Question 1.
Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address
B. ip pim ssm
C. ip pim sparse-mode
D. ip pim passive

Answer: A, C

Explanation: 
Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from where a prune message is received to eliminate the “leaf” from the multicasting tree (SPT), the Source-Based Tree (S, G); as opposed to Sparse mode that send the traffic only if someone explicitly requested it. Not like Dense mode, which build a separated source-based tree (S, G) between the source and the requester of the traffic, Sparse mode mechanism is based on a fixed point in the network named Rendez-Vous point. All sources will have to register with the RP to which they send their traffic and thereby build a source-based tree (S, G) between them and the RP (not with the final multicast receiver like in PIM-DM) and all PIM-SM routers, “whatever” multicast traffic they are requesting, have to register with the RP and build a shared-tree (*. G)

Reference
http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2236
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_tech_note09186a00800b0871.shtml
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk828/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094821.shtml#sparsemode

Question 2.
A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of 10 concurrent VOIP calls. Due to expansion, 15 VOIP calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded. 

Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QoS configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?

A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue.
B. Remove the policer applied on the priority queue.
C. Remove the shaper applied on the priority queue.
D. Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 3.
A new backup connection is being deployed on a remote site router. The stability of the connection has been a concern. In order to provide more information to EIGRP regarding this interface, you wish to incorporate the "reliability" cost metric in the EIGRP calculation with the command metric weights 1 0 1 0 1.

What impact will this modification on the remote site router have for other existing EIGRP neighborships from the same EIGRP domain?

A. Existing neighbors will immediately begin using the new metric.
B. Existing neighbors will use the new metric after clearing the EIGRP neighbors.
C. Existing neighbors will resync, maintaining the neighbor relationship.
D. All existing neighbor relationships will go down.

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 has an EBGP session to ISP 1 and an EBGP session to ISP 2. R1 receives the same prefixes through both links. 

Which configuration should be applied so that the link between R1 and ISP 2 will be preferred for outgoing traffic (R1 to ISP 2)? 

A. Increase local preference on R1 for received routes
B. Decrease local preference on R1 for received routes
C. Increase MED on ISP 2 for received routes
D. Decrease MED on ISP 2 for received routes

Answer: A

Explanation:  
Explanation
Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with higher local preference is preferred more. The default value of preference is 100.

Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk872/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080b82d1f.shtml? referring_site=smartnavRD

Question 5.
Refer to the exhibit.
A small enterprise connects its office to two ISPs, using separate T1 links. A static route is used for the default route, pointing to both interfaces with a different administrative distance, so that one of the default routes is preferred. Recently the primary link has been upgraded to a new 10 Mb/s Ethernet link. After a few weeks, they experienced a failure. The link did not pass traffic, but the primary static route remained active. They lost their Internet connectivity, even though the backup link was operating.

Which two possible solutions can be implemented to avoid this situation in the future? (Choose two.)

A. Implement HSRP link tracking on the branch router R1.
B. Use a track object with an IP SLA probe for the static route on R1.
C. Track the link state of the Ethernet link using a track object on R1.
D. Use a routing protocol between R1 and the upstream ISP.

Answer: B, D

Explanation: 
Interface Tracking
Interface tracking allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to
monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the specified interface's line protocol goes down, the HSRP priority of this router is reduced, allowing another HSRP router with higher priority can become active (if it has preemption enabled). To configure HSRP interface tracking, use the standby [group] track interface [priority] command. When multiple tracked interfaces are down, the priority is reduced by a cumulative amount. If you explicitly set the decrement value, then the value is decreased by that amount if that interface is down, and decrements are cumulative. If you do not set an explicit decrement value, then the value is decreased by 10 for each interface that goes down, and decrements are cumulative. The following example uses the following configuration, with the default decrement value of 10. 
Note: When an HSRP group number is not specified, the default group number is group 0. 
interface ethernet0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby ip 10.1.1.3
standby priority 110
standby track serial0
standby track serial1
The HSRP behavior with this configuration is:
0 interfaces down = no decrease (priority is 110)
1 interface down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes100)
2 interfaces down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes 90)

Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk648/tk362/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094a91.shtml#intracking

Question 6.
Why would a rogue host that is running a DHCP server on a campus LAN network present a security risk?

A. It may allocate IP addresses from an unknown subnet to the users.
B. All multicast traffic can be sniffed by using the DHCP multicast capabilities.
C. The CPU utilization of the first hop router can be overloaded by exploiting DHCP relay open 
    ports.
D. A potential man-in-the-middle attack can be used against the clients.

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 7.
Which statement is true about TCN propagation?

A. The originator of the TCN immediately floods this information through the network.
B. The TCN propagation is a two step process.
C. A TCN is generated and sent to the root bridge.
D. The root bridge must flood this information throughout the network.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
Explanation
New Topology Change Mechanisms
When an 802.1D bridge detects a topology change, it uses a reliable mechanism to first notify the root bridge.
This is shown in this diagram:
C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG
Once the root bridge is aware of a change in the topology of the network, it sets the TC flag on the BPDUs it sends out, which are then relayed to all the bridges in the network. When a bridge receives a BPDU with the TC flag bit set, it reduces its bridging-table aging time to forward delay seconds. This ensures a relatively quick flush of stale information. Refer to Understanding Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes for more information on this process. This topology change mechanism is deeply remodeled in RSTP. Both the detection of a topology change and its propagation through the network evolve.
Topology Change Detection
In RSTP, only non-edge ports that move to the forwarding state cause a topology change. This means that a loss of connectivity is not considered as a topology change any more, contrary to 802.1D (that is, a port that moves to blocking no longer generates a TC). When a RSTP bridge detects a topology change, these occur: 
It starts the TC While timer with a value equal to twice the hello-time for all its non-edge designated ports and its root port, if necessary.
It flushes the MAC addresses associated with all these ports.
Note: As long as the TC While timer runs on a port, the BPDUs sent out of that port have the TC
bit set. BPDUs are also sent on the root port while the timer is active.
Topology Change Propagation
When a bridge receives a BPDU with the TC bit set from a neighbor, these occur:
It clears the MAC addresses learned on all its ports, except the one that receives the topology change. It starts the TC While timer and sends BPDUs with TC set on all its designated ports and root port (RSTP no longer uses the specific TCN BPDU, unless a legacy bridge needs to be notified). This way, the TCN floods very quickly across the whole network. The TC propagation is now a one step process. In fact, the initiator of the topology change floods this information throughout the network, as opposed to 802.1D where only the root did. This mechanism is much faster than the 802.1D equivalent. There is no need to wait for the root bridge to be notified and then maintain the topology change state for the whole network for  seconds. C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG
In just a few seconds, or a small multiple of hello-times, most of the entries in the CAM tables of the entire network (VLAN) flush. This approach results in potentially more temporary flooding, but on the other hand it clears potential stale information that prevents rapid connectivity restitution.

Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

Question 8.
Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.
B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.
C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.
D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
Explanation
Understanding How Loop Guard Works
Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again. Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the failed link or bridge. You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command. Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree global-defaults loop-guard command. When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports. Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state. If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop guard in a triangle switch configuration.
Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard
C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG
Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:
Switches A and B are distribution switches.
Switch C is an access switch.
Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.
Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.
Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:
Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.
Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.
Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.
Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.
Note We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access
switches. Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:
Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.
Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the same time. PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the typeinconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state. In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port. Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel. 
These caveats apply to loop guard:
–Spanning tree always chooses the first operational port in the channel to send the BPDUs. If that link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks the channel, even if other links in the channel are functioning properly.
–If a set of ports that are already blocked by loop guard are grouped together to form a channel, spanning tree loses all the state information for those ports and the new channel port may obtain the forwarding state with a designated role.
–If a channel is blocked by loop guard and the channel breaks, spanning tree loses all the state information.
The individual physical ports may obtain the forwarding state with the designated role, even if one or more of the links that formed the channel are unidirectional.
You can enable UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) to help isolate the link failure. A loop may occur until
UDLD detects the failure, but loop guard will not be able to detect it.
Loop guard has no effect on a disabled spanning tree instance or a VLAN.

Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/8.2glx/configuration/guide/stp_enha.
html#wp1048163

Question 9.
Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)

A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status.
B. A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D 
    Bridge comes up.
C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root 
    bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.
D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D  
    Compatibility mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D 
    or 802.1w segments of the network.
E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and  
    will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the  
    administrator.

Answer: B, E

Explanation: 
Explanation
Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs, the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts. 802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.
Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of "restored quickly when RSTP is already in use?"). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT, moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP states.

Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

Question 10.
Which command is used to enable EtherChannel hashing for Layer 3 IP and Layer 4 port-based CEF?

A. mpls ip cef
B. port-channel ip cef
C. mpls ip port-channel cef
D. port-channel load balance
E. mpls ip load-balance
F. ip cef EtherChannel channel-id XOR L4
G. ip cef connection exchange

Answer: D
	
Explanation: 

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Braindumps for "VCP-510" Exam

Certified Professional on vSphere 5

 Question 1.
Click the Exhibit button.
 

An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results shown in the exhibit.

Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)

A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
The picture shows CPU at 100% in VM, not CPU shortage on ESX server. A, D – these 2 options both increase the amount of CPU allocated to VM B,C – these 2 options change the physical CPU allocated to VM, but this was not the problem shown

Question 2.
An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory. 

Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?

A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console. By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total available memory.

Question 3.
An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that the current status is Not Protected.

What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected? (Choose two.)

A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual 
    machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual 
    machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

Reason for not protected status 	Description
Starting 	Fault Tolerance is in the process of starting the Secondry VM. This is message is only visibale for a short period of time.
Need Secondary VM 

[ C above ]	The Primary VM is running without a Secondary VM, so the Primary VM is Currently not protected. This generally occurs when there is no compatible host in the duster available for the Secondary VM. Correct this by bringing a compatible host online. If there is a compatible host online in the cluster further investigation might be required. Under certain circumstances, disabling Fault Tolerance and then re-enabling it corrects this problem.
Disabled
 
[ A above ]	Fault Tolerance is currently disabled (no Secondary VM is running). This happends when Fault Tolerance is disabled by the user or when vCenter Server disableds Fault Tolarance after being unable to power on the Secondary VM.
VM not Running	Fault Tolerance is enbled but the virtual machine is powered off Power on the virtual machine to reach Protected state.

untitled
Table 3-2. Reasons for Primary VM Not Protected Status
Part 3: Create and Configure Resource Pools (14 questions).

Question 4.
Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)

A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

Question 5.
An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.

Which three options are available? (Choose three.)

A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed

Answer: C, D, E

Explanation:
 

untitled

Question 6.
ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.

Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this template? (Choose three.)

A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine’s that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to them, swapping and page sharing does not occur. You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance. If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has. By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on. The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file. The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.

Question 7.
What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)

A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines

Answer: C, D, E

Explanation:
 

untitled
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-
50/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc_50/GUID-3B5AF2B1-C534-4426-
B97A-D14019A8010F.html

Question 8.
Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)

A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O 
    Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID-
38F95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html

Question 9.
An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.

What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)

A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT

Answer: A, B, C

Explanation:
Option Description
 

untitled

Question 10.
An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.

Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)

A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness  
    (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity, performance, availability, redundancy, and so on. If a storage system uses Storage APIs – Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. VCenter Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.

NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents. You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one userdefined capability at a time.

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Braindumps for "156-816" Exam

Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert Plus VSX NGX

 Question 1.
Which of the following can function as a Management Server for a VSX Gateway?

A. Check Point Integrity
B. SiteManager-1 NGX: Multi-Domain Server
C. Security Management Portal
D. VPN-1/FireWall-1 Small Office
E. Provider-1 NGX: Multi-Domain Server

Answer: E

Question 2.
You are configuring source-based routing in a VSX Gateway deployment with both External and Internal Virtual Routers. 

Which of the following functions cannot be configured for the Virtual Systems?

A. Virtual System clustering
B. Anti-spoofing measures
C. Network Address Translation
D. Remote access VPNs
E. Intranet VPNs

Answer: B

Question 3.
During MDS installation, you must configure at least one VSX Administrator. 

After creating the Administrator, you are prompted to perform which task? 

A. Grant VSX-specific privileges to the Administrator
B. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific Virtual System
C. Add the Administrator to a group
D. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific interface on the VSX Gateway
E. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific CMA

Answer: C

Question 4.
In a VSX Gateway cluster, which of the following objects are available by default as installation targets for the Management Virtual System?

A. Individual Management Virtual Systems (MVS) for each cluster member
B. MVS cluster object
C. Individual External Virtual Routers for each cluster member
D. Virtual Switch cluster object
E. Individual Virtual Switch Members

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which of the following MDS types allows you to create and manage a VSX Gateway?

A. MDS CLM
B. MDS Manager station
C. MDS VSX Integrator
D. MDS MLM
E. MDS Manager + Container station

Answer: E

Question 6.
What are the two levels of VSX Gateway clustering?

A. INSPECT and database level
B. Database and VSX Gateway levels
C. Virtual device and database levels
D. INSPECT and configuration levels
E. Virtual device and VSX Gateway levels

Answer: E

Question 7.
When deploying a VSX Gateway managed by a SmartCenter Server, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. VSX Administrators can configure different domains for each Virtual System.
B. Multiple Administrators can simultaneously connect to the same database, to manage multiple 
    Customers.
C. All Customer objects, rules, and users are shared in a single database.
D. Each Virtual System has its own unique Certificate Authority.
E. VSX superuser Administrators can configure granular permissions for each Customer 
    Administrator.

Answer: C

Question 8.
What is the difference between Single-Context and Multi-Context processes?

A. Single-Context processes are implemented in standard firewall deployments, while only Multi- 
    Context processes are implemented in VSX Gateway deployments.
B. Single-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in an HA configuration, while 
    Multi-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in a Load Sharing environment.
C. Single-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share, while Multi- Context 
    processes are unique to each Virtual System.
D. Single-Context processes are implemented in a single VSX Gateway environment, while Multi-
    Context processes are only implemented in VSX Gateway High Availability (HA).
E. Single-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System on a Gateway, while Multi- 
    Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share.

Answer: E

Question 9.
A Warp Link is a virtual point-to-point connection between a:

A. Virtual Router and Virtual System.
B. Virtual Router and Virtual Switch.
C. Virtual System and the management interface.
D. Virtual Router and a physical interface.
E. Virtual System and another Virtual System.

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the default Security Policy of the External Virtual Router?

A. The External Virtual Router automatically performs Hide NAT behind its external interface for 
    all Virtual Systems connected to it.
B. The default Policy of the External Virtual Router denies all traffic going to or coming from it.
C. The default policy of the External Virtual Router cannot be changed.
D. All traffic coming from networks protected by a VSX Gateway is accepted. All other traffic is 
    dropped.
E. The External Virtual Router always enforces the same Policy as the Management Virtual 
    System.

Answer: B

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Braindumps for "156-215.71" Exam

Certified Security Administrator R71

 
Question 1.
Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables firewalls to incorporate layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?

A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence

Answer: C

Explanation: 

Question 2.
Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE?

A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge interface for 
    Network Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the  
   network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 3.
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?

A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?

A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features  
    and support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific  
    features of the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing  
    components.)

Answer: B

Explanation: 

Question 5.
UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.

A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the “forwarding layer” of clusterXL

Answer: A

Explanation: 

Question 6.
The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the OSI model?

A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 7.
The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux Enterprise 3.0 server working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 8.
The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as the SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 9.
The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as the SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third server running SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.

Answer: C

Explanation: 

Question 10.
The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):

A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.

Answer: C

Explanation: 

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