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Question 1.
IPSEC is a standard that provides packet-level encryption. IPSEC is associated with which technology?
A. SSL
B. PPTP
C. L2TP
D. VPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is a problem that can cause a lot of discussion. From a software perspective, in Windows 2000, IPSEC is only supported on L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol). The first inclination would be to answer L2TP. But IPSEC is not a Windows standard, it is an Internet standard and was first available from router to router. When used from router to router, it is router software and not operating system software that applied here. So, IPSEC can be used for almost any type of transmission, but is used for tunneling and to create tunnel circuits between two points. For this reason, we select VPN (Virtual Tunneling Protocol), which includes both PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) and L2TP. If you wanted to answer this question exclusively under the premise of Windows 2000, then you would select L2TP. But we need to answer the question on a general basis when the question does NOT indicate a particular operating system.
Incorrect Answers:
A: SSL (Secured Sockets Layer) is a security protocol used for protecting data, and is also an encryption method. (IPSec is an encryption method too)
B: PPTP can use an IPSec tunnel if the tunnel is established between two routers. PPTP does not natively support IPSec.
C: L2TP may use IPSec (it is optional and has to be enabled for the transmission) and under Windows 2000 can use IPSec with L2TP natively. The choice between C & D for this question can be a toss-up and will bring on a lot of discussion.
Question 2.
Which choice best describes half-duplex data transmission?
A. Data travels in only one direction.
B. Data travels in two directions, but only one direction at a time
C. Data travels in two directions simultaneously, but only at half speed
D. Data travels in two directions simultaneously
Answer: B
Explanation:
That is the definition, it is a two way street, but one direction at a time.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is simplex.
C: There is no definition for this.
D: This is full-duplex.
Question 3.
Which common network component is a low-level device that amplifies the electronic signal traveling on a cable segment to ensure that these signals do not degrade?
A. Bridge
B. Repeater
C. Hub
D. Router
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is the definition of a repeater.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: These are segmentation devices that separate a network into segments. These can be viewed as a method to allow signals to travel farther, but these are high level devices and is a complex approach to extending a segment.
C: Hubs may or may not amplify signals. Switches usually do. But these devices are more complex than repeaters, and although they provide repeating functions, the correct answer here is an individual repeater inserted where signals might otherwise degrade.
Question 4.
Which connection medium operates at a maximum speed of 44.736 Mbps?
A. ISDN
B. DSL
C. T3 line
D. T1 line
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the T3 transmission speed, which is usually duplex and gives you a max of 44.736 in EACH direction.
Incorrect Answers:
A: ISDN provides up to 144Kbps (2x64Kbps plus 16Kbps) channels.
B: DSL currently provides transmission speeds up to T1 speeds (1.544Mbps)
D: A T1 line transmits at a maximum of 1.544Mbps.
Question 5.
Your manager attended a half-day seminar and learned about polymorphic viruses. She asks you to explain them further. What feature of polymorphic viruses make them the most difficult viruses to detect?
A. They avoid detection by redirecting hard-drive requests from the virus scanning software
B. They attach themselves to executable programs, making them undetectable when you list the
directory
C. These viruses are written as macros in Microsoft Word documents, so they go undetected
because virus scanning generally scans only executable files.
D. These viruses are able to appear as a different process each time they are run, thus they
elude detection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virus detection is based on examining a signature (the code segment) of the virus within a module. A polymorphic virus eludes detection by dynamically altering the signature as it infects other modules.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is a form of stealth viruses, that hide themselves.
B: This is the method of almost every executable virus.
C: These are Macro Viruses, and current virus detection programs are now capable of scanning for this type of virus.
Question 6.
Derek is creating an image map named "cityscape." in his HTML code. What must he use as the corresponding USEMAP name?
A. "cityscape""
B. cityscape.gif"
C. "#cityscape"
D. "!cityscape"
Answer: C
The USEMAP= "#cityscape" attribute with specifies that an image map with the name of cityscape should be used. The FaceMap image map must be defined at another location within the same HTML document. The USEMAP= "#cityscape" attribute and value specifies a local reference within the same HTML document.
Incorrect answers:
A, B, C: These are all incorrect USEMAP syntax.
Note:
An example of the use of an image map. First we define a map name. We insert the same name for the map as was specified in the USEMAP attribute above. Then we define the map with area elements. The code is included in the same HTML file as the code from the question above.
<map name="#cityscape">
<area shape="rect" coords="left-x, top-y, right-x, bottom-y">
<area shape="circle" coords="center-x, center-y, radius-x">
<area shape="poly" coords="x1,y1, x2,y2 x3,y3, ...">
</map>
Question 7.
What port does the Domain Name System (DNS) use?
A. 21
B. 80
C. 53
D. 25
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS uses TCP port 53.
Incorrect answers:
A: FTP, file transfer protocol, uses TCP port 21.
B: HTTP, hyper text transfer protocol, uses TCP port 80.
D: SMTP, simple mail transfer protocol, uses TCP port 25.
Question 8.
Several tags must appear in an HTML file. Which of the following choices list required tags in the current sequence of the appearance?
A. <body, head, HTML>
B. < head, HTML, body>
C. <head, body, HTML>
D. <HTML, head, body>
Answer: D
Explanation:
An HTML file has the following structure:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
</BODY>
</HTML>
The order of the tags is HTML, HEAD, BODY.
Question 9.
Which of the following best describes a cookie?
A. A small text file created by a web server that resides on the users computer.
B. An external application launched by a web browser or internet client program to view non-native file formats and other data types.
C. A file format used for importing and exporting graphics.
D. A small program created in the Java language especially designed to reside in HTML pages.
Answer: A
Explanation:
web servers and web browsers do not have access to store data on your computer. Sometimes a website wants to leave an indicator that you have been there before. One common use is to save the userid of the person who last did a logon to the site, and maybe even the password. Then when you visit the site again, it knows you, and can even log you on. These files that are created are text files, and reside on the client’s computer. It is not an application, so B is wrong. It could be considered a file format, in a loose way, but it is not involved with the import or export of graphics, so C is wrong. It is also not a program, so D is wrong.
Question 10.
Which IP class uses 16 bits for the network portion and 16 bits for the host portion of the address?
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
a Class B IP address is 16 Network, 16 Host. A class A address is 8 Network and 24 Host, and a Class C is the opposite, 24 network and 8 host, so A & C are wrong. The Class D is the multicast range, and does not use a network/host format, so D is wrong.
Question 11.
Which mail protocol is used to retrieve the e-mail to the client machine?
E. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
F. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
G. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
H. Post office Protocol (POP)
Answer: D
Explanation:
POP (Post Office Protocol) is used to receive (download) e- mail messages from the mail server to the client computer whereas IMAP is a mail protocol that is use to view the e-mails interactively on the mail server.
HTTP is the protocol used for WEB Pages, and is not a mail protocol.
SMTP allows the sending of mail messages.
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Question 1. When a phone needs a conference resource, which of the following Cisco CallManager objects is queried first? A. media resource device list B. media resource group list C. media resource group D. media resource pool Answer: B Question 2. Which two of these tools can be used to reestablish a Cisco CallManager cluster SQL subscription? (Choose two.) A. DNA B. SQL Server Service Manager C. RTMT D. DBLHelper E. SQL Server Enterprise Manager Answer: D, E Question 3. Which of these options will prevent a device from being able to initiate conferences? A. Place all conference media resources in MRGs and exclude these MRGs from the MRGL. B. Exclude the conference media resources from all MRGs. C. Exclude the conference media resource partitions from the CSS. D. Remove the default MRGL from the device pool. Answer: A Question 4. A user reports poor quality on voice calls and is instructed to select the QRT softkey. How can you access the information generated by this call? A. use the QRT plug-in on the PC of an administrator B. use Tools\QRT Viewer under the CiscoCallManager Serviceability page C. use the System\Real-time Monitor Tool under CiscoCallManager Administration D. use theperfmon counter application under Administrative Tools Answer: B Question 5. DRAG DROP Drag drop Answer: Question 6. How is a backup target changed to a backup server? A. Modify the BARS service parameter from Target to Server. B. Use BARSadministration to change from Target to Server. C. Use BARSadministration to delete the destination target. D. Uninstall BARS and reinstall as a backup server. Answer: D Question 7. What are Cisco CallManager Locations used for? A. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls. B. Define the time zones for devices connected to the CiscoCallManager. C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment. D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable. E. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network. Answer: C Question 8. Based on the following dial-plan rules, what is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined? All employees can call local and service numbers. Managers can call long distance and international numbers. Executives can call all numbers. Only administrative assistants can call executives. Incoming calls can only be routed to IP phones. A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3 Answer: B Question 9. What will happen if Option 150 is not configured on the DHCP server? A. CiscoCallManager will be unable to replicate its database to the subscribers. B. IP Phones will not be able to load their configuration files. C. CiscoCallManager will be unable to access the TFTP server. D. IP Phones will not be able to receive VLAN information. E. CiscoCallManager will be unable to register IP Phones. F. The DHCP server will not be able to answer requests from IP Phones. Answer: B Question 10. Which four characteristics would typically be used to define a device pool? (Choose four.) A. geographic proximity B. common calling search spaces for auto-registration C. common device type D. common use ofcodecs E. common MOH source F. common class of service Answer: A, B, D, E
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Question 1.
What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B
Question 2.
Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Agent
Answer: B
Question 3.
SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D
Question 4.
The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources.
They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B
Question 5.
What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B
Question 6.
Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B
Question 7.
What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D
Question 8.
What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: A, C, F
Question 9.
When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D
Question 10.
CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B
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Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down.
What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Answer: E
Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.
User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Answer: C
Question 3.
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Answer: E
Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
Answer: A
Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:
A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP
addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in
The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses
in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same
subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP
Addresses in the same subnet
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Answer: D
Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?
A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
What are three [3] functions of the Clone Private LUN?
A. Keep track of modified extents of Source LUNs and Clones
B. Stores fracture log for synchronization or reverse synchronization
C. Enable incremental synchronization upon starting an Out-of-Sync Clone LUN
D. Allow continuance of synchronization operation of a Clone upon a failed SP.
E. Store host write data from Source when Clone is fractured from Source LUN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
What are three [3] features that the PowerPath GUI provides to users?
A. Change theCLARiiON SP from active to standby.
B. Change the failover policy of a LUN.
C. Change aCLARiiON path from active to standby.
D. Change a host adapter from standby to active.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Monitors health of SAN
B. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
C. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
D. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
How are a production LUN and its clone(s) related?
A. Clone Private LUN.
B. Persistent fracture log.
C. Clone Group relationship.
D. Storage Group relationship.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
B. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
C. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
D. Monitors health of SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: C, D, E
Question 6.
What is the maximum number of Clone Private LUNs allowed on a CLARiiON CX Series array?
A. 50
B. 1
C. 25
D. 2
E. 100
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is a feature of the Write Intent Log (WIL)?
A. Used to minimize recovery in the event of a failure of the Primary array.
B. Tracks changes on the Primary LUN and synchronizes changes with the Secondary LUN when
reachable.
C. Is a volatile log which tracks changes to the Primary LUN during aFracture
D. Captureswrites to the Secondary LUN and release those changes when the Secondary is
promoted as Primary.
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the default stripe element size for a five disk RAID 5 CLARiiON LUN?
A. 8 blocks
B. 32 blocks
C. 128 blocks
D. 64 blocks
E. 16 blocks
Answer: C
Question 9.
For which three [3] databases can VisualSRM provide table level detail?
A. SQLserver
B. Sybase
C. mySQL
D. Oracle
E. Informix
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
What are the steps, in order, for configuring a Brocade switch for Web management?
Answer:
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Question 1. In what way do the procedures for dealing with evidence in a criminal case differ from the procedures for dealing with evidence in a civil case? A. evidence procedures are not important unless you work for a law enforcement agency B. evidence must be handled in the same way regardless of the type of case C. evidence in a civil case must be secured more tightly than in a criminal case D. evidence in a criminal case must be secured more tightly than in a civil case Answer: B Question 2. Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file? A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE B. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION C. HKEY_USER D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER Answer: C Question 3. If a suspect's computer is located in an area that may have toxic chemicals, you must A. coordinate with the HAZMAT team B. do not enter alone C. assume the suspect machine is contaminated D. determine a way to obtain the suspect computer Answer: A Question 4. Profiling is a forensics technique for analyzing evidence with the goal of identifying the perpetrator from their pervious activity. After a computer has been compromised by a hacker, which of the following would be most important in forming a profile of the incident? A. The vulnerability exploited in the incident B. The manufacture of the system compromised C. The nature of the attack D. The logic, formatting and elegance of the code used in the attack Answer: D Question 5. What information do you need to recover when searching a victims computer for a crime committed with specific e-mail message? A. Username and password B. Firewall log C. E-mail header D. Internet service provider information Answer: C Question 6. The use of warning banners helps a company avoid litigation by overcoming an employees assumed ___________________ when connecting to the companys intranet, network, or virtual private network (VPN) and will allow the companys investigators to monitor, search, and retrieve information stored within the network. A. right of privacy B. right to Internet access C. right to work D. right of free speech Answer: A Question 7. When examining a hard disk without a write-blocker, you should not start Windows because Windows will write data to the: A. Case files B. Recycle Bin C. BIOS D. MSDOS.SYS Answer: B Question 8. How many sectors will a 125 KB file use in a FAT32 file system? A. 16 B. 25 C. 256 D. 32 Answer: C Question 9. Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION B. HKEY_USER C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Answer: B Question 10. You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems administrator for a local school system requesting your assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer Lab. When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PC and put it on this drive and requests that you examine the drive for evidence of the suspected images. You inform him that a simple backup copy will not provide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in future proceedings? A. incremental backup copy B. full backup copy C. robust copy D. bit-stream copy Answer: D
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Question 1. Terminate, Acknowledge, Promote, Demote are examples of directives of the class _______. A. Operation Context B. Record C. Alarm Object D. OSI Event Answer: C Question 2. An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO. A. no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event B. a Low Level Filter discarded this event C. the connection with the Oracle database has been lost D. there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event E. a security profile has blocked the collection of this event Answer: A, B Question 3. In the TeMIP MSL every dictionary ID is represented by _______. A. a string in English and a string in the operator's native language B. a presentation name string only C. a numerical ID only D. a presentation name string and a numerical ID Answer: D Question 4. What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity? A. getevent B. notify C. summarize D. subscribe Answer: A Question 5. The Scheduler FM is responsible for _______. A. triggering polling operations on IP entities only B. scheduling any kind of directive for global and child classes C. scheduling show directives for global classes only D. listening to scheduled reception of events Answer: B Question 6. Where is the run-time data of a Management Module typically stored? A. the TNS B. a private Management Information Repository (MIR) C. the TeMIP Dictionary D. a public Management Information Repository (MIR) Answer: B Question 7. Which attribute partition will NEVER be stored in a MIR? A. counters B. references C. statistics D. characteristics Answer: B Question 8. A TeMIP MSL specification file can be compiled into the TeMIP Dictionary with _______. A. msl2ilr B. mcc_ptb C. mcc_msl D. msl_cpl Answer: C Question 9. The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______ Management Module. A. Domain, Alarms FM B. Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM C. TeMIP, Framework FM D. MCC, Event Filtering FM Answer: D Question 10. The directory hierarchy for TeMIP files stores executable and template files under the _______ directory, and data and configuration files under the _______ directory. A. /usr/temip, /var/temip B. /usr/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip C. /etc/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip D. /usr/opt/temip, /etc/opt/temip Answer: B
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Question 1.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers Windows 7 Professional. The company network consists of an internal LAN and a perimeter network. The two networks are separated by an internal corporate firewall. An external corporate firewall connects the perimeter network to the Internet. The network includes virtual machines (VMs) running on host servers contained in both the internal network and the perimeter network. You have recently installed a server named ABC-VMM1 on the internal network. ABC-VMM1 runs Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2 and will be used to manage the virtual environment. You are now in the process of deploying VMM agents on the host servers. You have configured the port number for the VMM agents and configured the internal corporate firewall to allow communications on the appropriate port number.
What else do you need to configure to ensure that the VMM agents can communicate with ABCVMM1?
A. You need to configure the name of the VMM server (ABC-VMM1).
B. You need to configure the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of a domain controller.
C. You need to configure the name of a SQL Server.
D. You need to configure an encryption key.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers Windows 7 Professional. The company network consists of two subnets. The Development subnet is used by the Development department. The Production subnet is used by all other company departments. You install a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server named ABC-VMHost1 in the Production subnet. ABC-VMHost1 contains two network interface cards named NIC1 and NIC2. You have configured NIC1 as a management interface. You want to configure ABC-VMHost1 to host virtual machines on both the Production subnet and the Development subnet.
How should you configure ABC-VMHost1?
A. You should use VLAN tags for the VMs and configure NIC2 to use Trunk Mode.
B. You should assign NIC2 as an additional management interface.
C. You should configure both adapters to support jumbo frames.
D. You should configure NIC1 with an IP address in the Production subnet and configure NIC2
with an IP address in the Development subnet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers in the network run Windows Server 2008 R2. A server named ABC-VMM1 runs Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2 and is used to manage the company’s virtual environment. The company includes a Development department. Users in the Development department use their computers to develop and test software applications for use by other company departments and customers. You install a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server named ABC-VMTest1 in the Development department. ABC-VMTest1 will host virtual machines (VMs) for the Development department users to use to test their applications. You need to ensure that the VMs are completely isolated from production servers.
How can you ensure that the test VMs can communicate with each other while being isolated from the host server and the rest of the network?
A. By configuring the VMs to connect to a Dedicated virtual network.
B. By configuring the VMs to connect to an Internal virtual network.
C. By configuring the VMs to connect to a Local virtual network.
D. By configuring the VMs to connect to a Private virtual network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You are configuring a virtual environment for the company. You have an iSCSI storage disk array that will be used to store virtual machines (VMs). You install a server named ABC-Host1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to configure ABC-Host1 to store to VMs on the iSCSI disk array.
Which two of the following tools could you use?
A. You could use Disk Management.
B. You could use Diskpart.exe.
C. You could use iSCSICLI.exe.
D. You could use iSCSICPL.exe.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com. The company network consists of an internal LAN and a perimeter network. To comply with company security policy, servers located in the perimeter network are not members of the ABC.com domain. A Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-VMHost1 is located in the perimeter network. You relocate ABC-VMHost1 into the internal network. You now need to join ABC-VMHost1 to the ABC.com AD DS domain.
How should you join ABC-VMHost1 to the ABC.com domain?
A. You should use the System Properties control panel applet.
B. You should use the Netsh command line utility.
C. You should use the Hyper-V configuration utility (hvconfig).
D. You should use the dcpromo utility.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com. You have installed a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 on a server named ABC-SRV1. You use a Windows 7 Professional client computer named ABC-Admin1. You want to be able to manage the storage on ABC-SRV1 using the Disk Management tool on ABC-Admin1. You need to configure the firewall on ABC-SRV1 by creating a rule group using the Netsh advfirewall command.
Which rule group should you create to enable you to remotely manage the storage on ABCSRV1?
A. You should create a “Remote Administration” rule group.
B. You should create a “Remote Desktop” rule group.
C. You should create a “Remote Volume Management” rule group.
D. You should create a “Remote Access” rule group.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com. You are installing a new virtual environment based on Microsoft Hyper-V. You have installed a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 on a server named ABC-VMHost1.
How would you add the Hyper-V role to ABC-VMHost1?
A. By running the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager.
B. By running the start /w hvconfig command.
C. By running the start /w ocsetup Microsoft-Hyper-V.
D. By running the start-service Hyper-V command.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers Windows 7 Professional. You are installing a large virtual environment for the company. A server named ABC-VMM1 runs Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2 and will be used to manage the entire virtual environment. You have installed a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter edition on 50 new servers.
What is the easiest way to install the Hyper-V role on the 50 new servers?
A. By running the Add Hosts Wizard on ABC-VMM1 and selecting a new server to add to VMM.
Repeat the process for each new server.
B. By running the start /w ocsetup Microsoft-Hyper-V command on each new server.
C. By running the Add Hosts Wizard on ABC-VMM1 and selecting all 50 servers to add to VMM.
D. By running the ocsetup MultiPathIo command on ABC-VMM1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You are configuring a virtual environment for the company. You have an iSCSI storage disk array that will be used to store virtual machines (VMs). You install a server named ABC-Host1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 then install PowerShell 2.0 and the Hyper-V role. You need to start the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator Service on ABC-Host1 to enable the server to connect to the iSCSI storage disk array.
How should you start the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator Service on ABC-Host1?
A. You should run the start /w ocsetup msiscsi command.
B. You should launch PowerShell and run the start-service msiscsi cmdlet.
C. You should launch PowerShell and run the set-service msiscsi CstartupType auto cmdlet.
D. You should run the net start msiscsi command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers Windows 7 Professional. The network includes virtual machines (VMs) running on VMware host servers and Hyper-V host servers. A server named ABC-VMM1 runs Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2 and is used to manage the entire virtual environment.
Which virtual disk file system is supported by VMM when performing virtual-to-virtual (V2V) conversions of VMware virtual machines?
A. VHDVVI
B. VMFS
C. NFS
D. vmfsRawOutput
Answer: B
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
You work as a desktop technician at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008. The client computers run a mix of Windows XP Professional and Windows 7 Enterprise. The company is planning to roll out Windows 7 Enterprise throughout the network. Users that require legacy applications will be able to run them in Windows XP Mode virtual machines on their computers.
You are conducting some testing with Windows XP Mode virtual machines (VMs). You have two Windows XP Mode VMs on your Windows 7 client computer. You want to configure the networking options for the two VMs so that they have network connectivity to each other but not to your host computer or the rest of the ABC.com network.
How should you configure the VMs?
A. You should navigate to the Networking node in the VM Settings and configure the network
adapter to use the Internal Network option.
B. You should navigate to the Networking node in the VM Settings and configure the network
adapter to use the Shared Networking (NAT) option.
C. You should navigate to the Networking node in the VM Settings and configure the network
adapter to use the Bridge Mode option.
D. You should configure the Bridge Connections option in the Network Adapter properties in
Windows XP on each VM.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. The network includes a Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-Deploy1. ABC-Deploy1 runs the IIS Server role and is part of the company’s Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MEDV) environment. Your Windows 7 client computer is named ABC-Tech1. The MED-V Management console is installed on ABC-Tech1. You are configuring the Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment to deploy MED-V virtual machines to several client computers. You have configured a MED-V image with the required applications. You run Sysprep on the image and upload it to ABC-Deploy1.
Which two of the following steps will ensure that computer names following a specified naming convention are generated when the VMs are first run after the deployment? Choose two.
A. In the Workspace settings, navigate to the VM Setup tab and configure the computer name
pattern.
B. In the Workspace settings, navigate to the Deployment tab and configure the computer name
pattern.
C. Add a Script Action to rename the computer.
D. Run the Setup Manager Wizard and configure the computer name pattern.
E. Add the computer names to Sysprep.inf.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as a desktop technician at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. You need to configure a central image repository for client computers to download images from. You install a Windows Server 2008 R2 member server named ABC-Deploy1. You create a folder named MEDVImages on ABC-Deploy1.
What should you do next on ABC-Deploy1?
A. You should share the MEDVImages folder.
B. You should install the IIS Server role and configure a virtual directory to point to the
MEDVImages folder.
C. You should install the FTP Server component of IIS and configure an FTP site to point to the
MEDVImages folder.
D. You should install an SSL Certificate.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. ABC.com runs a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. A Windows Server 2008 R2 member server named ABC-Deploy1 is configured to run Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) Server and hosts the central MED-V image repository. You notice that the disk space on ABC-Deploy1 is running low due to the MEDVImages folder taking up a large amount of disk space. You open the MED-V Management Console and note that there are several versions of the MEDV Workspace virtual machines (VMs).
How can you minimize the disk space used by the MEDVImages folder?
A. By deselecting the “Workspace is persistent” option.
B. By configuring the image update settings to keep a limited number of images.
C. By configuring the image update settings to select the “Clients should use the Download
manager when downloading the images” option.
D. By manually deleting old image files.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008. The client computers run a mix of Windows XP Professional and Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of migrating the Windows XP Professional client computers to Windows 7 Enterprise. You need to design a solution to resolve application compatibility issues. You are planning a desktop virtualization solution that will run legacy applications on virtual machines (VMs) running Windows XP Professional. You want to deploy Windows Virtual PC 2007 and a virtual machine image to the client computers when they are migrated to Windows 7 Enterprise.
How can you create a single installation package that includes both Windows Virtual PC 2007 and a virtual machine image?
A. By using the Packaging Wizard from Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V).
B. By using Package Manager (pkrmgr.exe) from the Windows Automated Installation Kit (WAIK)
tools.
C. By using a template created using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
2008 R2.
D. By using Windows System Image Manager from the Windows Automated Installation Kit
(WAIK) tools.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2. You have recently migrated 2000 client computers from Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Enterprise and deployed Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) to resolve application compatibility issues. All client computers use a single MED-V Workspace. For performance reasons, company policy states that the hard drives of the client computers should not be indexed. You are planning to update the Workspace image.
How can you minimize the network impact of the client computers downloading the updated image?
A. By configuring the image update settings to select the “Clients should use the Trim Transfer
when downloading the images” option.
B. By compressing the folder on the deployment server that contains the images.
C. By using the Pack option in MED-V to compress the images.
D. By compressing the folder on the client computers that contains the virtual machine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You have been asked to deploy a custom sales application named SalesApp to the client computers in the Sales department. However the custom application will only run on Windows XP Professional. You install Windows XP Mode on your Windows 7 computer. You plan to test the application in Windows XP Mode and deploy Windows XP Mode to the Sales department computers if your tests are successful. You install the application in the Windows XP Mode virtual machine. You click the start menu in the VM and successfully launch SalesApp. You attempt to start the application from your Windows 7 start menu but there is no shortcut to SalesApp.
How can you ensure that Sales users will be able to start SalesApp from their Window 7 start menus?
A. By copying the SalesApp application shortcut to the All Users profile in Windows 7.
B. By copying the SalesApp application shortcut to the All Users profile in the Windows XP Mode
virtual machine.
C. By installing the Virtual PC Integration Components in the Windows XP Mode virtual machine.
D. By installing the Virtual PC Integration Components in Windows 7.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. All client computers will use a single MED-V Workspace. The virtual machine (VM) image will be downloaded from a central image repository on a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer.
How can you ensure that any changes made by users to the VM are maintained between sessions?
A. By configuring the Allow – Write permission on the server folder containing the VM image.
B. By configuring the Allow – Write permission on the VM image files on the client computers.
C. By selecting the Workspace is revertible option in the MED-V Management Console.
D. By selecting the Workspace is persistent option in the MED-V Management Console.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. You want to install MED-V in a server cluster. You install MED-V on one server in the cluster.
What should you do next?
A. You should install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on all servers in the cluster.
B. You should install the MED-V client on all servers in the cluster.
C. You should install Cluster Administrator on all servers in the cluster.
D. You copy the /Servers/ConfigurationServer folder from the installed node to a
shared network folder.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. ABC.com includes a Development department. Users in the Development department develop software applications for use by ABC.com customers. You have configured a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment to provide the Developers with temporary test environments.
The temporary MED-V Workspaces have expiry dates configured on them.
How can you minimize the disk space used by obsolete MED-V Workspaces?
A. By configuring the option to keep a limited number of old image versions on the Virtual
Machine tab in the MED-V Management console.
B. By configuring the Workspace Deletion options on the Deployment tab in the MED-V
Management console.
C. By selecting the Workspace is revertible option on the Virtual Machine tab in the MED-V
Management console.
D. By clearing the Enable Workspace option on the Deployment tab in the MED-V Management
console.
Answer: B
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
Given:
1. public class Threads2 implements Runnable {
2.
3. public void run() {
4. System.out.println("run.");
5. throw new RuntimeException("Problem");
6. }
7. public static void main(String[] args) {
8. Thread t = new Thread(new Threads2());
9. t.start();
10. System.out.println("End of method.");
11. }
12. }
Which two can be results? (Choose two.)
A. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
B. run
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
C. End of method.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
D. End of method.
run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
E. run
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
End of method.
Answer: D, E
Question 2.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible for more than two threads to deadlock at once.
B. The JVM implementation guarantees that multiple threads cannot enter into a deadlocked
state.
C. Deadlocked threads release once their sleep() method's sleep duration has expired.
D. Deadlocking can occur only when the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods are used
incorrectly.
E. It is possible for a single-threaded application to deadlock if synchronized blocks are used
incorrectly.
F. If a piece of code is capable of deadlocking, you cannot eliminate the possibility of deadlocking
by inserting invocations of Thread.yield().
Answer: A, F
Question 3.
Given:
7. void waitForSignal() {
8. Object obj = new Object();
9. synchronized (Thread.currentThread()) {
10. obj.wait();
11. obj.notify();
12. }
13. }
Which statement is true?
A. This code can throw an InterruptedException.
B. This code can throw an IllegalMonitorStateException.
C. This code can throw a TimeoutException after ten minutes.
D. Reversing the order of obj.wait() and obj.notify() might cause this method to complete
normally.
E. A call to notify() or notifyAll() from another thread might cause this method to complete
normally.
F. This code does NOT compile unless "obj.wait()" is replaced with "((Thread) obj).wait()".
Answer: B
Question 4.
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output if the main() method is run?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
G. It is impossible to determine for certain.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Given:
11. class PingPong2 {
12. synchronized void hit(long n) {
13. for(int i = 1; i < 3; i++)
14. System.out.print(n + "-" + i + " ");
15. }
16. }
17. public class Tester implements Runnable {
18. static PingPong2 pp2 = new PingPong2();
19. public static void main(String[] args) {
20. new Thread(new Tester()).start();
21. new Thread(new Tester()).start();
22. }
23. public void run() { pp2.hit(Thread.currentThread().getId()); }
24. }
Which statement is true?
A. The output could be 5-1 6-1 6-2 5-2
B. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 5-2
C. The output could be 6-1 5-2 6-2 5-1
D. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 7-1
Answer: B
Question 6.
Given:
1. public class Threads4 {
2. public static void main (String[] args) {
3. new Threads4().go();
4. }
5. public void go() {
6. Runnable r = new Runnable() {
7. public void run() {
8. System.out.print("foo");
9. }
10. };
11. Thread t = new Thread(r);
12. t.start();
13. t.start();
14. }
15. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The code executes normally and prints "foo".
D. The code executes normally, but nothing is printed.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Given:
11. public abstract class Shape {
12. private int x;
13. private int y;
14. public abstract void draw();
15. public void setAnchor(int x, int y) {
16. this.x = x;
17. this.y = y;
18. }
19. }
Which two classes use the Shape class correctly? (Choose two.)
A. public class Circle implements Shape {
private int radius;
}
B. public abstract class Circle extends Shape {
private int radius;
}
C. public class Circle extends Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw();
}
D. public abstract class Circle implements Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw();
}
E. public class Circle extends Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw() {/* code here */}
F. public abstract class Circle implements Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw() { /* code here */ }
Answer: B, E
Question 8.
Given:
11. public class Barn {
12. public static void main(String[] args) {
13. new Barn().go("hi", 1);
14. new Barn().go("hi", "world", 2);
15. }
16. public void go(String... y, int x) {
17. System.out.print(y[y.length - 1] + " ");
18. }
19. }
What is the result?
A. hi hi
B. hi world
C. world world
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given:
10. class Nav{
11. public enum Direction { NORTH, SOUTH, EAST, WEST }
12. }
13. public class Sprite{
14. // insert code here
15. }
Which code, inserted at line 14, allows the Sprite class to compile?
A. Direction d = NORTH;
B. Nav.Direction d = NORTH;
C. Direction d = Direction.NORTH;
D. Nav.Direction d = Nav.Direction.NORTH;
Answer: D
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true about the classes and interfaces in the exhibit?
A. Compilation will succeed for all classes and interfaces.
B. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 2.
C. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 6.
D. Compilation of class AImpl will fail because of an error in line 2.
Answer: C
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