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Are there any new dumps available for this exam
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Question 1.
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?
A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The biggest benefit of using switches instead of hubs in your internetwork is that each switch port is actually its own collision domain. (Conversely, a hub creates one large collision domain.) But even armed with a switch, you still can't break up broadcast domains. Neither switches nor bridges will do that. They'll typically simply forward all broadcasts instead. Switch creates the collision domain per port, so we can say switch increase the number of collision domains.
Question 2.
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?
A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a
network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN.
Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice,
switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to
them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.
Question 3.
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each
frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports
than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic
remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating
additional, smaller collision domains.
Question 4.
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers
do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can
not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment.
D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default.
Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the
router level.
Question 5.
The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeysCorporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network.
Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN. Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.
Question 6.
Cisco is the leader in the router market space.
What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)
A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.
Question 7.
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN.
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Answer: B, E, F
Question 8.
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use.
Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
E. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
G. A modem is used to terminate a T1
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching is considered hardware-based bridging because it uses specialized hardware called an application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC). ASICs can run up to gigabit speeds with very low latency rates. Switches usually have higher port number then bridge. Generally bridges have two ports. Both operates on Data link layer.
Question 9.
The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network.
What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)
A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.
Question 10.
CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network.
What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)
A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.
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Question 1. Under JDBC, you can move the cursor within the resultset to a particular specified row using which of the following methods? A. absolute B. jump C. goto D. moveto E. nextset Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: You can move the cursor to a particular row in a ResultSet object. The methods first, last, beforeFirst, and afterLast move the cursor to the position their names indicate. The method absolute will move the cursor to the row number indicated in the argument passed to it. If the number is positive, the cursor moves the given number from the beginning, so calling absolute(1. puts the cursor on the first row. If the number is negative, the cursor moves the given number from the end, so calling absolute(-1. puts the cursor on the last row. Question 2. You are the database specialist of your company. You are managing the in-house database systems. With JDBC, you want to make updates to a ResultSet object. To do so, what must you supply to the ResultSet object? A. CONCUR_UPDATABLE B. UPDATABLE C. CONCUR D. CONCUR_RESULT E. RESULT_UPDATABLE Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Before you can make updates to a ResultSet object, you need to create one that is updatable. In order to do this, you supply the ResultSet constant CONCUR_UPDATABLE to the createStatement method. The Statement object that is created will produce an updatable ResultSet object each time it executes a query. Question 3. Under JDBC, what object represents the DBMS that supplies you with all the company SALES data? A. DataSource B. FileSource C. DSN D. ResultSource E. DataOrigin Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: A DataSource object represents a particular DBMS or some other data source, such as a file. If a company uses more than one data source, it will deploy a separate DataSource object for each of them. A DataSource object may be implemented in three different ways: A basic DataSource implementation-produces standard Connection objects that are not pooled or used in a distributed transaction A DataSource class that supports connection pooling-produces Connection objects that participate in connection pooling, that is, connections that can be recycled A DataSource class that supports distributed transactions-produces Connection objects that can be used in a distributed transaction, that is, a transaction that accesses two or more DBMS servers Question 4. In JDBC, what class allows the use of HTTP to talk to a Java servlet that provides data access? A. A CachedRowSet class B. A JDBCRowSet class C. A WebRowSet class D. A JavaSource class E. AHTTPRowSet class F. A JavaDb class Answer: C Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Although anyone can implement a rowset, most implementations will probably be provided by vendors offering RowSet classes designed for fairly specific purposes. To make writing an implementation easier, the JavaTM Software division of Sun Microsystems, Inc., plans to provide reference implementations for three different styles of rowsets in the future. The following list of planned implementations gives you an idea of some of the possibilities. A CachedRowSet class-a disconnected rowset that caches its data in memory; not suitable for very large data sets, but an ideal way to provide thin Java clients, such as a Personal Digital Assistant (PD A. or Network Computer (NC., with tabular data A JDBCRowSet class-a connected rowset that serves mainly as a thin wrapper around a ResultSet object to make a JDBC driver look like a JavaBeans component A WebRowSet class-a connected rowset that uses the HTTP protocol internally to talk to a Java servlet that provides data access; used to make it possible for thin web clients to retrieve and possibly update a set of rows Question 5. To properly handle SQLException under JDBC, you must use: A. a try/catch block B. a Exception pointer C. the Err object D. the error table E. the master error dictionary Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Many of the methods in the java.sql package throw an SQLException , which requires a try/catch block like any other Exception. Its purpose is to describe database or driver errors (SQL syntax, for example.. In addition to the standard getMessage(. inherited from Throwable, SQLException has two methods which provide further information, a method to get (or chain. additional exceptions and a method to set an additional exception Question 6. Which of the following are the valid methods for handling SQL exceptions generated in JDBC (Choose all that apply.? A. getSQLState(. B. getErrorCode(. C. getNextException(. D. setNextException(. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: getSQLState(. returns an QLState identifier based on the X/Open SQL specification. Your DBMS manuals should list some of these or see Resources for information to find SQLStates. getErrorCode(. is provided to retrieve the vendor-specific error code. getNextException(. retrieves the next SQLException or null if there are no more. Many things can go wrong between your program and the database. This method allows tracking all problems that occur. setNextException(. allows the programmer to add an SQLException to the chain. Question 7. You are the database specialist of your company. You are managing the in-house database systems. In your JDBC application you want to provide warnings to users without terminating the operations. Which of the following classes may you use? A. SQLWarning B. SQLNotice C. SQLError D. SQLInform E. SQLWarns Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: An SQLWarning is a subclass of SQLException, but is not thrown like other exceptions. The programmer must specifically ask for warnings. Connections, Statements, and ResultSets all have a getWarnings(. method that allows retrieval. There is also a clearWarnings(. method to avoid duplicate retrievals. The SQLWarning class itself only adds the methods getNextWarning(. And setNextWarning(.. An SQLWarning is very similar to traditional compiler warnings: something not exactly right occurred, but its effect was not severe enough to end processing. Whether it is important enough to investigate depends on the operation and context. Question 8. Under JDBC, which of the following are the responsibilities of the Connection object (Choose all that apply.? A. Creating Statement instances. B. Obtaining DatabaseMetadata objects. C. Controlling transactions D. Setting isolation levels Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: The Connection itself is responsible for several areas including: Creating Statement, PreparedStatement, and CallableStatement (used with stored procedures. instances. Obtaining DatabaseMetadata objects. Controlling transactions via the commit(. and rollback(. methods. Setting the isolation level involved in transactions. Question 9. In JDBC, what function returns an int containing the affected row count for INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE statements? A. executeUpdate(. B. execute(. C. Update(. D. runUpdate(. E. SQLUpdate(. Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: executeUpdate(. returns an int containing the affected row count for INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE statements, or zero for SQL statements that do not return anything, like DDL statements. Question 10. Mix and match question:SQL Type Java Method FLOAT INTEGER LONGVARBINARY LONGVARCHAR NUMERIC OTHER Java Method getDouble(. getInt(. getBytes(. getString(. getBigDecimal(. getObject(. Match the Java methods to the corresponding SQL data types: A. SQL Type Java Method FLOAT getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARBINARY getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. B. SQL Type Java Method LONGVARBINARY getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. FLOAT getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. C. SQL Type Java Method NUMERIC getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARBINARY getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. FLOAT getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. D. SQL Type Java Method FLOAT getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARCHAR getBytes(. LONGVARBINARY getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Memorize the list below:SQL Type Java Method BIGINT getLong(. BINARY getBytes(. BIT getBoolean(. CHAR getString(. DATE getDate(. DECIMAL getBigDecimal(. DOUBLE getDouble(. FLOAT getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARBINARY getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. REAL getFloat(. SMALLINT getShort(. TIME getTime(. TIMESTAMP getTimestamp(. TINYINT getByte(. VARBINARY getBytes(. VARCHAR getString(.
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Question 1.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2000 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server. ITCertKeys-DB01 contains a database named ITK_Sales.
ITCertKeys.com intends migrating ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 in the near future. To prepare for the migration, you decide to install SQL Server 2005 Express on a server named ITCertKeys-SR31. You verify that ITCertKeys-SR31 exceeds the minimum recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.
What should you do next?
A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-SR31 to Windows Sever 2003 and install Service Pack 1.
B. Install and run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor on ITCertKeys-SR31.
C. Install SQL Server 2000 on ITCertKeys-SR31.
D. Download and install the .NET Framework 2.0.
Answer: D
Explanation:
SQL Server 2005 requires the.NET Framework 2.0. This is automatically installed when SQL Server 2005 is installed but is not automatically installed when SQL Server 2005 Express is installed.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-SR31 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1 as SQL
Server 2005 Express can be installed on Windows 2000 Server. You will need to install Service
Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Server though.
B: You should run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor when you want to upgrade an instance of a
SQL Server 2000 database to SQL Server 2005.
C: You do not need to install SQL Server 2000 before installing SQL Server 2005 Express.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: installing SQL Server Express, before installing
Question 2.
You work as a database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 with the latest Service Packs and Hotfixes, while the client computers run Windows XP Professional, Windows 98 Second Edition, and Novell NetWare 6.5.
You have received instruction to prepare for a new installation of SQL Server 2005 on a member server named ITCertKeys-SR21. ITCertKeys-SR21 will host a database named CK_Sales. All ITCertKeys.com users must be able to connect to ITCertKeys-SR21 by computer name. A ITCertKeys.com network administrator named Rory Allen must ensure that the client computers will be able to connect to ITCertKeys-DB01.
Which protocols can ITCertKeys.com users use to ITCertKeys-SR21?
A. TCP/IP and Named Pipes
B. TCP/IP and IPX/SPX
C. Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA)
D. Shared Memory
Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, clients have TCP and Named Pipes as available protocols. You can manipulate the protocol ordering by using the SQL Server Client utility. The client application uses the protocols in the order specified on the client computer. If you are using SQL Server 2005, the protocol order is stored in the ProtocolOrder registry entry under the following registry subkey:
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\MSSQLServer\Client\SNI9.0
Incorrect Answers:
B: SQL Server 2005 does not support IPX/SPX. The newer versions of NetWare, such as
NetWare 6.5, support TCP/IP which makes it the common protocol for all clients.
C: The Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA) can be used only by VIA hardware.
D: Shared Memory can only be used on the local computer and cannot be used as a network
protocol.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: client connections [SQL Server], about client network connections, choosing a network protocol
Question 3.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2000 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server. ITCertKeys-DB01 contains a database named ITK_Sales.
ITCertKeys.com intends migrating ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 in the near future. To prepare for the migration, you decide to install SQL Server 2005 Express on a server named ITCertKeys-SR23. ITCertKeys-SR31 was used for previously used by application developer and contains Microsoft Visual Studio 2003, .NET Framework 1.2 and Internet Explorer 5.5. You verify that ITCertKeys-SR23 exceeds the minimum recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.
What should you do next? (Each correct answer provides part of the solution. Choose THREE.)
A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-SR23 to Windows Sever 2003 and install Service Pack 1 for Windows
Sever 2003.
B. Install Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Sever on ITCertKeys-SR23.
C. Upgrade the .NET Framework 1.2 to .NET Framework 2.0 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
D. Uninstall the .NET Framework 1.2 and install the .NET Framework 2.0 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
E. Upgrade Internet Explorer 5.5 to Internet Explorer 6.0 and install Service Pack 1 for Internet
Explorer 6.0 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
F. Upgrade Microsoft Visual Studio 2003 to Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 and install Service Pack
1 for Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 on ITCertKeys-SR23.
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
SQL Server 2005 requires Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Sever, Internet Explorer 6.0 with Service Pack 1 and the .NET Framework 2.0. The .NET Framework 2.0 is automatically installed with other versions of SQL Server 2005 but is not automatically installed with SQL Server 2005 Express. You can upgrade .NET Framework 1.0 and upgrade .NET Framework 1.1 to .NET Framework 2.0 but .NET Framework 1.2 must be uninstalled first.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-SR31 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1 as SQL
Server 2005 Express can be installed on a Windows 2000 Server once you install Service
Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Server.
C: You can upgrade .NET Framework 1.0 and upgrade .NET Framework 1.1 to .NET Framework
2.0 but .NET Framework 1.2 must be uninstalled first.
F: SQL Server 2005 Express does not require any version of Microsoft Visual Studio.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: installing SQL Server Express, before installing
Question 4.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2000 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server Service Pack 4. ITCertKeys-DB01 contains a database named ITK_Trading.
ITCertKeys.com wants to migrate ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005 but wants to retain the ITK_Trading database with the same instance name. You decide to perform an in-place upgrade to SQL Server 2005. You verify that ITCertKeys-DB01 exceeds the minimum recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.
What should you do next?
A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1.
B. Run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Detach the ITK_Trading database on ITCertKeys-DB01.
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Before you perform an in-place upgrade of an existing database, you should run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor. The SQL Server Upgrade Advisor produces a list of items that must be addressed before and after performing the upgrade. This list of items is specific to the existing installation.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003 Service Pack 1 as SQL
Server 2005 can be installed on Windows 2000 Server with Service Pack 4.
C: You need to detach a database when you need to move the database to another database
instance or another database server. You do not need to detach the database before
performing an in-place upgrade.
D: You should run the SQL Server Upgrade Advisor before you run the SQL Server 2005 Setup
utility. The SQL Server Upgrade Advisor produces a list of items that must be addressed
before and after performing the upgrade. This list of items is specific to the existing installation.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: updating databases, detaching and attaching databases
Question 5.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 7.0 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that runs on Windows 2000 Server.
Service Pack 4 for Windows 2000 Server id installed on ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys.com wants to migrate ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2005. You decide to perform an in-place upgrade to SQL Server 2005. You verify that ITCertKeys-DB01 exceeds the recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005.
What should you do next?
A. Upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003.
B. Install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 7.0 on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Upgrade SQL Server 7.0 on ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 2000.
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on ITCertKeys-DB01 and upgrade directly to SQL
Server 2005.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You can upgrade from SQL Server 7.0 with Service Pack 4 directly to SQL Server 2005. Thus you need only install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 7.0.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to Windows Sever 2003 as SQL Server 2005
can be installed on Windows 2000 Server with Service Pack 4.
C: You do not need to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server 200 as SQL Server 7.0 with
Service Pack 4 can be upgraded directly to SQL Server 2005. Besides, you will need to install
Service Pack 3 for SQL Server 2000 before you can upgrade it to SQL Server 2005.
D: You need to install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 7.0 before you can upgrade it directly to
SQL Server 2005.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: upgrading SQL Server, upgrading to SQL Server 2005
Question 6.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains two SQL Server 2000 database servers named ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 that are configured fro log shipping. ITCertKeys-DB01 is the primary server and hosts a database named ITK_Trading.
Both ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 have Service Pack 3 for SQL Server 2000 installed. ITCertKeys.com wants to upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 to SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition but the ITK_Trading database must remain available during the upgrade process. You verify that both ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02 exceed the recommended hardware requirements for SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition. You then install Service Pack 1 for Windows Server 2003 on ITCertKeys-DB01 and ITCertKeys-DB02.
What should you do next?
A. Install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 2000 on both database servers.
B. Enable failover in the SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration and upgrade ITCertKeys-
DB02 to SQL Server 2005.
C. Run the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard on ITCertKeys-DB01 to upgrade it to SQL Server
2005.
D. Upgrade ITCertKeys-DB02 to SQL Server 2005 and then upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL
Server 2005.
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL Server 2005 does not support the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard which was integral to log shipping in SQL Server 2000. Hence, log shipping stops functioning when you upgrade a SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration directly to SQL Server 2005. To upgrade log shipping to SQL Server 2005, you must migrate the database servers to SQL Server 2005. If you want the database to remain available during the migration process, you must migrate with failover. To migrate with failover you must enable failover and upgrade ITCertKeys-DB02. Then you need to failover to ITCertKeys-DB02 and upgrade ITCertKeys-DB01. Then configure log shipping with the ITCertKeys-DB02 becoming the primary server and ITCertKeys-DB01 becoming the secondary server.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You do not need to install Service Pack 4 for SQL Server 2000 on the database servers as
SQL Server 2000 with Service Pack 3 can be upgraded to SQL Server 2005. However, SQL
Server 2005 does not support the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard which was integral to
log shipping in SQL Server 2000. Hence, log shipping stops functioning when you upgrade a
SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration directly to SQL Server 2005.
C: SQL Server 2005 does not support the Database Maintenance Plan Wizard which was integral
to log shipping in SQL Server 2000. Hence, log shipping stops functioning when you upgrade a
SQL Server 2000 log shipping configuration directly to SQL Server 2005.
D: Removing log shipping from ITCertKeys-DB02 and upgrading ITCertKeys-DB01 to SQL Server
2005 will not ensure that the CK_Trading database remains available.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2006), Index: log shipping [SQL Server], upgrading
Question 7.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a Domain Controller named ITCertKeys-DC01 and a member server named ITCertKeys-SR21.
ITCertKeys.com wants to implement a SQL Server 2005 database that will store sales data. All ITCertKeys.com users will require access to the Sales_DB database. You have been instructed to install SQL Server 2005 on ITCertKeys-SR21 and to create a database named Sales_DB. You need to ensure that ITCertKeys.com users and applications can connect to the database instance by using only the computer name.
What should you do during the installation of SQL Server 2005 on Certkiller-SR21?
A. Select the Named Instance and use MSSQLSERVER as the instance name.
B. Select the Named Instance and use ITCertKeys-DC01 as the instance name.
C. Select the Default Instance and accept the default instance name.
D. Select the Named Instance and use ITCertKeys-SR21 as the instance name.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that users and applications can connect to the instance using the computer name, you should select the Default Instance and accept the default instance name, MSSQLSERVER.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: You cannot use a Named Instance as users and applications will need to specify the server name and the instance name when connection to the database.
Reference:
Question 8.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run on Windows Server2003 while the client computers run Windows XP Professional, Windows 98 Second Edition, and Novell NetWare 6.5. All computers are members of the ITCertKeys.com Active Directory domain. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that hosts a database instance named MSSQLSERVR.
ITCertKeys.com wants to implement another SQL Server 2005 instance for a database named Sales_DB. Sales_DB will store sales data for the company. All ITCertKeys.com users will require access to the Sales_DB database. You have been instructed to create the SQL Server 2005 instance for the Sales_DB database. You need to ensure That all users will be able to connect to the Sales_DB database. You cannot make configuration changes to the client computers. Your solution must optimize network traffic.
What should you do?
A. Install the instance as a Named Instance and configure it to support Mixed Mode
Authentication. The enable TCP/IP for the instance.
B. Install the instance as a Default Instance and configure it to support Windows
Authentication. The enable TCP/IP for the instance.
C. Install the instance as a Named Instance and configure it to support SQL
Authentication. The enable IPX/SPX for the instance.
D. Install the instance as a Default Instance and configure it to support Windows
Authentication. The enable IPX/SPX for the instance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The default instance is named MSSQLSERVER. This instance name is already in use; therefore you should use a Named Instance. You should use Mixed Mode Authentication to support NetWare users.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You cannot use the Default Instance as the default instance is named MSSQLSERVER and is
already in use. Furthermore, you need to use Mixed Mode Authentication as Windows
Authentication does not support NetWare users.
C: You can use SQL Authentication, but this will require that you create SQL Logins for all users
and groups. It would be easier to use Windows Authentication for clients that user Windows XP
Professional and Windows 98 SE, and create SQL Logins for the NetWare 6.5 users. Also,
SQL Server 2005 does not support IPX/SPX. The newer versions of NetWare, such as
NetWare 6.5, support TCP/IP which makes it the common protocol for all clients.
D: You cannot use the Default Instance as the default instance is named MSSQLSERVER and is
already in use. Furthermore, you need to use Mixed Mode Authentication as Windows
Authentication does not support NetWare users. Also, SQL Server 2005 does not support
IPX/SPX. The newer versions of NetWare, such as NetWare 6.5, support TCP/IP which makes
it the common protocol for all clients.
Reference:
Question 9.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run on Windows Server2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains two SQL Server 2005 database servers that are configured in a cluster with two nodes named NodeA and NodeB. NodeA hosts a default database instance named MSSQLSERVR.
ITCertKeys.com wants to implement another SQL Server 2005 instance for a database named Sales_DB. Sales_DB will store sales data for the company. All ITCertKeys.com users will require access to the Sales_DB database. You have been instructed to create the SQL Server 2005 instance for the Sales_DB database on Node
A. You need to ensure that all users will be able to connect to the Sales_DB database.
What should you do?
A. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeA and select a Named Instance for the
Sales_DB database.
B. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeA and select the Default Instance for the
Sales_DB database.
C. Move the existing instance from NodeA to NodeB. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on
Node
A. Select the Default Instance and accept the default instance name
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeB and select a Named Instance for the
Sales_DB database.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The default instance is named MSSQLSERVER. This instance name is already in use on NodeA; therefore you should use a Named Instance.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You cannot use the Default Instance as the default instance is named MSSQLSERVER and is
already in use.
C: You do not need to move the existing instance as you can install up to 50 instances on a SQL
Server 2005 database server.
D: You need to install the instance on NodeA not NodeB. You can install a new instance on
NodeA if you use a Named Instance.
Reference:
Question 10.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run on Windows Server2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains two SQL Server 2005 database servers that are configured in a cluster with two nodes named NodeA and NodeB. NodeA contains two physical hard disk drives, one of which hosts the Quorum resource and contains a single partition while the other contains two logical partitions. NodeB also has two physical hard disk drives each of which contain asingle logical partition.
None of the hard disks in the cluster have any unallocated space left. The SQL Server 2005 cluster currently hosts four database instances. ITCertKeys.com wants to implement another SQL Server 2005 instance for a database named Manufacturing_DB. Manufacturing_DB will store data from the ITCertKeys.com Manufacturing department. You have been instructed to create the
SQL Server 2005 instance for the Manufacturing_DB database.
What should you do?
A. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeB and select a Named Instance for the
Manufacturing_DB database.
B. Create a second logical partition on one of the physical disk drives on NodeB. Run the SQL
Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeB and select a Named Instance for the Manufacturing_DB
database.
C. Add a third physical disk drive on one of the nodes. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on
that node and select Named Instance for the Manufacturing_DB database.
D. Run the SQL Server 2005 Setup utility on NodeA and select a Named Instance for the
Manufacturing_DB database.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A single SQL Server 2005 database server can host up to 50 instances but a clustered SQL Server 2005 configuration can only host one instance per logical disk drive. There are currently five logical disk drives in the cluster but one is used for the Quorum resource this leaves you with four logical disk drives that can support a total of four instances. To add another instance, you would need to add another logical disk drive. As none of the hard disks have unallocated free
space, you would need to add another hard disk to the cluster.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: You cannot add another instance to any of the two nodes as a clustered SQL Server 2005
configuration can only host one instance per logical disk drive. There are currently five logical
disk drives in the cluster but one is used for the Quorum resource this leaves you with four
logical disk drives that can support a total of four instances. To add another instance, you
would need to add another logical disk drive. As none of the hard disks have unallocated free
space, you would need to add another hard disk to the cluster.
B: You cannot create another partition on any of the physical drives on NodeB as none of the
hard disks in the cluster has unallocated free space that you can use to create another
partition. You will need to add another hard disk to the cluster for the new instance.
|
Question 1.
Which of the following configurations on Quidway S3026 is true?( )
A. The user privilege level command is used to set the command level that can be accessed after
the user log in from a certain interface and to execute the command within this level.
B. In default, the command level that can be accessed after AUX login is level 0.
C. In default, the command level that can be accessed after VTY login is level 3.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which command is used to set the maximum learned addresses by the port?
A. mac-address max_mac_count
B. mac-address max-mac-count max_mac_count
C. max-mac-count max_mac_count
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which command is used to set the login password in the user interface on the Quidway S3026 switch?
A. password { simple | cipher } password
B. set authentication password { simple | cipher } password
C. enable password { simple | cipher } password
D. password enable password
Answer: B
Question 4.
On Quidway S3026 switch, the address learning function of the port is enabled by defaultA.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 5.
If executing the [Quidway-ui-vty0]user privilege level 3 command to configure the user priority, which of the following descriptions is true?
A. The user is not affected and can see all the commands
B. The user is affected and can only see the commands of level 3.
C. The user is affected and can only see the commands below level 3.
Answer: C
Question 6.
If executing the display users all command on the console terminal, the result is as.
[Quidway]display users all
UI Delay IPaddress Username
I 0 AUX 0 00.00.00
* 1 VTY 0 00.00.23 10.110.34.125
2 VTY 1
3 VTY 2
4 VTY 3
5 VTY 4
Which of the following descriptions is true?
A. *. Terminal that are being used
B. I. Terminal that are being used works in the asynchronous interaction status
C. Username. This stands for the user names of the users using this user-interface, also the login
username.
D. Delay. The time interval from the login till now with minute as the unit
Answer: C
Question 7.
For the resource exhaustion of the switch address table caused by the attack by the frames with different source addresses, which of the following security measures can be adopted?
A. Configure the user priority
B. Set the maximum learned address by the port
C. Set whether the port continues to learn addresses
D. Set the timeout disconnection function of EXEC users.
Answer: B, C
Question 8.
As shown in the following figure, the corresponding links of Port 1 ~ Port 4 are the trunk links allowing all the VLANs to pass and the GVRP protocol is activated. The GVRP registration mode of Port 4-switch 3 is set to be Forbidden and the GVRP registration modes of the ports on other switches are set to be Normal. VLAN5 and VLAN6 are configured on the switch 1 and VLAN 6 and VLAN 7 are configured on the switch 3. The following are the VLAN configuration situations of the ports of the switch except the default VLAN.
Which of the items are true?
A. VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 are configured over port 1.
B. VLAN 5~VLAN 6 are configured over port 2.
C. VLAN 6 and VLAN 7 are configured over port 3.
D. VLAN 6 and VLAN 7 are configured over port 4.
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
The layer 2 switch supporting VLAN has solved the following problem.
A. Security
B. High efficiency
C. Flexible management
D. All the above items are false.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
Which of the following descriptions of the transparent bridge is false?( )
A. The transparent bridge can learn the MAC address by itselB.
B. The transparent bridge can expand LAN.
C. The transparent bridge needs to modify the IP packet first, and then forward iA.
D. The transparent bridge is the equipment working on the layer 2.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
When competing against a Sun v20z with a p5-520 to be used as a mission-critical, departmental system, which of the following is the key competitive advantage?
A. RAS features
B. Virtualization
C. System Performance
D. Ability to support Linux
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following is a major advantage for AIX 5L for an Intel customer considering a p5- 510?
A. Inexpensive server and storage
B. Supports internal RAID-S and HACMP
C. UNIX derivative and provides higher availability
D. Supports POWER5 on multiple chip architectures
Answer: C
Question 3.
The benchmarks for the p5-505, p5-510, and p5-520:
A. change based on benchmark modifications.
B. are valid regardless of the configuration.
C. change occasionally and should be checked before preparing proposals.
D. do not change because the systems' characteristics will not change.
Answer: C
Question 4.
A retail store chain is looking for a point of sale 1GB database application server. Remote backup is being used for pricing tables and transactions.
Which of the following is the best choice for the customer?
A. p5-505
B. p5-510
C. p5-520
D. IntelliStation POWER 285
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following is able to provide 2.4 TB of internal storage?
A. p5-505
B. p5-510
C. p5-520
D. IntelliStation POWER 285
Answer: C
Question 6.
For the p5-505, p5-510, and p5-520 servers, who is responsible for setup?
A. The customer
B. The IBM Distributor
C. IBM Global Services
D. An IBM Customer Engineer
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following statements best describes a sales opportunity for an AIX 5L solution?
A. An existing pSeries customer wishes to renew their SWMA.
B. A Solaris customer seeks to move to a stable UNIX platform.
C. An IBM customer running Windows on IBM xseries systems wishes to consolidate servers
onto the IBM HS20 BladeCenter.
D. An existing pSeries customer with a current software maintenance contract wishes to upgrade
from AIX SL V5.1 to AIX 5L V5.3.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following is one of the key POWERS differentiators over x86 architecture?
A. POWER5 has L2 cache.
B. POWER5 has ECC memory.
C. POWER5 supports DDR2 memory.
D. POWER5 has separate memory and I/O access paths.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Linux on POWER is differentiated from Linux on x86 architecture by which of the following?
A. Compliers, debuggers, and application capabilities
B. RAS, performance, and advanced virtualization capabilities
C. Support structure, distributors, and certification
D. Openness of Linux on POWER
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following is the earliest version of AIX 5L to Support LPAR on the p5-505, p5-510, and p5- 520 servers?
A. V4.3
B. V5.1
C. V5.2
D. V5.3
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
You accidentally initiated an abort sequence. As a consequence, your SPARC-based SYSTEM WENT INTO THE prom MODE.
Which two actions disable the default keyboard abort sequence? (Choose two)
A. detach serial console device
B. run the kbd -a disable command
C. run the eeprom command to disable KEYBOARD_ABORT
D. in PROM mode, change the value of keyboard to disable
E. edit / etc/default/kbd to change the value of the variable KEYBOARD_ABORT to disable
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Your x86-based system with Solaris 10 OS installed on it is not booting correctly. You think the problem might be that a BIOS setting is not correctly configured.
What should you do to abort the boot process and reboot into the BIOS configuration menu?
A. While holding down the reset button, you power cycle the system.
B. You press the middle mouse button, When the screen times out, you enter the BIOS
configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
C. You press the stop-A keys then typ reset-all. You reboot directly into the BIOS configuration
menu and examine the BIOS settings.
D. You press the Ctrl-Alt-Del keys and reboot the system, or press the reset button. When the
screen tells indicates the key to enter the BIOS, you press it and examine your BIOS settings.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given:
ap: : sysinit:/sbin/sutopush -f/etc/iu.ap
sp: : sysinit:/sbin/soconfig -f /etc/sock2path
smf: :sysinit:/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd >/dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog /dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog
Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. This file must be read by the process inetd.
B. When booting this system, svc.startd will start.
C. This is a part of the content of the /etc/inittab file
D. This system starts/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd for run level 1.
E. When this system gets the powerfail signal, svc.startd will be respawned.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device aliases . The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them.
Which sequence of OBP commands temporarily disables the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=false
reset
B. use-nvramrc?=false
reset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? false
reset
D. setenv use-nvramrc? = false
reset
Answer: C
Question 5.
An x86-based laptop has just had Solaris 10 OS installed. The graphics configuration has NOT been automatically detected and it is running without graphics.
Which program can you run to create an Xsun configuration file?
A. /user/X11/bin/Xserver
B. /user/dt/bin/xsession
C. /usr/x11/binxorgconfig
D. /usr/openwin/bin/kdmconfig
E. /usr/x11/bin/xorg -configure
Answer: D
Question 6.
The SPARC-based workstation system in your accounts department need their PROMs upgraded. Some of the systems fail to upgrade.
What is the cause?
A. The patch is corrupt.
B. The systems do not have enough memory
C. The write protect jumper has not been set correctly.
D. The system is running an earlier version of Solaris OS.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A SPARC-based system does not boot and displays the message:
"Timeout waiting for ARP/RARP packet"
Which three actions should you take to check the boot environment of the system? (Choose three)
A. check if the frame buffer is working properly
B. check if the NVRAM alias net is set properly
C. check if the NVRAM alias boot-file is set properly
D. check if the PROM variable boot-device is set properly
E. check if the PROM variable local-mac-address?
Answer: B, D, E
Question 8.
You receive a complaint from a user who is unable to use the SSH service to access the user's lab system. You use a serial line to get in and check the SSH service. The svcs output is shown in the exhibit.
What has caused the disruption of the SSH service?
A. The service is disabled.
B. The contract_id is missing
C. There is no "next state" defined
D. One of the dependencies has NOT been met.
Answer: D
As you can see /network/physical is disabled
One of dependencies has not been meet therefore ssh not running
So right answer is D
Question 9.
A SPARC-based system, but you are not sure of the physical path information;
Which OBP command shows you this information/
A. printenv
B. probe-all
C. show-devs
D. prtdiag -v
E. probe-scsi-all
Answer: C
Question 10.
As system administrator, you are asked to shut down the Apache HTTPD service that is running on a development server. You run the svcs grep apache command, and receive this output.
Legacy_run Feb_02 1RC:/ETC/RC3_D/S50APACHE
Based on this output, which two statements are tru?
A. This service is managed by LRC.
B. This service is NOT managed by SMF
C. Any legacy_run state can NOT be manually shut down.
D. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the shutdown script in the /tc/init.d
directory
E. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the following shutdown script svcadm –
v disable /etc/init.d/s50apache
Answer: B, D
|
Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
|
Question 1.
The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera.
What is a possible problem?
A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
B. PEA tile was never provided to the application
C. Replication wasn't turned on
D. Storage pool creation not completed
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
Question 3.
Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool.
An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
1) Grant the profile access to the pool
2) Create application virtual pool
3) Start migrating pool mappings
4) Set the home pool for the access profile
5) Create pool mapping
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is an "unbundled" cluster?
A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to
deploy
B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
Answer: D
Question 5.
What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary
cluster
B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the
secondary Centera
C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power
rail
Answer: A
Question 6.
How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu
Answer: C
Question 7.
Click the exhibit button.
Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question 8.
What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional?
A. Chain and Inward Star
B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
C. Point to Multipoint and Link
D. Ring and Star
Answer: A
Question 9.
A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production.
How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster
Answer: C
Question 10.
With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
A. NDMP compatible systems
B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
Exhibit:
According to the exhibit, R1/BCV on Symm321 and R2 on Symm654 is pair 1, and R1/BCV on Sym654 and R2 on Symm987 is pair 2.
Which of the following commands is utilized for the control SRDF device operations on these two pairs?
A. Symrdf -bcv symrdf brbcv
B. syumrdf symrdf -rbcv
C. Symrdf Jcv symrdf -rdf -bcv
D. Symmir -rdf Jcv symrdf -rbcv
Answer: A
Question 2.
To simultaneously provide Read-Write acc4ess to both the R1 and R2 Volumes of the mydg device group, which SRDF symcli command would be used?
A. symrdf mydg spilt
B. symrdf mydg failover
C. symrdf mydg suspend
D. symrdf mydg spilt -concurrent
E. symrdf mydg suspend - concurrent
Answer: A
Question 3.
You Use Timefinder Snap to issue the following command:
Symnsnap list havedevs
Which two of the following statements best describes the output? (Choose two)
A. Percent full of the active Snap Session is shown.
B. The Symmetrix volumes associated with the Snap Save Devices are listed.
C. Percent full of the Save Devices is shown.
D. Lists the virtual devices associated with the Snap savedev device group.
E. Lists the active Snap Sessions.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
TimeFinder consistent splits are created by using which two items? (Choose two)
A. Resource Pak
B. Symmetrix integration Utilities (SIU)
C. PowerPath
D. Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA)
E. Persistent Storage Manager
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
A device group with SRDF source devices would be created by using which of the following SYMCLI commands?
A. symcreate namedg type RDF1
B. symdg create namedg -type RDF1
C. symdg create namedg type REGULAR
D. symdg create namedg type RDF1
Answer: D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the left, by placing them in the space provided on the right. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
For the following, you need to match the Symmetrix device type with the replication technology that it employs. Options may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 8.
What are the three features of SRDF/A, if cache and bandwidth are suitably configured? (Choose three)
A. Seconds of data exposure.
B. Unlimited distance.
C. No performance impact.
D. Some performance impact.
E. Hours of data exposure.
F. Limited distance.
G. No data exposure.
Answer: B, C, G
Question 9.
How can the Fibre Channel Buffer Credits, needed for a given distance, be calculated quickly?
A. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 1.6.
B. By dividing the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
C. By dividing the circuit distance in miles by 2.
D. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit above, the SRDF primary mode of operation is Synchronous, there is no secondary mode selected and the SRDF link is ready. While Production work on Host A is in progress, both local mirrors of the R1 Volume fail.
What will happen in this situation?
A. The Symmetrix will automatically change the status of the R2 Volume to write-enabled and
Production work an continue form Host B.
B. Production work can continue from Host A but new write operation cannot be perform.
C. Production work can continue from Host A without interruption. All new writes will accumulate
as invalid tracks from the R1 Volume.
D. Product ion work form Host A will fail. The application should be restarted form the Disaster
Recovery Host B.
Answer: C
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