
the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9
Answer: C
Question 7.
A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements.
Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?
A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools
Answer: C
Question 8.
A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment.
Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency
Answer: A
Question 9.
A universally physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously.
Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?
A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and
decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all
vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet pertormance needs at the best price and
consider the total cost of ownership
Answer: B
Question 10.
A new ClO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure.
Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?
A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization
Answer: B
Question 1.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the IBM System z SAPR guide?
A. Provide information on product details
B. Mitigate potential installation issues before hardware installation
C. Determine IBM resources available for post-sales support
D. Document pricing and contract information on a sale
Answer: B
Question 2.
A customers created a z/VM with a Linux environment. After installation, the customer notices that some Linux applications are not running as fast as expected. A decision is made to tune the system because of these performance problems.
Which of the following must be done before making tuning changes to the system or workload?
A. Provide additional memory in the z/VM / Linux LPAR
B. Upgrade z/VM and Linux to the latest releases
C. Install an additional Integrated Facility for Linux (IFL)
D. Determine what resource is the limiting factor in the configuration
Answer: D
Question 3.
The System z sales specialist has brought the System z technical specialist in very late in the pre sale process. This caused several problems, and the specialist had to correct some misunderstandings about the technology and capabilities.
To avoid these misunderstandings in future, which of the following would be the most appropriate way to handle this?
A. Document the problems and send a written summary to the sales specialist.
B. Explain the situation to the customer and document the problems in the SAR.
C. Ask the sales specialist to bring them in earlier so that they can better understand the account.
D. Discuss the situation and the related issues with the sales manager and ask them to discuss
with the sales specialist.
Answer: C
Question 4.
A company wants to enable customers to access their sales catalog via the Internet but is concerned about security.
What z9 features are available to prevent an unauthorized person from viewing the data as it passes through the Internet?
A. OSA/Express GbE card and QDIO or non-QDIO features of z/OS
B. Crypto Express2 card and System SSL in z/OS
C. PCICC or PCICA adapter and the Ported Tools feature of z/OS
D. CPACF and RACF
Answer: B
Question 5.
A customer is installing a z9 EC for their DR site. There is a short narrow driveway to the loading dock at the DR site.
Which of the following should the customer do to ensure the truck can deliver the z9 EC?
A. Specify height reduction for the z9 EC
B. Ask the System z Technical Specialist request city truck delivery
C. Specify the z9 EC be delivered in two separate frames
D. Order a crane to move the z9 EC through a window
Answer: B
Question 6.
A performance analysis indicates that a customer's current z9 needs more processing power. The MES is being requested based on the analysis to add additional processors as soon as possible. The customer cannot afford the maintenance window for installation.
Which of the following is the preferred action?
A. Ask the customer to schedule the installation when the machine can be stopped.
B. Tune the current machine to improve the performance as much as possible and delay the
installation until the machine can be stopped.
C. Persuade the customer to schedule the installation window immediately.
D. Schedule the installation to be performed concurrently.
Answer: D
Question 7.
A System z Technical Specialist is directing the implementation planning process. This customer has several non IBM software licenses and an OEM storage subsystem.
Which of the following describes how these two non IBM areas are addressed?
A. Customer is responsible to contact all vendors to ensure the proper level of software support
and all planned features are tolerated or exploited. The customer is also responsible to contact
hardware vendors to ensure all devices are attachable and supported on the planned z9.
B. IBM is responsible to contact all vendors to ensure the proper level of software support and all
planned features are tolerated or exploited. IBM also is responsible to contact hardware
vendors to ensure all devices are attachable and supported on the planned z9.
C. Each vendor is responsible to physically demonstrate the function of each software and
hardware component with the z9.
D. The customer must upgrade their existing System z to the planned z/OS system level to test
the function of both non IBM software and hardware.
Answer: A
Question 8.
The z990 Model A08 has 2 SAPs, 2 spares, and how many characterizable processor units?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: C
Question 9.
A customer is planning to replace several older mainframes with z9, but is concerned about the current operating system levels installed.
What is the first release of z/OS that requires a System z hardware architecture?
A. z/OS Version 1.4
B. z/OS Version 1.5
C. z/OS Version 1.6
D. z/OS Version 1.7
Answer: C
Question 10.
What zSeries virtualization technique is required to run 50 instances of DB2 Connect on Linux zSeries on a z9?
A. VM/ESA software
B. z/VM software
C. LPAR only
D. LPAR with the chaining function activated
Answer: B
IBM Certified System Administrator - Document Manager
Question 1.
Prior to installing Document Manager servers, the PATH system environment variable should include which of the following?
A. Information Integrator C++ Connector DLL directory
B. %IBMCMROOT%\cmgmt directory
C. Information Integrator installation directory
D. Information Integrator Java Connector directory
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which application must be used by DM to create a thumbnail rendition from a CAD file?
A. Cimmetry AutoVue
B. AutoDesk AutoCAD
C. Bentley MicroStation
D. Informatative Graphics MYRIAD
Answer: A
Question 3.
If the Name field of the properties of a Cache Service does not equal a LibraryName value in ddmcasrv.ini, what happens to the Document Manager Desktop when an attempt to log on is made?
A. The Document Manager Desktop will fail to connect to the selected library and return an error.
B. The Document Manager Desktop will succeed in connecting to the selected library.
C. The Document Manager Desktop will hang until a predetermined timeout value is reached.
D. The Document Manager Desktop will succeed in connecting to the selected library with
degraded performance.
Answer: A
Question 4.
When configuring Designer to connect to a library, the Name field in the Library Configuration must match the LibraryName in which file?
A. ddmsmtp.ini
B. ddmcasrv.ini
C. ddmcfgsv.ini
D. ddmlogconfig.properties
Answer: B
Question 5.
In order to conduct a web based install of the Document Manager Desktop, which of the following files must be copied to the web server directory?
A. ddminst.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, index.htm, default.htm
B. ddmdsktp.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, index.htm, default.htm
C. ddminst.htm, ddmdsktp.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, default.htm
D. ddmdsktp.htm, ddmcasrv.ini, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, default.htm
Answer: C
Question 6.
The System Administrator can configure datastore pooling to improve the overall performance of a DB2 Document Manager system.
How does datastore pooling improve performance?
A. It allows the specification of a department-level cache server that is used to "pool" document
data that is local to that department.
B. It allows the administrator to specify allocation of pools of memory that can be shared by
different item types in the repository.
C. It reduces the overhead associated with opening a new connection each time a request is
issued by a user by reusing cached datastores.
D. It retains a database connection for each user of the system for a period of hours as defined in
the DdmConnCfg.ini file.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Assuming standard naming conventions, which metadata information is required, in Document Manager's Library Configuration, to work with data in the library?
A. Class and Revision
B. Class and State
C. Revision and Properties
D. State and Revision
Answer: B
Question 8.
In addition to a user name, password, and DM Library Server name, which additional item is required for the Designer to login to the library?
A. The Content Manager machine name.
B. A user with the SysAdminCM privilege set.
C. The Content Manager database name.
D. SOAP information if the server is not behind a firewall.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following commands can be used to determine the currently installed version of IBM Information Integrator for Content?
A. cmlevel
B. dmlevel
C. db2level
D. ii4clevel
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which INI file must be configured after the Document Manager Server is installed?
A. ddmconncfg.ini
B. ddmcache.ini
C. ddmcfgsv.ini
D. ddmcasrv.ini
Answer: D
Question 1.
A team has a heavily conventional group style. Their solutions are below average and they do not achieve synergy. The team members feel that the group could be doing somewhat better.
What is the best suggestion for minimizing the negative impact of this style?
A. Emphasize the importance of arriving at a consensus decision - one that all members can buy
into.
B. Establish a feeling of unity among group members. Remind the team that when the group
wins, everyone wins.
C. Play "devil's advocate" when group members keep proposing the same safe solution. Ask
probing questions to pinpoint the pros and cons of their solution.
D. Encourage the more reserved group members to speak up. They may be able to supply
missing information and a fresh perspective. Make sure to include them so they understand
their value to the team.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following best describes an example of subordinating all decisions to the output capability of the constriction, or bottleneck?
A. Additional capacity is obtained by purchasing the capital equipment needed to keep up with
demand.
B. The output of all operations in front of the bottleneck, including release, is reduced to match
that of the constriction.
C. The output capabilities for processes downstream from the bottleneck are increased so that
product will move quickly once it passes the constriction.
D. Capacity figures for all resources are reviewed and compared with demand in order to
determine the bottleneck department so that work schedules can be established.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following is the best definition of Manufacturing Cycle Time?
A. It is the total time it takes to process, ship and deliver a product to a customer.
B. It is the total time that it takes to process a product through a Manufacturing line.
C. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials to stock through
delivery to the customer.
D. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials through the last
manufacturing operation excluding non-value-added process steps.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which of the following best describes the benefits of Takt Management in a manufacturing line?
A. Hourly output is monitored versus hourly demand so that production shortfalls can be identified
and addressed.
B. Hourly fluctuations in WIP are monitored and reasons for special cause variation are identified
and addressed.
C. As constrictions, or bottlenecks, move throughout the manufacturing line, the bottleneck is
identified and Takt targets are increased.
D. Ongoing process improvement is achieved by identifying enhancers and detractors to output
resulting in improvement opportunities for the line.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following is a constructive cultural characteristic of an effective team?
A. The team leader is expected to provide initiative.
B. The team takes a "failure is not an option" attitude when identifying goals.
C. Individual accomplishment is recognized and rewarded as a model for other team members.
D. People are encouraged to be decisive, take moderate risks, take initiative and be accountable.
Answer: D
Question 6.
One of an organization's productivity values is "Prioritization is a major barrier to production."
Which of the following run rules supports that value?
A. First In First Out (FIFO) will be practiced in all areas.
B. Engineering builds are exempt from any prioritization run rules.
C. Complete Takt charts hourly.
D. Respect customer Kanban limits.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is a critical rule for the successful implementation of a Kanban system?
A. Limits may be violated by the supplier only.
B. Once established, limits should never change, regardless of the reason.
C. Limits should be reviewed regularly, and changed when necessary by a central authority.
D. A customer should feel free to request a violation of established limits for any reason, because
they best recognize their own needs.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which of the following is an attribute of an effective team?
A. Works toward reaching consensus
B. Expects conformity from team members
C. Uses a democratic process for decision-making
D. Encourages discussion until the leader closes the topic
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following is the most effective technique for performing queuing analysis?
A. Process Mapping
B. Pareto Analysis
C. Simulation Modeling
D. Statistical Process Analysis
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which of the following WIP management techniques promotes the concept of root cause analysis?
A. A capacitated release strategy implementation
B. Dynabans implementation
C. Kanbans implementation
D. Takt management implementation
Answer: D
Question 1.
The semi-live backup strategy minimizes VOB downtime by locking the VOB only long enough to copy the database subdirectory of the VOB's physical storage area.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following actions can you complete using the clearicense command? (Select all that apply)
A. Enable license auditing
B. Report on current license use
C. Release a license
D. Add new license codes
E. Establish priority user licenses.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 3.
To access views and VOB's from a region they must have a tag in that region.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which command lists all view-tags in the current region?
A. dir of the MVFS drive
B. cleartool setview -all
C. cleartool lsview
D. cleartool is of the MVFS drive
Answer: C
Question 5.
The storage directories of the dynamic view and snapshot view contain the same subdirectories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following objects are viible in the ClearCase Explorer display? (Select all that apply)
A. Hyperlink
B. View-private file
C. Hard link
D. DIRECTORY ELEMENT
E. Symbolic link
Answer: A, B, C
Question 7.
The default behavior of the clearesport_rcs and clearexport_pvcs commands is to translate symbols into labels or branches as appropriate.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 8.
Entering a ClearCase command causes a trigger to fire. The trigger's associated script references a comment linked with that command.
Which environment variable does the script use to identify the comment entered with the ClearCase command?
A. CLEARCASE_CMNT_PN
B. CLEARCASE_CQ
C. CLEARCASE_CFILE
D. CLEARCASE_DESCRIP
E. CLEARCASE_COMMENT
Answer: E
Question 9.
The VOB semi-live backup strategy is only available for version 3.2.1 and higher VOB's
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 10.
On the host where the view storage directory resides, an asterisk ( * ) appears to the left of a view - tag in Isview output.
What does the asterisk mean? (Select all that apply)
A. View storage directory resides on the local host.
B. View server process is running
C. View is currently in use
D. View is visible on the MVFS drive
Answer: B,D
Question 1.
Which of the following verification points appear in the Asset pane when a script is being viewed? (Select all that apply.)
A. Window Image
B. File Existence
C. File Comparison
D. Region Image
E. Module Existence
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
A GUI functional test script with no verification points can still be part of a valid application test
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following are characteristics of scripts? (Select all that apply.)
A. They contain actual results of the verification points included
B. They are files that Robot can execute
C. They can be executed by a Robot suite
D. They can be executed by a TestManager suite
E. They may contain properties, such as the type and purpose of the script
Answer: B, D, E
Question 4.
Which of the following statements describe the baseline data of a verification point? (Select all that apply.)
A. Editable file containing input data used during the script playback
B. Actual state of the object when the script is played back
C. Object information captured during recording
D. Expected state of the object during subsequent builds
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
Where should verification points be inserted into scripts?
A. At every object in the application
B. At every data entry field
C. At every feature you want to test
D. At every window and dialog box
Answer: C
Question 6.
The Timeout value for a wait state is 30 seconds and the verification point passes in 5 seconds
What does Robot do?
A. Continues to wait until the 30 seconds has passed, then executes the remainder of the script
B. Waits 30 seconds, then attempts the verification point again
C. Waits 5 seconds, then executes the remainder of the script
D. Immediately continues the execution of the remainder of the script
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is the purpose of Datapools?
A. To report on errors written to log files during testing
B. To track or "pool" data written to log files during testing
C. To provide unique input data to scripts executed multiple times
D. To provide response time data for different types of input data
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the purpose of the Alphanumeric verification point type?
A. To test data in windows objects that contain text;for example,pushbuttons and labels
B. To verify the existence of a file by comparing the name to a stored variable
C. To do a byte-for-byte comparison of data within a file
D. To capture data from a spreadsheet to compare to a file
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the purpose of the Object Properties verification point type?
A. To compare the properties of a window;e.g. normal,minimized,maximized,or hidden
B. To capture and compare properties 01 standard Windows objects
C. To compare the properties of the application ;e.g control location,menu options,etc
D. To test data in windows objects that contain text;for example,pushbuttons and labels
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following can be viewed through the Comparators? (Select all that apply.)
A. Causes of application failures
B. Actual results of verification points for this run
C. Messages sent to external log files
D. Baseline data for verification points
Answer: B, D
