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Braindumps for "1Y0-972" Exam

I´m need some about this

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Braindumps for "70-443" Exam

Designing a Database Server Infrastructure by Using Microsoft SQL Server 2005

 Question 1.
You need to set up the Bid_Archive database. What should you do?

A. Configure merge replication to move the data between the Bids and Bid_Archive databases.
B. Set up DML triggers to move rows from the Bids database to the Bid_Archive database when 
    the Completed column in the Bid_Tracking table is set to 1 and the Successful column is set to 
    0.
C. Configure snapshot replication to move all data from the Bids to the Bid_Archive database.
D. Create a job that is scheduled to run every hour to check for rows in the Bid_Tracking table 
    where the Completed column is set to 1 and the Successful column is set to 0.

Answer: B

Question 2.
You need to identify the combinations of the Windows operating system and SQL Server 2005 version that will be the most appropriate for the new R&D configuration, which will include the Research, Parts, and Engineering databases. 

Which two combinations will be the most appropriate? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition with SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition
B. Windows Server 2003 Datacenter Edition with SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition
C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition with SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition

Answer: A, D

Question 3.
Your account name is Pat and you are a member of the db_owner database role. You have the permissions that are required to create the assembly for the new custom application that manages the replication for the Customer database. You need to minimize the attack surface on the server, while creating the assembly for the CLR to use. You need to ensure that your solution fulfills the companys security requirements. 

Which two options should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. WITH PERMISSION_SET = External_Access
B. WITH PERMISSION_SET = Unsafe
C. WITH PERMISSION_SET = Safe
D. AUTHORIZATION dbo
E. AUTHORIZATION Pat

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
D: Case study text: All assemblies should be created with dbo as the owner.

Question 4.
You are a member of the DBAdmins group. You need to configure the HTTP endpoints for the new Web services application that will access the Customer database. You want to accomplish this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort, while fulfilling the companys technical requirements. 

Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Install Internet Information Services (IIS) 6.0 on ITCertKeys B.
B. Create an implicit namespace reservation while executing the CREATE ENDPOINT command.
C. Ask the Windows administrator to create an explicit namespace reservation for the HTTP 
    endpoint.
D. Assign the Control permission on the endpoint to all users that will use the Web services 
    application.
E. Assign the Connect permission on the endpoint to all users that will use the Web services 
    application.

Answer: C, E

Question 5.
You need to define the data type and the table options for a new column named Annual Review in the HR database. 

Which two options should you select? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Use the text data type.
B. Use the nvarchar(max) data type.
C. Use the varchar(max) data type.
D. Set the large value types out of row option to Off.
E. Set the large value types out of row option to On.
F. Set the text in row option to Off.
G. Set the text in row option to 7000.

Answer: B, E

Question 6.
DRAG DROP 
Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, wants you to design the backup schedule for the Customer database.
Not all locations have to be filled.
 

Answer:
 

Question 7.
You need to design the consolidation plan for ITCertKeys A, ITCertKeys B, and ITCertKeys C. You need to identify the appropriate combination of SQL Server instances and SQL Server 2005 computers that are needed to fulfill the companys consolidation plans and security requirements. 

Which combination should you use?

A. one SQL Server 2005 computer with one instance
B. two SQL Server 2005 computers, each with two instances
C. two SQL Server computers, one with one instance and one with three instances
D. one SQL Server 2005 computer with two instances

Answer: D

Question 8.
You need to review the list of expected services for SQLCLUST and disable any nonessential services. 

Which two services should be disabled? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Cluster service
B. World Wide Web Publishing service
C. SQL Server Agent service
D. Messenger service
E. Server service

Answer: B, D

Question 9.
You configure the new server named SQLCLUST with test versions of the Research, Engineering, and Parts databases. The data in these databases is for test purposes only and is not current. You need to move the new Research, Engineering, and Parts databases from the test stage to the production stage as efficiently as possible. 

Prior to making the databases available to users, which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A. Use the DELETE statement to remove all test data from the three databases.
B. Run scripts on the production server to build all tables, views, and stored procedures.
C. Schedule one or more jobs to move all data from the mainframe computer databases to the 
    new databases.
D. Build all indexes, and update the statistics on all tables.
E. Manually move all data from the mainframe computer to the new databases by using the 
    SELECT INTO command.

Answer: B, C, D

Question 10.
You need to configure the security for the HR database to support current security needs, while minimizing the impact of future security changes that might be caused by user and table additions. 

Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) 

A. Grant the SELECT permission on all current tables to the public database role.
B. Create an HR_Readers role, add all employees in the HR department to this role, and grant 
    the SELECT permission on all current tables to this role.
C. Add all employees to the db_datareader database role.
D. Add all hiring managers to the db_datawriter database role.
E. Create a Hiring_Managers role, add all hiring managers to this role, and grant the role the 
    SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE permissions on the five tables the hiring managers 
    need to manage.

Answer: B, E



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Braindumps for "3M0-300" Exam

3Com Certified Security Specialist Final Exam v3.0

 Question 1.
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?

A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?

A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Answer: A

Question 3.
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 4.
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Question 5.
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?

A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Answer: B

Explanation:
 

Question 6.
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?

A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion

Answer: C

Question 7.
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?

A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Answer: D

Question 9.
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) - OFF
RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) - ON

A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Answer: C

Question 10.
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
 

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 11.
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "1Y0-264" Exam

Citrix Presentation Server 4.5: Support Exam

 Question 1.
An administrator has implemented QoS (prioritization) to ensure that ICA traffic is prioritized appropriately. Session Reliability is using the default port.

What should the administrator check on the firewall to verify that Session Reliability will work?

A. TCP 1494 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
B. TCP 2598 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
C. TCP 1494 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
D. TCP 2598 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator is attempting to restart one of the servers in a Presentation Server farm. However, the IMA Service fails with an error message that states:
"Setup Could Not Start The IMA Service."
To troubleshoot the issue in this scenario, the administrator should verify that the ____________.(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A. server name has not been changed
B. startup type of the IMA Service is set to manual
C. WMI Service is started in the context of the administrator
D. print spooler service was started in the context of the system

Answer: D

Question 3.
An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.

What is the reason for this issue?

A. NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B. The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C. Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D. The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.

How can the administrator correct this issue?

A. Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B. Configure local time estimation for all users.
C. Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D. Disable the time zone rule Do not use client local time in the policy.

Answer: D

Question 5.
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to their desktops in a Presentation Server farm. The users all receive a message that states:
"You do not have access to logon to this session."

How can the administrator troubleshoot this issue?

A. Check the listener from the Presentation Server Console.
B. Check the settings on the listener port in the Terminal Services Configuration.
C. Look for the users' accounts in the User Summary Report in the Resource Manager node.
D. Look at the amount of sessions on the server in the Server Summary Report from the 
    Resource Manager node.

Answer: B

Question 6.
How can an administrator remove a server in a Presentation Server farm from the load balance table after an IMA Service failure?

A. Enable the appropriate Health Monitoring check.
B. Configure the IMA Service to run QFARM/LOAD upon failure.
C. Enable the Load Throttling rule within the Server Load Evaluator.
D. Change the Windows services dependencies of the IMA Service.

Answer: A

Question 7.
When restoring a backup of a Microsoft SQL data store database, what is the LAST thing that needs to be done to complete the restoration sequence?

A. Copy the DSN file to the new database server.
B. Verify that all servers are using the correct DSN.
C. Stop and restart the IMA Service on all servers in the farm.
D. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA Service configuration on all servers 
    in the farm.

Answer: C

Question 8.
An administrator needs to deliver a video-based training application that is highly graphical on a server running Presentation Server.

What should be enabled to configure this type of application?

A. CPU optimization
B. Memory optimization
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration

Answer: C

Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator just obtained a new server to add to a farm. Once the server is added to the farm it begins a trust query cycle. However, the cycle could not complete due to communication issues. 

Which component does the server need to communicate with to complete the trust query cycle?

A. Data store
B. Data collector
C. Summary database
D. Database connection

Answer: A

Question 10.
Scenario: Users at a small remote office report that ICA sessions are slow and sometimes drop, especially When large print jobs are running. The administrator plans to upgrade the WAN link later this year but is currently unable to do so. The administrator has already implemented Session Reliability. The next step the administrator should take is to______________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A. implement ICA Keep-Alive
B. adjust the bandwidth policies
C. select Auto Client Reconnect
D. prioritize the Print Manager Service

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "000-100" Exam

Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux

 
Question 1.
A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. 

What are the minimum requirements?

A. Two dual port adapters
B. Four dual port adapters
C. Four single port adapters
D. Two single port adapters

Answer: C

Question 2.
A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response:
0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. 

What can be the cause of this problem?

A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter
B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC
C. Promiscuous mode on lp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC
D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1

Answer: C

Question 3.
A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection?

A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters
B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters
C. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter
D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch

Answer: B

Question 4.
A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. 

What is the probable cause?

A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured
B. PowerVM key is not registered
C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR
D. Networking is not configured

Answer: D

Question 5.
An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log.

What is the reason for this error?

A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted
B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true"
C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot
D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value

Answer: A

Question 6.
A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze:
Exhibit:
 

What should be recommend to the customer?

A. The system doesn't need additional hardware
B. The system needs additional network cards
C. The system needs additional memory
D. The system needs additional CPU

Answer: A

Question 7.
What command is used to create an application Workload partition?

A. crwpar
B. wparexec
C. mkwpar
D. mkappwpar

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface?

A. ifconfig
B. C smitty chinet
C. mkdev
D. Smitty mktcpip

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which command provides output for mixed page sizes?

A. mpstat
B. svmon -P
C. vmstat -o
D. lvmstat -m

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders?

A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator
C. System planning tool
D. HMC

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "70-526" Exam

TS: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 - Windows-Based Client Development

 Question 1.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is presenting CertKiller.com's logo.

What action should you take?

A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show that only the base form can modify the control.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.

Question 2.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is working, and learnt that it does not allow the ITCertKeys.com users to change the selected time.

What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the ITCertKeys.com uses to change the selected time?

A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True the users can select the time.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.

Question 3.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. The manager of ITCertKeys.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the exhibit.
 

When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed. 

Which of the following code segments should be used?

A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond to the mouse.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want the background to be transparent.

Question 4.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A ITCertKeys.com manager wants the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column? 

How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?

A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space. 
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.

Question 5.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added a SplitContainer control named ITCertKeysSplitContainer to a form. You then left the control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.

Which of the following code segments should you use?

A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];

Answer: D

Explanation: 
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer control.

Question 6.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named testbrowser is added to the control to a form named ITCertKeysForm, which is define as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public ITCertKeysForm : Form
{
public ITCertKeysForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam, which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];

What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of ITCertKeysForm is called when the JavaScrip function is carry out? 

A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the current 
    instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current instance 
    of the ITCertKeysForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the current instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM documents.

Question 7.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS003 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically loaded images.

Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?

A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load dynamically fails.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while the other one is loading.

Question 8.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component named ITCertKeysnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5 seconds.
 

Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users click the balloon tip?

A. ITCertKeysnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
   ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
   ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
   ToolTipIcon.Info];
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}

Answer: A

Explanation: 
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon is clicked and not the balloon tip.

Question 9.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second one is Run Job.

Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?

A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];

Answer: C

Explanation: 
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance, which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.

Question 10.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.

What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the ContextMenuStrip control?

A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the ContextMeniStrip 
    control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to the Items 
    collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the 
    ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the collection of 
    the ToolStripControlHost instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the parameter to the constructor.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.



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Braindumps for "646-223" Exam

Unified Communications Express AM

 Question 1.
An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users. 

Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?

A. a full Cisco CallManager solution
B. a full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity
C. Cisco CallManager Express
D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express

Answer: D

Question 2.
One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth. 

Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?

A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP 
    Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP 
    components are integrated.
B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition 
   requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a 
   new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer 
   the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.
C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself 
   in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The 
   drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such 
   as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.
D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid 
   ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions 
   to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or 
   applications.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Organizations that embrace Cisco IP Communications solutions are able to interoperate with existing TDM systems and applications, as well as support which two traditional telephony networking standards? (Choose two.)

A. QSIG
B. BGP
C. SIP
D. TDM
E. DPNSS

Answer: A, E

Question 4.
The IT manager from a prospective client organization explains that their network is overloaded. The network has been in use since 2002 with minimal upgrades, and is composed of several different devices from different vendors. E.mail is slow, the voice.mail system is outdated, and employee productivity and responsiveness are suffering.

Given this scenario, which business driver is most appropriate to sell a Cisco IP Communications solution?

A. reduce operating costs
B. increase revenue generation
C. facilitate future expansion
D. reduce the number of employees

Answer: A

Question 5.
You require an easy-to-use, web.enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings. 

Which tool should you use?

A. Cisco ROI analysis
B. Cisco CNIC
C. business case from the industry of the prospect
D. customized hurdle rate analysis

Answer: B

Question 6.
An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco CallManager Express remotely. 

Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?

A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. commanD.line interface
D. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor

Answer: C

Question 7.
Which two baseline discovery questions would be most appropriate to ask an IT manager? (Choose two.)

A. in how many locations do you have Cisco routers deployed?
B. Would installing Cisco IP Communications Express with other business systems reduce the 
    complexity of your IP infrastructure?
C. How many platforms do you intend to use for call processing and voice mail?
D. Do you anticipate growth in the number of employees over the next few years?

Answer: A, C

Question 8.
A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. 

What application would best meet the needs of the customer?

A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Cisco Unity
C. customized XML applications
D. Cisco CallManager

Answer: A

Question 9.
How does a converged solution work?

A. Voice traffic is carried over a circuit-switched network, and data traffic is carried on an IP 
    network
B. Voice, video, and data are integrated onto a single IP network.
C. The network is comprised of proprietary timE.division multiplexing hardware and circuits.
D. The LAN is used for data traffic, and the WAN is used to integrate voice and video traffic

Answer: B

Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at Certpaper.com. Certpaper has several global offices, including one in Britain, two in North America, and three in Asia. The company needs to investigate cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation. 

What application would best meet the requirements of the company?

A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Customized XML applications
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "646-230" Exam

Advanced Unified Communications AM

 
Question 1.
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is router-based and scales up to 24000 users.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and Cisco Unified Communications 
    Manager Express scales up to 300 users.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified 
    Communications Manager scales up to 240 users.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and scales up to 24000 users.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified 
    Communications Manager scales up to 30000 users.

Answer: E

Question 2.
A company's mission is to support its customers' technical needs. Its consultants work from home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and implementations. Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will best support this company's goal.

A. Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencing
B. Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony 
    integration, and multichannel contact management
C. Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inbox
D. Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy status

Answer: A

Question 3.
An operations manager compares the cost of upgrading their current system to the cost of implementing a fully-featured Cisco Unified Communications system. She objects that the upgrade may not be justifiable. 

Which two responses would most likely best answer to this objection? (Choose two.)

A. Seamlessly integrating your current PBX infrastructure with a full IP solution is the best way to 
    Stay ahead of the competition.
B. A Unified Communications solution will reduce more toll charges than an IP-enabled PBX.
C. The scalability of Cisco Unified Communications solutions will enable you to stay a step ahead 
    of the competition.
D. Simply enabling the current system may not accomplish these business objectives.
E. Accommodating unplanned growth and customer-driven changes can best be addressed with 
    a distributed PBX solution.

Answer: C, D

Question 4.
What are two features of Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)

A. support for 12 languages
B. full-featured voice mail
C. IBM Lotus Domino or Microsoft Exchange message store
D. scalable performance
E. deployment flexibility

Answer: D, E

Question 5.
A large chemical company with a limited capital expenditure budget is considering a much-needed investment in a converged IP network but is having trouble justifying the initial costs to management.

Which solution would you recommend?

A. purchase
B. lease
C. Cisco Unity Unified Messaging
D. IP-enabled PBX

Answer: B

Question 6.
A potential customer requests a reliable, cost-effective method of monitoring and evaluating the quality of voice in Cisco Unified Communications solutions. This customer needs a tool which continuously monitors active calls supported by the Cisco Unified Communications system and provides near-realtime notification when the voice quality of a call, represented as end-user experience expressed by a Mean Opinion Score, fails to meet a user-defined quality threshold.

Which of the following tools should an account manager propose?

A. Cisco netManager Unified Communications
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. Cisco Voice Provisioning Tool
D. Cisco Smart Care Services
E. Cisco Unified Service Monitor, which includes Cisco 1040 sensors

Answer: E

Question 7.
Read the customer objection and select the two best answers. (Choose two.) Telecommunications manager: Everyone knows that Cisco is good at data, but you simply do not have voice experience. None of your account managers, systems engineers, or professional service people truly understands the voice environment.

A. I understand your concern, especially because we are so well known for data. In addition to 
    our data experience, we are also very familiar with the voice environment. In fact, we helped 
    invent voice technology.
B. I am glad you brought that up! It is true that at one time, we were focused more on data than 
    on voice. Today, however, Cisco has a large percentage of employees with voice experience.
C. Thank you for mentioning that point. Because our focus is on QoS, which is currently not 
    supported by the Internet, people often believe that Cisco has no voice experience.
D. That is a valid concern, and I would like to address it. While it is true that we are strong in the 
    data arena, we are also actively and aggressively investing in staff voice skills, and also 
    recruiting the finest voice professionals in the market. The strength of our voice team has 
    brought us a great deal of respect in the marketplace.

Answer: B, D

Question 8.
Based on the scenario below, what is the primary need of the finance manager? Account Manager: Have you considered the potential TCO savings that you can achieve with a Unified Communications upgrade?
Finance manager: To some degree, yes, but it sounds like a big investment, not only in terms of technology, but even more so in terms of staff and maintenance.

A. reduce operational costs
B. automate financial reports
C. increase revenue
D. increase the flexibility of revenue projections

Answer: A

Question 9.
A Cisco customer has a management team, each member of which has a number of needs. Operations manager:
Improve order processes
Improve the ability to make accurate forecasts
Finance manager:
Reduce the TCO of the existing IP communications infrastructure
IT manager:
Improve network reliability
Streamline the delivery of end-user support

Which business need would be the primary Cisco Unified Communications solution sales driver?

A. reduce the number of employees
B. reduce operating costs
C. increase revenue generation
D. facilitate future expansion

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which of the following features could not be implemented with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?

A. XML applications
B. Auto-attendant capabilities
C. Integrated messaging
D. Cisco Unified Presence

Answer: D



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Braindumps for "646-363" Exam

Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers

 Question 1.
Which service is provided by Cisco SMARTnet?

A. investment protection with upgrade discounts
B. around-the-clock access to Cisco Technical Access Center
C. Cisco Learning Credits for IT staff development
D. service level agreements to ensure uptime requirements are met

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer?

A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution
B. analyzes the customers business requirements and recommends the appropnate Cisco 
    technologies to meet Business requirements
C. determining what end-user training a customer requires
D. addressing a customer's physical requirements

Answer: B

Question 3.
What best explains why the banking industry is ready to take advantage of an integrated network infrastructure?

A. Many banks are still connecting via dial-up.
B. Many banks need to consolidate departments and resources.
C. Many banks find themselves with an obsolete branch infrastructure
D. Many banks need back-office process streamlining.

Answer: C

Question 4.
A new client of yours is experiencing a growth spurt. The client's IT staff is making network changes manually and as a consequence, is extremely overworked. 

You suggest the client implement a network management system, citing which important business benefit?

A. potential for outsourcing the IT staff
B. provision of an out-of-band management architecture
C. threat mitigation
D. reduction in network downtime

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which three of these service components are in the design phase? (Choose three.)

A. Account Qualification and Planning
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Staff Training
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
E. Staging Plan Development
F. Site Readiness Assessment

Answer: B, D, E

Question 6.
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)

A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, 
    availability, capacity and security.
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a Customer and having the customer 
    validate them
F. completing a site survey

Answer: A, B, E

Question 7.
What is a Cisco industry initiative that uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance on all devices that are seeking to access the network?

A. Cisco Adaptive Threat Defense
B. Cisco Secure Access Control
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Threat Defense System

Answer: C

Question 8.
Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to medium-size campuses with growth opportunities due to the switches' enhanced security and which two other features? (Choose two.)

A. enhanced multilayer software image
B. connectivity to multiple types of WAN connections
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. QoS for converged networks
E. modular, customizable components

Answer: D, E

Question 9.
The Cisco UC520 provides integrated WLAN connectivity to mobile clients for which technology?

A. voice only
B. data only
C. Data and voice

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which three features does the Cisco UC520 support? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco unity Express
B. distributed routing
C. Storage Area Networks
D. analog devices
E. Telepresence
F- security firewall and VPN

Answer: A, D, F



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Braindumps for "646-563" Exam

Advanced Security for Account Managers Exam

 Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.

Answer: C, E

Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?

A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate 
    solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?

A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS

Answer: E

Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?

A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train

Answer: A

Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)

A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.

Answer: A, E

Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?

A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning 
    capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones

Answer: A

Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?

A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)

A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing

Answer: B, D

Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?

A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?

A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

Answer: D



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