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Question 1.
What are three steps of the Security Wheel? (Choose three)
A. Improve
B. Log
C. Maintain
D. Test
E. Secure
F. Report
Answer: A, D, E,
Explanation:
The Security Wheel breaks network security into four separate phases:
Securing
Monitoring
Testing
Improving
Reference:
Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 35
Question 2.
Following termination of the VPN tunnel, what action is performed on remote user traffic in
the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. Traffic is sent through a Layer 2 switch.
B. Traffic is sent through a Layer 3 switch.
C. Traffic is sent through a firewall.
D. Traffic is sent through a router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Following termination of the VPN tunnel, traffic is sent through a firewall to ensure that VPN users are appropriately filtered.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 20
Question 3.
Which options can be chosen for TCP session reassembly on the IDS Sensor in the SAFE
SMR medium network design? (Choose two)
A. IP Reassembly
B. No reassembly
C. Loose reassembly
D. Total reassembly
Answer: B, C
Explanation: B, C
You can choose three options for TCP session reassembly.
ƒ No Reassembly
ƒ Loose Reassembly
ƒ Strict Reassembly
Reference:
Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 418
Question 4.
How many categories of ports exist within a VLAN.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are three categories of ports within a VLAN: isolated ports, community ports, and promiscuous ports.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/netsol/ns340/ns394/ns171/ns128/networking_solutions_white_paper09186a008014870f.shtml
Question 5.
What does RFC 2827 filtering prevent in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus
module?
A. Port redirection attacks.
B. Port mapping through the firewall.
C. Source-address spoofing.
D. Packet sniffers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
RFC 2827 filtering at the ingress router should also be implemented to mitigate the chance of an attacker from outside the network spoofing the addresses of the management hosts.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 71
Question 6.
What can mitigate the chance of a department accessing confidential information on another
department's server through the use of access control in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. General Layer 4 through 7 analysis
D. General Layer 1 through 3 analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Layer 3 switch provides a line of defense and prevention against internally originated attacks. It can mitigate the chance of a department accessing confidential information on another department's server through the use of access control. For example, a network that contains marketing and research and development might segment off the R&D server to a specific VLAN and filter access to it, ensuring that only R&D staff have access to it.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 23
Question 7.
What are the three modules in the SAFE SMR midsize network design? (Choose three)
A. Frame/ATM module
B. Campus module
C. ISP edge module
D. Corporate Internet module
E. WAN module
F. PSTN module
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
The SAFE medium network design consists of three modules:
The corporate Internet module
The campus module
The WAN module.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 14
Question 8.
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN connections?
(Choose two)
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections.
B. Only frame relay connections.
C. Private WAN connections.
D. ATM connections.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
From a WAN perspective, there are two options for the remote sites connecting into the medium design. The first is a private WAN connection using the WAN module; the second is an IPSec VPN into the corporate Internet module.
Reference:
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 16
Question 9.
Using the default, how does the Cisco IDS appliance log events? (Choose two)
A. Location
B. Type
C. Rule base
D. Effect
E. Severity
F. User option
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
Cisco Secure IDS Sensors can be configured to generate log file locally on the sensor. By default, the sensors are configured to send alarms of severity of medium and higher to CSPM.
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Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down.
What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Answer: E
Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.
User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Answer: C
Question 3.
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Answer: E
Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
Answer: A
Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:
A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP
addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in
The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses
in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same
subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP
Addresses in the same subnet
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Answer: D
Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?
A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems
Answer: B, C
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Question 1. Which of the following commands is used to add a device to the route? A. EXDRI B. EXDAI C. EXDRP D. EXDRE Answer: A Question 2. Which of the following is the correct command sequence for a CP Fault? A. REPRI,REMRI,RECPI B. REPCI,REMCI,RECCI C. RECCI,REPCI,REMCI D. GSTEI,NTTEI,TCTDI Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following commands is used to make a copy of backup file RELFSW1 to the oldest file in the SFR group? A. SYTUC B. SYNIC C. SYSFT D. SYFSC Answer: C Question 4. A rolling database of active and previous hardware alarms can be viewed using ______ ? A. ATR B. ALB C. ALV D. ASM Answer: B Question 5. Which file is used for automatic data dumps and automatic system reloads? A. RELFSW0 B. RELFSW1 C. .RELFSW2 D. RELFSW100 Answer: A Question 6. What MOs can be tested with a command-ordered equipment test? A. TG,TRXC,TX,RX and TS B. CF,IS,TF,TRXC,TX,RX and TS C. TG,CF,IS,TF,TRXC,RX,TX and TS D. TG,TS,RX and TX Answer: B Question 7. Which of the following commands is used to define a channel group for a cell? A. RLDEI B. RLDGI C. RLDEC D. RLDSI Answer: B Question 8. Which of the following commands is used to print the process control in service performance log data? A. PRINTPROCESS B. ALIST C. ISPPRINT D. ALOGLIST Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following pairs of commands is used to replace the software version for the Managed Objects? A. RXEST and RXPLI B. RXMOI and RXMSC C. RXMSC and RXPLE D. RXMSC and RXPLI Answer: D Question 10. Software Error Information can be retrieved by command_____ ? A. PTRIP B. SYRIP C. SYDIP D. SYRSP Answer: B
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Question 1. The abbreviation "VSWR" stands for ___. A. Variable Signal Wave Radio B. Voltage Strength Wire Ratio C. Very Strong Wave Radio D. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio Answer: D Question 2. What is the proper resistance of an ESD wrist strap? A. 1 ohm(O) B. 1 Mega ohm (MO) C. 10 O D. 1 MO Answer: B Question 3. In OMT, what view shows the RUs installed in the GSM cabinet? A. System View B. Radio view C. MO View D. Cabinet View Answer: D Question 4. What could a flashing green LED indicate in an MPU? A. Fault is localized B. Wait, activity in progress C. Battery Power depleted D. None of the above Answer: B Question 5. What common LED indicators are in the CDU, PSU, BFU, and dTRU? A. RBS Fault B. Operational C. Fault D. B and C Answer: D Question 6. How many T1s can one DXU-21 support? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: D Question 7. An ESD wrist strap must always be used when handling or installing_____. A. a DXU B. printed circuit boards C. TRU/dTRU D. All of the above Answer: D Question 8. Bends to RF cables (coaxial) should be a minimum often (10) times the cable diameter. A. RLSTC:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED; B. RLSTC:SITE=12002,STATE=HALTED; C. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, HALTED, D. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED; Answer: A Question 9. The abbreviation "COD" stands for_____ A. Command Document B. Command Description C. Command On Demand D. None of the above Answer: B Question 10. In OMT, the System View shows: A. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, ISP, and ESB B. BTS, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESI C. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ETS D. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESB Answer: D
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Question 1.
What are three functions of the BlackBerry Policy Service? (Choose three.)
A. Sends a set of rules that configures BlackBerry device security features
B. Polls for applications that are installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Compresses and encrypts data to and from the BlackBerry device
D. Sends service books that configure BlackBerry device functionality
E. Synchronizes any custom security settings on the BlackBerry device
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
A system administrator wants to wirelessly deploy a third-party application to multiple BlackBerry devices while providing the BlackBerry device users with the ability to remove the software at a later time.
What must the disposition of the assigned application control policy be set to, in order to accomplish this? (Choose one.)
A. Required
B. Optional
C. Disallowed
D. Prompt
E. Available
Answer: B
Question 3.
When setting up a software configuration, the Configuration Status field shows Unknown Configuration for a specific BlackBerry device user account.
Which statement is true? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server has not polled the BlackBerry Configuration Database for
which applications need to be installed/removed on the BlackBerry device.
B. The user has not yet been assigned to a software configuration.
C. The delivery method within the software configuration for this application has not yet been set.
D. The Disallow Third-Party Downloads IT policy has been set to True.
E. The Applications directory needs to be indexed so the software configuration status can be
updated to reflect the current applications that need to be installed or removed.
Answer: A
Question 4.
A company utilizing a segmented network, installs the BlackBerry Attachment Server on its own server in a separate segment from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. With which component would the BlackBerry Attachment Server be unable to communicate if it was installed in a different segment of the network? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Exchange Server
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher
E. BlackBerry Controller
Answer: C
Question 5.
A new BlackBerry device user is unable to perform a wireless enterprise activation because there is insufficient network coverage. The user has the BlackBerry Desktop Manager installed. When attempting to perform a wired enterprise activation, the enterprise activation is unable to initialize.
Which three actions ensure the enterprise activation initializes? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to a new USB port on the computer.
B. Create a new MAPI profile on computer.
C. Enable port 4101 on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. Delete and undelete the Desktop [SYNC] service book on the BlackBerry device.
E. Uninstall and reinstall the BlackBerry Desktop Manager software on the computer.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 6.
A company utilizing a segmented network structure recently installed the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, configured it to use the TLS protocol for Microsoft Windows Messenger on its own server, and placed it in a network segment from the Microsoft Live Communications Server.
Which port must be open on the internal firewall to allow TLS traffic? (Choose one.)
A. 5061
B. 5060
C. 443
D. 8443
E. 1533
Answer: A
Question 7.
A PIN message is sent from the BlackBerry device and a letter D is displayed above the checkmark beside the message in the message list.
What does this indicate about the status of the message? (Choose one.)
A. It is delayed.
B. It is denied.
C. It is delivered.
D. It is deleted.
E. It is dropped.
Answer: C
Question 8.
A company needs to reduce the load on the Microsoft SQL Server hosting the BlackBerryConfiguration Database. Which component can be configured to reduce the number of queries made by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the database? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft SQL Query Analyzer
B. BlackBerry Manager
C. Database Notification System
D. Database Replication System
E. Microsoft SQL Server Agent
Answer: C
Question 9.
What option can be disabled to restrict Microsoft Excel attachments only for the BlackBerry Attachment Service? (Choose one.)
A. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Server Configuration utility
B. The attachment type using an IT policy setting in the BlackBerry Manager
C. Attachment viewing through the BlackBerry device user properties on the BlackBerry Manager
D. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Resource Kit
E. The BlackBerry Attachment Service through Microsoft Windows services
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which type of database replication is supported in the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose one.)
A. Transactional
B. Analytical processing
C. Merge
D. Snapshot
E. Architectural
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following LAN connection technologies has a full duplex speed of 200Mbps and uses a CAT5e cable? A. 1000Base-X B. 100Base-FX C. 1000Base-TX D. 100Base-T Answer: D Question 2. A technician must enable which of the following services to prevent broadcast storms? A. DHCP B. Port mirroring C. Spanning tree D. Bonding Answer: C Question 3. One end of a CAT5 cable is punched down following the 568B standard. The other end should be terminated using which standard to make a straight-through cable? A. 568B B. RJ-45 C. 568A D. RJ-11 Answer: A Question 4. Which of the following IPv4 address pairs would be able to share files on a network using a hub? A. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16 B. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/24 C. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16 D. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16 Answer: D Question 5. Which of the following networks has the LEAST likelihood of collisions? A. Ring B. Mesh C. Star D. Bus Answer: A Question 6. A technician is configuring a router for a SOHO network. The technician has changed the IP address scheme on the router and disabled DHCP service before the wireless was configured. After the router updates the information, the PC can no longer connect to the router. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to reestablish the connection while maintaining the routers current configuration state? A. Restart the PC so it obtains a new IP address from the router. B. Restart the router so that the PC obtains a new IP address. C. Assign a static IP address on the PC that matches the router. D. Use APIPA to connect the PC to the router. Answer: C Question 7. Which of the following is the number of bits used for IPv6? A. 128 B. 32 C. 64 D. 256 Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following network components would be used to create VLANs? A. Routers B. Gateways C. Switches D. Bridges Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following protocols is the MOST susceptible to a packet sniffer? A. SFTP B. SSH C. HTTPS D. SNMPv2 Answer: D Question 10. Which of the following WAN technologies uses fiber as a transmission medium? A. T1 B. ADSL C. E1 D. SONET Answer: D
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Question 1.
During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to conduct trade-offs between several approaches to the project execution.
The trade-offs are made between_______ .
A. Scope, issues, and risks.
B. Risk, schedule, and quality.
C. Cost, schedule, and quality.
D. Overhead, direct cost, and expenses.
E. Design, engineering, and implementation.
Answer: C
Question 2.
What is the core function of a project manager?
A. Project integration
B. Client interface
C. Systems design
D. Quality assurance
E. Facilitating meetings
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which two methods are valid for developing project task duration estimates? (Choose two)
A. Historical data
B. Expert judgement
C. Value engineering
D. Stochastic estimating
E. Bottoms-up estimating
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
Which component is used to estimate resource requirements, activity durations, and costs?
A. Project plan
B. Implementation plan
C. Business requirements
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
Exhibit:
Task A is dependent on the completion of Task B. Task C is dependent on the starting of
Task B.
Place the tasks in the order in which they will start.
Answer:
Question 6.
The firm you are working with, ITCertKeys.com, has a number of stakeholders with a wide variety of backgrounds. The stakeholders do not agree on the objectives for the project.
What is the first thing you should do in order to resolve the differences the stakeholders have with respect to the project objectives?
A. Conduct a series of meetings with all stakeholders.
B. Conduct a brainstorming session with all stakeholders.
C. Prepare and deliver a presentation on objective development to all stakeholders.
D. Conduct interviews with each stakeholder to understand which objectives they feel are critical.
Answer: D
Question 7.
The project is well under way and you notice that the enthusiastic support of an executive stakeholder has diminished. You believe the executive now has doubt about the project.
Which three abilities would best help a project manager resolve this situation? (Choose one)
A. The ability to manage team resources.
B. The ability to identify the areas of doubts.
C. The ability to develop meaningful status reports.
D. The ability to act without creating negative impact.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Your project team has five developers. Developers 1 has a personal issue with the work schedule of Developer 2, and refuses to work overtime unless Developer 2 also works overtime. All team members, except Developer 2 work five days a week, averaging between 45 to 52 hours per week. Developer 2 works four days a week, and averages 48 hours per week. Your project is 70 percent complete, and is three percent behind schedule. Everyone met their task duration goals up to this point, but the project has been slightly delayed by an external vendor. If everyone works together you think you can make up the slippage. You worry that Developer 1's issue will cause the project to be delayed further. The rest of the group is working well together and Developer 2 is not aware of the issue.
What should you do to resolve the issue?
A. Have the two team members get together and work out their issues.
B. Talk with Developer 1 to find out the real issues and help him work on these issues.
C. See if Developer 2 can change this work schedule until the project is back on track.
D. Conduct a team building process with all the team members and recognize each of them for
their accomplishments.
Answer: B
Question 9.
You project plan designates several development phases. Some of the phases overlap. Your plan indicates where executive management involvement should occur. Executive management involvement includes the sign-off upon completion of a phase and approval for the start of the next phase. The plan indicates that the executive management meeting should take place in ten days. You are aware that the current phase will not be completed for 20 days. You are three percent ahead of budget in terms of cost, and one percent ahead of budget in terms of time. These figures are in-line with the variance allowance set for the phase by the executive management at the inception of the phase.
What should you do?
A. Reduce the estimates of work outstanding to minimize the reported overrun in time and cost.
B. Move some of the incomplete tasks into a later phase as there is some slack in the plan that
could be utilized.
C. Speak to the executive on the executive management and explain the need to delay the
executive management meeting by 10 days.
D. Hold the executive management meeting in the previously appointed date so there is no
inconvenience to the executive management members.
Answer: C
Question 10.
The ratio of Budgeted Cost of Work Performed to Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWP/BCWS) is called______ .
A. Critical Ratio (CR)
B. Cost Variance (CV)
C. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
D. Schedule Performance Index (SPI)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Schedule performance index
The schedule performance index (SPI) is a ratio of the work performed on a task versus the work scheduled. Here is its formula:
SPI = BCWP/BCWSAn SPI of less than 1.0 means you're behind schedule; a value over 1.0 means you're taking less time than you expected.
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Question 1.
Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access control model?
A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
D. The user requiring access to the resource.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?
A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and
software
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to network resources?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
Question 4.
You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration, what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?
A. Halon
B. CO
C. Water
D. Foam
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Given: John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques. Question:
Which threat is being addressed?
A. Viruses
B. Adware
C. Spam
D. Spyware
Answer: C
Question 7.
Most current encryption schemes are based on
A. digital rights management
B. time stamps
C. randomizing
D. algorithms
Answer: D
Question 8.
Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?
A. Spoofing
B. DNS poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Kiting
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?
A. Public key
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Hash
Answer: D
Question 10.
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates.
The public key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?
A. Symmetric
B. Quantum
C. Asymmetric
D. Elliptical curve
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An administrator created a template of a Microsoft Windows XP SP3 virtual machine (VM) and now needs to modify it.
How can the administrator modify the template?
A. Export the template from the XenServer host, import it to another system, power it on and
Make the changes
B. Power on the VM template, make the changes and save the template
C. Create a new VM based on the original template, make the changes to the new VM and turn
the new VM into the new template
D. Put the XenServer host in Maintenance mode, make the changes to the VM template and then
exit Maintenance Mode
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which step requires an administrator to enable maintenance mode on a XenServer host?
A. Creating Fibre Channel storage repositories
B. Enabling high availability
C. Creating NIC bonds
D. Enabling storage multipathing
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which storage repository type allows an administrator to create a new storage repository that does not erase any existing data on the specified storage target?
A. EQUAL
B. NFS
C. EXT
D. NetApp
Answer: B
Question 4.
What must an administrator configure on the pool master to allow migration of virtual machines (VMs) between servers in the pool?
A. Shared Storage
B. NIC bond
C. High availability
D. Management Interface
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which is a valid MAC address?
A. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0:04
D. 127.0.0.1
Answer: C
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
An administrator needs to connect a network to an external VLAN using the command line interface (CLI). Click the Task button to place the steps necessary to connect a network to an external VLAN using the CLI in the correct order. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to place the steps in the correct order for an administrator to configure multipathing using XenCenter. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
What is the correct order of steps for the configuration of multipathing using XenCenter?
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two XenServer CLI commands are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Pool-ha-enable
B. Pool-backup
C. Pool-recover-slaves
D. Pool-create-pool
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
An administrator recently created an ISO library for a XenServer environment. The administrator now wants to make the ISO library available to all XenServer hosts.
What must the administrator do before the ISO library can be attached using XenCenter?
A. Copy the ISO library to the control domain
B. Build a directory to copy the ISO library into
C. Make an exploded network repository using FTP
D. Create an external NFS or CIFS share directory
Answer: D
Question 10.
An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0.
Which upgrade path should the administrator take?
A. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager
B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0
C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0
D. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1
Gb/sec
D. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8
Gb/sec
Answer: C
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the backend servers except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address.
On which entity should RNAT be configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?
A. ACL
B. Client
C. Virtual server
D. Back-end server
Answer: A
Question 3.
How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?
A. Use the default TCP monitor
B. Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C. Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D. Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E. Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
Answer: C
Question 4.
An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is functioning in the network environment.
What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?
A. The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver
B. The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected
C. The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver
D. The request and response rates option in the Dashboard oncete correct vserver is selected
Answer: B
Question 5.
Page 2 of 24
An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server performance.
Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?
A. Client connection count increases
B. Server side request rate increases
C. Client connection count decreases
D. Server side request rate decreases
Answer: D
Question 6.
An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
A. SNMP trap
B. SNMP user
C. SNMP group
D. SNMP community
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?
A. entityup
B. entitydown
C. monRespTimeoutAboveThresh
D. monRespTimeoutBelowThresh
Answer: D
Question 8.
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds.
How can the administrator create the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?
A. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
Answer: D
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator is planning on configuring health checks for services bound to web servers 1 and 2 which are listening on TCP port 80 for HTTP and TCP port 443 for HTTPS. Service1 receives the encrypted traffic and Service 2 receives the clear text traffic.
How should the administrator create the monitor for Service1 using the command line interface?
A. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -secure YES
B. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -secure YES
C. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -transparent NO
D. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -transparent NO
Answer: B
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Scenario: A multinational company operates in areas where there is significant threat of natural disaster. The administrator decides to create redundancy in their network because of a continuous power outage threat at the South America site. The company also has two sites in North America, one near New York and the other near the San Andreas fault line, a site of frequent earthquakes and tremors. The company also has a site in Tokyo, Japan, which experiences several natural disaster threats. The company plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and to prevent interruption of network services because of a local natural or human disaster.
Would a high availability (HA) deployment resolve the issue described in the scenario, and if so, how should the HA nodes be paired?
Click the Task button to answer.
Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:
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