|
Question 1.
Within the Encrypted Security payload (ESP) extension header, which of the following identifies the encryption association?
A. Security Parameters Index (SPI)
B. Payload Type.
C. Padding.
D. Sequence Number.
Answer: A
Explanation:
By combining the SPI with the destination address and the Security Protocol (ESP) identifies the security association of the packet. The SPI is an unsigned 32-bit integer.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ESP header does not have a field called the payload type. There is payload data and payload length, for the length of the payload. The type of payload is actually stored in the next header field.
C: Padding are the characters added after the data payload. The number of padding characters is determined by a pad length. Padding is used to control the size and alignment of the message. The Pad Length indicates the number of 8-bit passing bytes to be added after the data. The padding ensures the message ends on a 64-bit boundary.
D: The sequence number is used for anti-replay.
Question 2.
Why were checksums eliminated from IPv6?
A. To introduce alternative error checking.
B. To accommodate different topologies.
C. To increase packet processing speed.
D. To increase MTU discovery over networks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Checksums were eliminated to reduce overhead and speed packet processing. Calculation of the checksum was a mathematical operation that took time, and by eliminating it eliminated that overhead.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The purpose was not to offer alternative checking, it was to get rid of the checking because checksums and CRC checks occurred in other places.
B: The topology was not affected by the checksum, so having it would not affect any new or different topologies.
D: The objective was to speed up all processing, and not directed at any one particular function.
Question 3.
Which of the following choices lists the recommended sequence of IPv6 extension headers?
A. Destination options, authentication, Hop-by-Hop, routing.
B. Hop-by-hop, routing, destination options, authentication.
C. Destination options, routing, hop-by-hop, authentication.
D. Hop-by-hop, destination options, routing, authentication.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is the order as specified. Hop by Hop has to be processed by all nodes that the packet flows through, so for performance should be up front. Routing and Destination options are used for actually routing and delivery of the packet.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These are wrong, you need to memorize the correct recommended order. Note that you can use any order in real life, these are a recommended ordering.
Question 4.
In IPv6, what is the new name for the point-to point address introduced in IPv4?
A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Vericast
D. Multicast
Answer: A
Explanation:
Unicast refers to a single point-to-point address.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Anycast is a group address, where one member of the group processes the message. It is still a point to many addressing scheme since the message is addressed to a group.
C: Vericast is not a term used in Ipv6, and is probably a detractor thrown in to confuse you.
D: Multicast is a group address, where everyone in the group processes the message. It is a point to many addressing scheme.
Question 5.
In IPv6, which configuration scheme requires an address server to allocate an IP address to a client from a pool of addresses?
A. Stateless autoconfiguration.
B. Stateless configuration.
C. Stateful autoconfiguration.
D. Stateful configuration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stateful autoconfiguration requires a server. If it is stateful, state is accomplished from the server, if it is stateless, then client generates its own IP address.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Stateless autoconfiguration does not require a server.
B, D: Stateless and Stateful refer to autoconfiguration, not configuration.
Question 6.
What is the difference between Anycast and multicast?
A. Multicast is used to reference a group, whereas Anycast is not.
B. Anycast communicates only with the closest member in a group, whereas multicast communicates to the entire group.
C. Multicast delivers only to the first in the group, whereas Anycast delivers the group as a whole.
D. Multicast is used to reference a group, whereas Anycast is used to reference a Single entity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multicast identifies a group of hosts. All hosts will process the message. Anycast also identifies a group of hosts. Only one member will process the message. It is usually the closest member of the group.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Both Anycast and Multicast reference a group.
C: The message is delivered to the entire group in both cases. But in Anycast, only one member processes the message.
D: Both Anycast and Multicast reference a group.
Question 7.
Which feature of Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) in IPv6 was excluded from Internet control message protocol (ICMP) in IPv6?
A. Group membership query.
B. Information request/information reply.
C. Router solicitation/router advertisement.
D. Group membership report/reduction.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information Request and Information Reply was excluded and not made part of ICMPv6.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Group Membership Query is now part of ICMPv6
C: Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement are included in ICMPv6.
D: Group Membership Report and Group Membership reduction are now part of ICMPv6.
Question 8.
Which extension header is identified by value 0 in the next header field?
A. Routing extension header.
B. Destination options extension header.
C. Hop-by-hop extension header.
D. Fragment extension header.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The following table should be memorized, these are the code mappings.
xt Field Function
Next Header Field Function
0 Hop by hop options header
43 Routing Header
44 Fragment Header
60 Destination Options Header
52 ESP Header
59 No Next Header
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: The proper codes for these headers can be searched in the given table above.
Question 9.
Which part of an IPv6 packet is similar to IPv4 option field?
A. The data header.
B. The extension header.
C. The next header.
D. The transmission header.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ipv6 can specify options after the main header by using extension headers.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There is a packet header, and headers for the extensions. There is no data header.
C: The Next Header identifies the type of Header Extension that comes next, but it does not provide actual information on the options themselves.
D: There is a packet header, and headers for the extensions. There is no transmission header.
Question 10.
IPv6 implements security at the Internet layer with an encrypted security payload (ESP) extension header. What is this security concept called?
A. Authentication.
B. Initialization.
C. Padding.
D. Confidentiality.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ESP is used for encryption services. When the packet is encrypted, only those who have the correct keys can decrypt the data and read it. If you don’t have the keys, you can’t read the data. The data is protected from unauthorized entities from reading the data, so the data’s confidentiality if maintained.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Authentication of the packet is accomplished by the authentication extension header, which would be designated by the Next Header Field by a code 51.
B: This is not termed initialization.
C: This is not termed padding.
|
thanks buddy
|
Question 1.
What is the purpose of the dbccdb database?:
A. It is required for running any dbcc command
B. It is required for running the dbcc checkstorage command
C. It is required for running the dbcc memusage command
D. It is required for running dbcc trace
E. It is not required for anything
Answer: B
Question 2.
The sybsecurity database is only needed if you plan on using:
A. auditing
B. user defined roles
C. user defined groups
D. row level access control
Answer: A
Question 3.
The system table sysindexes exists in which of the following databases? (choose all that apply):
A. master
B. sybsystemprocs
C. tempdb
D. any user database
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 4.
Identify the segment names that are common to all databases.
A. system
B. table
C. logsegment
D. default
E. index
F. user
G. data
Answer: A, C, D
Question 5.
Which databases are required for a properly functioning ASE?
A. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemprocs, sybsystemdb
B. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemprocs, sybsecurity
C. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemdb, sybsecurity, dbccdb
D. master, model, tempdb, dbccdb, sybsystemprocs
Answer: A
Question 6.
In order to use the unichar and univarchar datatypes to store Unicode data, the ASE default character set must be set to: (choose one)
A. iso_1
B. roman8
C. cp850
D. utf8
E. cp437
Answer: D
Question 7.
With the create database command you can specify database size in (choose all that apply):
A. megabytes
B. kilobytes
C. gigabytes
D. pages
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
With the disk init command you can specify database device size in (choose all that apply):
A. megabytes
B. kilobytes
C. gigabytes
D. pages
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 9.
What is true of the master device (choose three):
A. The master database can be extended only on to the master device.
B. The master device must be left as a default device
C. The master device has a virtual device number of 0
D. The master device location is an optional parameter to the dataserver program on Unix (or the
sqlsrvr.exe program on Microsoft Windows) when starting the server
E. The master device is created by the database administrator executing the "disk init" command
F. The master device's minimum size increases as the logical page size increases
Answer: A, C, F
Question 10.
The logical page size can be set
A. when creating the server
B. when upgrading the server
C. when creating a database
D. when loading the database
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
If a subcription is created using the parameter without holdlock, the materialization method is:
A. Automatic atomic incremental
B. Automatic nonatomic
C. Bulk Atomic
D. Bulk Nonatomic
Answer: B
Question 2.
A route is required from Replication Server A to Replication Server B if data will: ( Choose 2)
A. Be Replicated from A to B
B. Be Replicated from B to A.
C. Not be replicated between the two Replication Servers.
D. Be Replicated in both directions - A to B and B to A.
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
Which of the following are TRUE about subscriptions? (Choose 2)
A. Columns with a defined lenght greater thatn 255 bytes cannot be named in where clauses.
B. Values with more than 255 bytes cannot be used in where clauses.
C. Columns with a defined length greater that 255 bytes can be named in where clauses.
D. Values with more that 255 bytes can be used in where clauses.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
Which of the following are TRUE about request functions?
A. They replicate the execution of stored procedures in a primary database to a replicate
database.
B. Deliver the execution of stored procedure from a replicate database to a primary database.
C. They Require a subcription at the replicate datgabase.
D. They Replicate operations that are difficult the express though subscriptions to tables.
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following should be done first if the DSI Suspends?
A. Resume connection server.database skip transaction
B. rs_subcmp
C. Read the error logs
D. admin quiesce_check
E. rs_helpexception
Answer: C
Question 6.
Where does Replication Server get the address of other servers?
A. The ID Server
B. The interfaces file
C. The primary database
D. The replicate database
E. The rs_site table.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A database can be added to a Replication Server system using: (Choose 3)
A. create connection
B. create database
C. rs_int
D. rs_subcmp
E. Sybase Central
Answer: A, C, E
Question 8.
Which of the following is TRUE in a Warm Standby environment?
A. replication definitions are required.
B. subscriptions are required.
C. replication definitions are optional
D. subscriptions are optional.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following are TRUE about automatic Warm Standby? (Choose Three)
A. Stored procedure execution is automatically marked for replication.
B. Changes to master database are not replicated.
C. User and Group Information are Replicated.
D. Only the Resuls of triggers are replicated.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 10.
If changes take place on a primary table during bulk materialization, Which of the following would help prevent duplicates?
A. Nothing- You would need to run rs_subcmp afterwards.
B. Shutdown the RepAgent in the source database.
C. Turn on autocorrection for the replication definition underlying the subscription.
D. Truncate the inbound queue.
Answer: C
|
Question 1. What statements are TRUE for menus in an MDI? (Choose 2) A. A menu associated with a frame can also be used by sheets. B. Sheets that appear within a frame can have their own menus. C. A menu associated with a frame cannot use the ParentWindow pronoun. D. A menu cannot be dynamically assigned to a sheet. Answer: A, B Question 2. How many events does the PowerObject system class have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 0 Answer: D Question 3. The default events for a Custom Class user object are: A. activate and deactivate B. constructor and destructor C. open and close D. idle and systemerror Answer: B Question 4. By default PowerBuilder provides one global instance of what types of standard class user objects? (Choose 3) A. Message object B. Error object C. DynamicStagingArea object D. Pipeline object E. TraceObject object Answer: A, B, C Question 5. Calling the DataWindow controls AcceptText() method (Choose 3) A. from a GetFocus event may cause an infinite loop. B. may trigger an ItemChanged event. C. from a LoseFocus event may cause an infinite loop. D. may trigger an ItemError event. Answer: B, C, D Question 6. Which of the following identifies the PowerScript code to access a block of data specified by rows and columns? Any la_data A. la_data = dw_1.object.column_one[1,1,3,4] B. la_data = dw_1.data[1,1,3,4] C. la_data = dw_1.object.data[1,1,3,4] D. la_data = dw_1.object.column_one.primary.current[1,3] Answer: C Question 7. Select the CORRECT Update statement that will perform an AcceptText() and keep the update flags on a DataWindow Control, dw_1. A. dw_1.update (TRUE, TRUE) B. dw_1.update (TRUE, FALSE) C. dw_1.update (FALSE, TRUE) D. dw_1.update (FALSE, FALSE) Answer: B Question 8. The DataWindow Control function SelectRow ______________. A. highlights or removes highlights for a row and makes it the current row. B. allows the user to select one or more rows. C. works only with DataWindow controls and not DataStore objects. D. allows the user to select one and only one row. Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following DataWindow control functions will cause database activity to occur? (Choose 2) A. SelectRow() B. ReselectRow() C. DeleteRow() D. SetTransObject() E. Update() Answer: B, E Question 10. Which functions EXIST on the DataStore object? (Choose 3) A. SelectRow() B. GenerateResultSet() C. GetItemFormattedString() D. SetRowFocusIndicator() Answer: A, B, C
|
Question 1.
Use this process definition in the exhibit to answer the following question.
If the exception handler's after execute property is set to rethrow and ConvertPriceListToPriceQuoteXML throws an exception, what happens?
A. The exception handler is executed, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the
process throws a generic unchecked exception.
B. The exception handler is executed, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the
process throws a checked exception.
C. The exception handler is executed, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the
exception is re-thrown, bubbling up to a global exception handler.
D. The exception handler is skipped, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the
exception is re-thrown, bubbling up to a global exception handler.
E. None of these
Answer: E
Question 2.
Exhibit
A Web service offers tax advice. The Web service operation takes in a federal tax form (in XML format) and outputs a document that reports any errors and suggests tips for saving money. This operation takes a long time to execute, and a relatively heavily load is expected; therefore the output document is delivered as an asynchronous callback.
Which operation is best for receiving the federal tax form?
A. op1
B. op2
C. op3
D. op4
E. op5
Answer: A
Question 3.
In WebLogic Workshop, which of these has the broadest scope?
A. Project
B. Library
C. Module
D. Process
E. Application
Answer: E
Question 4.
In WebLogic Workshop, how does a developer create a Java Process Definition (JPD) source file within an application?
A. By using the Process Control
B. By creating a Process Project
C. By creating a Process Module
D. By selecting New > Process File from the processes folder
E. B or D
Answer: B
Question 5.
In WebLogic Workshop, which option can assist a developer in reducing the time and resources required for Schema project builds?
A. Disabling the auto-build feature
B. Creating multiple Schema projects
C. Disabling the use of XMLBeans on the Schema Project Properties menu
D. A and B
E. A and C
Answer: D
Question 6.
Consider this code snippet:
try {
MBeanHomehome = getMBeanHome(url, username, password);
ApplicationRuntimeMBeanapp = getApplicationRuntimeMBean(home, appName);
WebAppComponentRuntimeMBeanwebapp =
getWebAppComponentRuntimeMBean(app,ctxRoot);
ServletRuntimeMBeanservlet = getServletRuntimeMBean(webapp,servletName);
System.out.println("Invocation count is " +
servlet.getInvocationTotalCount());
} catch (Exception e) {
System.out.println("Exception caught: " + e);
}}
What information does the code provide?
A. Runtime information about all Servlet Sessions
B. Runtime invocation totals for a Servlet
C. Runtime information for all Servlets on a specific server
D. Configuration information defined in the deployment descriptors of all Servlets
E. Runtime information for all Servlets that have been invoked at least once
Answer: B
Question 7.
To deploy a WebLogic Integration application on a production server, you must create some resources manually.
Which file lists these resources?
A. application.xml
B. wli-process.xml
C. wlw-manifest.xml
D. weblogic-application.xml
E. A, B, C and D
Answer: C
Question 8.
In the WebLogic Administration Console, applications can be deployed to which targets?
A. Servers and Machines
B. Servers and Clusters
C. Machines and Clusters
D. Servers, Machines, and Clusters
E. Servers, Machines, Clusters, and Realms
Answer: B
Question 9.
Consider this documentation comment and code fragment:
/**
* Analyzes text for possible copyright violations
*
* @param text text to be analyzed
*/
public void processText(String text) { //code here }
Which statement is true?
A. This is a valid documentation comment.
B. A @method tag is required for this to be a valid documentation comment.
C. An @author tag is required for this to be a valid documentation comment.
D. An @exception tag is required for this to be a valid documentation comment.
E. The asterisk (*) usage is malformed and in violation of documentation comment requirements.
Answer: A
Question 10.
To mark an operation with a "start" conversation phase, a Web service developer can use the property editor.
What is another way to accomplish this?
A. Directly editing the Java comments in the source file
B. Dragging and dropping the Start Conversation Phase icon from the palette onto the operation
C. Right-clicking the operation in Design View and selecting the conversation phase from the
menu
D. Double-clicking the operation in Design View and selecting the conversation phase from the
pop-up
E. There is no other way to accomplish this.
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled
interfaces between the consumers of functionality and the applications that represent that
functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management
that facilitate the delivery of enterprise functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications
into interoperable, standards-based services that can be combined and reused quickly to meet
business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software
development methodologies, principally based on Web Services, which may be incorporated
into enterprise software engineering to provide information technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C
Question 2.
When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not
benefit from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality among them is essentially built into their
construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among
them cannot be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the
exposing of functionality from those systems as services would be an extremely complex
operation.
Answer: A, C, E
Question 3.
The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and
deployed for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in
a way that is measurable and manageable and meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems
are coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into
information technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a
roadmap for the creation and deployment of shared services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question 4.
What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise
architecture may be drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best
Practicesbased approach to constructing a modern enterprise.
Answer: A
Question 5.
How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of
interoperability among supporting technologies and vendor solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
At a minimum, Services Management should include:
A. Security Implementation Details.
B. Service registration and discovery.
C. Business Process instances.
D. Java Control tracking.
E. The Message Broker.
Answer: B
Question 7.
What is the relationship between SOA and Event-driven Architecture (EDA)?
A. SOA is an essential element of EDA.
B. EDA is an essential element of SOA.
C. SOA and EDA are mutually exclusive. A given enterprise will choose between them and base
their enterprise architecture on their chosen approach.
D. SOA and EDA are complementary. A given enterprise that is adopting SOA will likely
incorporate EDA into their overall enterprise architecture.
Answer: D
Question 8.
What is the prime architectural role of Shared Business Services layer?
A. To encapsulate existing business functions in "back office" enterprise information systems
B. To provide business activity management
C. To leverage the services in the information and access layer to provide common business
functions
D. To create new enterprise business applications
Answer: C
Question 9.
What is the primary advantage of producing a written artifact describing the reference architecture?
A. It is expressive, completely reusable and easy to implement in each case.
B. It represents the best collective effort of the entire software industry.
C. It is expressive, generally reusable and has been proven over time.
D. It provides an expressive way to solve problems and is easy to catalog.
E. It defines proven techniques providing easy solutions to difficult problems.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which of the following is an accurate characterization of SOA?
A. SOA is focused the way individual projects or lines of business deliver information technology.
B. SOA is only of interest to IT.
C. SOA will ultimately be dependent on the chosen implementation technology and/or vendor.
D. SOA determines the way that individual applications deliver functionality to consumers.
E. All of the above.
F. None of the above.
Answer: F
|
Question 1.
Titan Communications is a provider of cable TV, wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization.
What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: A
Question 2.
Felicity Financial Services is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier provider of tailored services to leading edge investors in areas of fixed income securities, vanilla and exotic derivatives, and whole loan investments.
What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Felicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D
Question 3.
Chasm, Inc., a clothing retailer, is executing on their SOA program. They have created a reference architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities. Some members of IT management are unaware of the SOA program, while other managers are unclear as to why they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new promotions.
Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: C, F
Question 4.
Great North Travel is a multi-national travel agency implementing an SOA program. The program was sponsored by the highest levels of both business and IT management, and is seen as a key tactic to their customer satisfaction improvement and new product introduction strategies. A number of in-progress initiatives are using various EAI technologies to perform integration, and there is no sharing of artifacts among these initiatives. Furthermore, these initiatives all seem to be developing separate, and overlapping, customer data stores.
Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: D, F
Question 5.
Acme Builders, inc. has created an SOA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support, diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of these services is growing.
Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their SOA transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose
D. Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
Answer: A, F
Question 6:
Serendipity Securities, Inc. has two major business objectives:
1. Ensure consistent customer information and service capabilities across all product lines and all
customer channels (interactive voice response, call centre, and website)
2. Maintain business unit autonomy so new products and/or services can be introduced in a
timely fashion.
What is the likelihood of achieving all the objectives through an SOA program?
A. Both objectives can be met; both agility and consistency are complementary.
B. It is unlikely the objectives can be met because agility and consistency are contradictory.
C. There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with product information, and
some compromise must be made between the business units
D. There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with customer information, and
some compromise must be made between the business units
Answer: D
Question 7.
Acme, Inc. is conducting an SOA transformation program. The program has been accepted by IT senior management. The SOA steering committee has determined the appropriate priorities and complexities of services, and how they should be harvested. The technical team has a good architectural understanding of the design considerations and infrastructure needed to support the target services. Acme has not yet constructed or harvested any services.
What should Acme focus on next?
A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C. A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services
D. Initial common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be
harvested and/or constructed
Answer: D
Question 8.
FlyHigh Airlines is planning their SOA program. An initial assessment of capability has been made, but no other planning has begun to date.
What should FlyHigh focus on next?
A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C. A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services and assess the
required infrastructure investment
D. Common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be
constructed
Answer: A
Question 9.
Johnston Marks, a regional bank, are looking to use SOA as a way to improve their product development processes to support their growing business. Their primary problem is in dealing with the volume and diversity of information required in developing a product. Currently, usage feedback, marketing research information, and industry intelligence is gathered through a variety of legacy systems, spreadsheets, desktop databases, letter mail, and FAX.
Which two goals are most appropriate for leveraging SOA in this process improvement exercise?
A. Reduce variance and ensure repeatability of the process
B. Eliminate some sources of information through services
C. Provide more consistent and managed interfaces to the various information sources
D. Enable the incorporation of newer and higher volume sources into the process
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
An automated business process requires human intervention only if an event occurs during its execution.
What is the term for this pattern?
A. Fork/Join
B. Escalation
C. Delegation
D. Exception Handling
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a typical function of an Intrusion Detection System?
A. Monitors segment traffic to detect suspicious activity
B. Monitors network traffic and corrects attacks
C. Monitors traffic patterns to report on malicious events
D. Monitors individual hosts (HIDS) or network segments (NIDS)
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which best describes a SYN Flood attack?
A. Attacker redirects unusually large number of SYN/ACK packets
B. Attacker sends relatively large number of altered SYN packets
C. Attacker floods a host with a relatively large number of unaltered SYN packets
D. Attacker floods a host with an unusually large number of legitimate ACK packets
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which best describes a type of attack that aims to prevent the use of a service or host?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Denial of Service
C. IP Spoofing
D. Exploit
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which of the following is NOT a valid detection method used by Dragon Network Sensor?
A. Signature detection
B. Protocol detection
C. Policy detection
D. Anomaly detection
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which of the following is NOT a function of Dragon Forensics Console?
A. Allows for central configuration of Active Response mechanisms to deter network attacks
B. Centrally analyzes activity as it is occurring or has occurred over time
C. Correlates events together across Network Sensor, Host Sensor, and any other infrastructure
system (e.g., firewall, router) for which messages have been received (via Host Sensor log
forwarding)
D. Provides the tools for performing a forensics level analysis and reconstructing an attackers
session
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following does NOT describe Dragon Host Sensors Multi-Detection methods?
A. Monitors output to a hosts system and audit logs
B. Monitors a hosts files via MD5 integrity-checking
C. Monitors a hosts specified network interlace promiscuously for anomalous activity
D. Monitors a hosts specific file attributes for changes to owner, group, permissions and file size
E. Monitors a Windows hosts Registry for attributes that should not be accessed and/or modified
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the method that Dragon uses to secure the communication between the remote management host and Dragon Policy Manager?
A. SSH
B. SSL
C. IPSec
D. MD5
Answer: B
Question 8.
What is the primary and default source of event data tor Dragon RealTime Console?
A. dragon.log.xxxx
B. dragon.db
C. Ring Buffer
D. Dragon Workbench
Answer: C
Question 9.
For what purpose can Dragon Workbench be used?
A. Read data from TCPDUMP trace/capture file and write to dragon .db for later analysis
B. Read data from dragon.db file and write to a TCPDUMP trace/capture file for later analysis
C. Read data from RealTime Console and write to a TCPDUMP trace/capture file for later
analysis
D. This functionality is ONLY available on Dragon Appliances
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is one benefit of Dragon Network Sensors dual network interface capability as deployed on a non-Dragon Appliance system?
A. Secure management and reporting on one interface; Network Sensor invisible on other
interface
B. Allows for collection of event data from both interfaces simultaneously
C. Allows for protocol detection from one interface, and anomaly detection from the other
interface
D. This functionality is ONLY available on Dragon Appliances
Answer: A
|
Question 1. Authentication is used in Secure Application Provisioning to: A. Quarantine malicious traffic B. Persistently apply policy C. Allow configuration of a switch's host data port D. provide additional network access Answer: D Question 2. Saving a NetSight Atlas Policy Manager configuration to a .pmd file: A. Writes the configuration to NVRAM on the switches B. Allows for multiple configurations to be stored on the NMS C. Notifies the RADIUS server that new policies have been created D. Temporarily disables communication between all RADIUS clients until the save is complete Answer: B Question 3. Certificate services must be installed when using: A. EAP-TLS B. EAP-MD5 C. PWA D. MAC authentication Answer: A Question 4. Persistent policy assignment: A. Can be effective in an incremental deployment of acceptable use policy B. Is dependent upon a RADIUS back-end configuration C. Is deployed based on user authentication D. Cannot be used on uplink ports Answer: A Question 5. A distinguishing characteristic of PEAP is: A. It adds security by running over a VPN tunnel B. It uses salt encryption C. It requires that only the supplicant present a certificate D. It creates keying material using the Pseudo-Random Function Answer: D Question 6. In the Enterasys policy-enabled network model, on-demand policy assignment: A. Is the result of a manual configuration B. Makes use of the Filter-ID parameter C. Is overridden by a ports default role D. Requires the use of 802.1X authentication mechanisms Answer: B Question 7. All of the following are services which make up the pre-configured Acceptable Use Policy service group EXCEPT: A. Deny Spoofing B. Permit Legacy Protocols C. Limit Exposure to DoS attacks D. Protocol Priority Access Control Answer: B Question 8. After configuration changes have been made in NetSight Atlas Policy Manager, what must be done before the changes take effect on the devices? A. The NMS must be rebooted B. The changes must be enforced C. The changes must be verified D. Nothing the changes take effect immediately Answer: B Question 9. In the three-level policy model, Enterasys maps: A. The business/network level to classification rules B. The service-provisioning level to roles C. The device level to classification rules D. All of the above Answer: C Question 10. The Active Edge consists of: A. Policy-enabled switches B. Core routers C. SAP servers D. User resources Answer: A
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.