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Question 1.
What are two irrelevant design considerations when using the 15216 EDFA? (Choose two.)
A. dispersion
B. Optical SNR
C. span attenuation
D. four wave mixing
E. receiver sensitivity
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
SONET Path Terminating Equipment (PTE) requires the following three line codes to be supported for DS1 and DS3 circuits EXCEPT? (Choose three)
A. AMI
B. ESF
C. DUS
D. SSM
E. B3ZS
F. B8ZS
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
The following three technologies are used to reduce chromatic dispersion accumulation in fiber-optic transmission systems EXCEPT? (Choose two)
A. PIN photodiodes
B. zero-chirped lasers
C. Erbium-doped fiber amplifiers
D. dispersion compensating fiber
E. dispersion compensating Bragg grating
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
The following three factors limit the maximum distance of an amplified optical signal without regeneration EXCEPT? (Choose two)
A. fiber dispersion
B. signal attenuation
C. transmitter power
D. amplifier bandwidth
E. receiver dispersion tolerance
Answer: C, E
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Question 1.
You install Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition for your company. You configure intelligent instant messaging filtering to block unsolicited instant messages from external locations. Several internal users report that they received unsolicited IM invitations. You need to identify the source of the unsolicited IM invitations.
What should you do?
A. Set up flat file logging on the Access Edge Server. Use Notepad to search for the user names
that are receiving the unsolicited messages.
B. Set up the OCSLogger tool on the front-end server. Set up logging for the ArchivingAgent
component. Use the Snooper tool to filter by the user names that are receiving the unsolicited
messages.
C. Set up the OCSLogger tool on the Access Edge Server. Set up logging for the IIMFilter
component. Use the Snooper tool to filter by the user names that are receiving the unsolicited
messages.
D. Configure archiving for the user names that are receiving the unsolicited messages. On the
Call Detail Record (CDR) server, review the archive for those user names.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Your company installs Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition. The company wants to ensure that all communications are being archived. You need to enable archiving by using an existing Microsoft SQL Server computer.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the Message Queuing service on an archiving server. Install the Message Queuing
service on each Access Edge Server.
B. Deploy the Message Queuing service on an archiving server. Install the Message Queuing
service on each front-end server.
C. Configure each front-end server for verbose logging. Back up the logs every night.
D. Configure each Access Edge Server for verbose logging. Back up the logs every night.
Answer: B
Question 3.
You install Office Communications Server 2007 Standard Edition. You need to back up all Communications Server 2007 configuration settings on your server.
What should you do?
A. Use Ntbackup.exe to back up the Communications Server application folders.
B. Use Ntbackup.exe to back up the system state of the server.
C. Use Lcscmd.exe and the /config parameter.
D. Use Lcscmd.exe and the /archiving parameter.
Answer: C
Question 4.
You install Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition for your company. You deploy an Edge Server and a front-end server. All servers have a 2.4-GHz CPU and 1 GB of RAM. The sales team reports that customers have problems with the sound quality on conferences that have 50 or more attendees. Sales representatives who attend Web conferences internally do not experience any sound-quality problems. You need to eliminate these sound-quality problems on Web conferences.
What should you do?
A. Add a CPU and upgrade the RAM on the Edge Server.
B. Add a CPU and upgrade the RAM on the front-end server.
C. Deploy an additional front-end server.
D. Deploy an additional Edge Server.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Your company uses Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition. You need to change the location of the network share where archived meetings are stored.
What should you do?
A. Use the Wbemtest.exe tool and the LCScmd.exe /s command to change the location.
B. Use the LCScmd.exe /s command and IIS Manager to change the location.
C. Use the Wbemtest.exe tool to populate the subfolders of the share.
D. Use the Wbemtest.exe tool and IIS Manager to change the location.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Your company uses Office Communications Server 2007 Standard Edition. The company wants to archive instant messaging (IM) conversations between its employees and the employees of a federated partner. The company does not want to archive any other conversations. You need to configure archiving.
What should you do?
A. Create a global group in Active Directory. Place all accounts that need to be archived in that
global group.
B. In the global archiving settings, on the Federated Communications tab, select Archive
according to user settings.
C. In the global archiving settings, on the Federated Communications tab, select Archive for all
users.
D. Upgrade to Enterprise Edition and enable archiving.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Your company uses Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition. You install and configure public IM connectivity (PIC). You cannot send instant messages to or receive them from any PIC providers. You need to ensure that PIC functions properly.
What should you do?
A. Register the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the front-end server with DNS.
B. Install a public certificate on the Director.
C. Install a private certificate on the Access Edge Server.
D. Provision the SIP domain with PIC providers.
Answer: D
Question 8.
A federated partner is not able to communicate with your company. You check the log files and notice that the federated partner has more than 1,000 valid requests. You need to allow the federated partner to communicate with your company.
What should you do?
A. Add client certificates from the federated partner on the Access Edge Server.
B. Add the partner's domain to the federation list.
C. Add the partner's domain to the Allow list on the Access Edge Server.
D. Add the partner's domain as a federated partner to the Enterprise pool.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Your company wants to enable federation. Company policy forbids publication of the root certificate. You need to directly federate with another company.
What should you do?
A. Install public IM connectivity (PIC) on the Access Edge Server.
B. Install the root certificate from the other company on the Access Edge Server.
C. Install internal private certificates on the Access Edge Server.
D. Install external public certificates on the Access Edge Server.
Answer: D
Question 10.
You configure Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition for external connectivity in a large enterprise environment. You need to configure the Access Edge Server so that communication is routed in a manner that provides additional security.
What should you do?
A. Route external traffic through a dedicated Director.
B. Route external traffic directly to and from internal pools.
C. Install private certificates on the Access Edge Server.
D. Install public certificates on the Access Edge Server.
Answer: A
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Question 1. When working with DUOS, it is important to handle the Save Dialog message appropriately. The user has a record displayed on the screen and they make a change to that record. What next action would cause the save dialog to appear? Choose the 3 that apply. A. Clicking on the Save Button B. Clicking on the Browse Buttons C. Clicking on the Lookup Button and selecting another record D. Closing the window Answer: B, C, D Question 2. You’re created some VBA customizations and are ready to distribute them to the end users. What is the recommended way to distribute customizations and which file will you give to the end users? A. Package tile B. Forms.dic C. Reports.dic D. Dynamics.vba Answer: A Question 3. Using VBA, what type of events exist for Microsoft Dynamics GP reports? Choose the 3 that apply. A. Start Events B. End Events C. Band Events D. Field Events Answer: A, B, C Question 4. When working with multiple VBA projects, what needs to be done in order to reference fields from one project to another? Choose the 2 that apply. A. Mark a circular reference between the projects B. The same object must be added to each project C. Mark a reference from one project to another D. When referencing the object in the code window, the object must be fully qualified Answer: C, D Question 5. If DUOS tables were used in the VBA project, when distributing, where do the DUOS tables need to exist? A. In the same location as the Dynamics.dic B. In the same location as the Dynamics set file C. In the same location as the System files D. In the same location as the Company files Answer: D Question 6. You have customized a Microsoft Dynamics GP window using Modifier and VBA on a workstation. You would like to use the customizations on another workstation so you create a package file which includes only the customizations you made. What will be affected when the package file is imported on another workstation? Choose the 2 that apply. A. Dynamics.vba B. Reports.dic C. Security D. Forms.dic Answer: A, D Question 7. In VBA what needs to be done in order to use DUOS methods and properties? Choose the 2 that apply. A. Declare the collection B. Declare the object C. Mark the Required Declaration Option D. Mark a reference to the DUOS tables Answer: A, B Question 8. When working with DUOS objects, what would the “for” and “next” statement do? A. Change multiple objects in the DUOS table B. Change one object in the DUOS table C. Change multiple objects in the collection D. Change one object in the collection Answer: C Question 9. In Report writer, which field type has the suffix FREQ appended to it when added to the VBA project? A. Control Count B. Count C. Sum D. Average Answer: B Question 10. What code would be used to update the DUOS table with the value of the Email Address field on the window? A. CustomerObject.Properties (“Email Address”) = EmailAddress B. CustomerObject.Properties (EmailAddress) = “Email Address” C. EmailAddress = CustomerObject.Properties (“Email Address”) D. “Email Address” = CustomerObject.Properties (EmailAddress) Answer: A
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Question 1.
Personal Data Keeper and Project Time and Expense for Business Portal are designed for users to enter which types of transactions?
A. Timesheets only
B. Timesheets and Employee Expenses
C. Any Project Accounting transaction
D. Timesheets and any purchasing type transaction
Answer: B
Question 2.
What are the user types available in the Personal Data Keeper User Setup window?
A. Employee, Supervisor and Administrator
B. Employee, Administrator and Manager
C. Employee, Manager and Supervisor
D. Employee, Administrator, Manager and Supervisor
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which of the following statements accurately represents a difference between Personal Data Keeper and Project Time and Expense for Business Portal?
A. Only Personal Data Keeper uses web services to interlace with SQL server.
B. Project Time & Expense for Business Portal may be used to approve expenses but Personal
Data Keeper cannot.
C. Only Personal Data Keeper timesheets can be entered in a week based format.
D. In Time & Expense for Business Portal employees must be assigned to a project before they
can enter a timesheet for it.
Answer: D
Question 4.
An employee assigned as a delegate in the Timesheet Settings window has which of the following capabilities?
A. They can enter a timesheet on behalf of the employee identified.
B. They can approve a timesheet for the employee identified.
C. They can enter a timesheet for any other employee.
D. They can log into Personal Data Keeper as the user identified.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What is the maximum number of delegates that may be assigned to a single employee?
A. Two
B. As many as are in the class assigned to the user.
C. One
D. Unlimited
Answer: D
Question 6.
How is the user count defined in Personal Data Keeper?
A. It is determined by the database server license.
B. Each User ID is considered one license.
C. Personal Data Keeper licenses are concurrent, not based on specific users.
D. Dynamics GP user licenses transfer to Personal Data Keeper licenses.
Answer: B
Question 7.
In order to install Project Time and Expense for Business Portal, which of the following must be true?
A. The installer must be a user in Microsoft Dynamics GP.
B. The installer must have administrator rights to the SQL server being used.
C. The system must have registered Payroll applications.
D. The installer must be a Microsoft master certified Dynamics GP technician.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following describes system security in Personal Data Keeper?
A. You must have a system password and it must be access?
B. A system password is optional in Personal Data Keeper.
C. You must have a system password, but it does not have to be ‘access’.
D. There is no system password capability in Personal Data Keeper.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which role is necessary in order to add or remove users in business Portal for use with Project Time and Expense?
A. Employee
B. Manager
C. Administrator
D. Back Office user
Answer: C
Question 10.
Whether a transaction appears in the approvals window is determined primarily by which table field?
A. PDK Document Status field of the transaction header table.
B. The Employee ID field of the transaction header table.
C. The Transaction Quantity field of the transaction line table.
D. The User Type field of the PDK User Master table.
Answer: A
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Question 1. If a user creates a time code for sick time without pay in Attendance, what time type should be assigned to the time code? A. Benefit B. Absent C. Hourly D. Miscellaneous Answer: B Question 2. If a user creates a time code for sick time with pay in Attendance, what time type should be assigned to the time code? A. Benefit B. Absent C. Hourly D. Miscellaneous Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following is true about the applicant hire process in Human Resources? A. The applicant is added to the Employee file. B. The applicant is deleted from the applicant file. C. An employee ID must be entered when you hire the applicant. D. Some information about the applicant is transferred to an employee record. Answer: A, C, D Question 4. If an applicant is hired, which of the following information will the system transfer to their employee record? A. Skills B. Education C. Interviews D. Applicant User Defined information Answer: A, B Question 5. On the Setup Accruals window in Attendance, which of the following accrue By options should be used if all employees receive 40 hrs of sick time at the beginning of each year? A. Hr/Yr B. Interval C. Pay Period D. Post Once Answer: B Question 6. In the Attendance Transaction Transfer window, what does the checkbox indicate next to a transaction? A. The transaction needs to be posted. B. The transaction has been previously posted. C. The transaction has been voided. D. The transaction has been marked for posting. Answer: B Question 7. When pay periods are set up in Attendance, how many years need to be set up to avoid problems? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5 Answer: C Question 8. How many applications can be entered into the system for an applicant? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. Unlimited Answer: D Question 9. Which of the following statements are true about Attendance? A. Attendance is optional to use for Payroll transactions. B. Attendance can be used as a “stand alone” system independent from Payroll. C. Attendance has to be used for Payroll transactions if Human Resources are loaded. D. If Attendance is being used, Payroll Mass Transaction Entry is disabled. Answer: A, B Question 10. When linking time codes in Attendance to pay codes in Payroll, which of the following statements is true? A. An “absent” time code should not be linked to a pay code. B. Time codes are linked to pay codes for W-2 processing. C. Time codes and pay codes are for information only. D. Time codes and pay codes with the same ID will be automatically be linked. Answer: A
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Question 1. In VBA what needs to be done in order to use DUOS methods and properties? A. Declare the collection B. Declare the object C. Mark the Required Declaration Option D. Mark a reference to the DUOS tables Answer: A, B Question 2. How are upgrades to the Great Plains application released? A. Package Files B. Services Packs C. Major Releases D. None of the above Answer: B, C Question 3. Using VBA, what type of events exist for Great Plains reports? A. Start Events B. End Events C. Band Events D. Field Events Answer: A, B, C Question 4. When exporting data from Great Plains to a mail merge, what is true about the data source? A. A new data source must always be created B. An existing data source can be used C. The data source can be an excel document D. The data source can be a text file Answer: B, C, D Question 5. You are asked to modify a Great Plains window by adding fields to it. Using Modifier, what type of fields can be added? A. Local Fields B. Fields from any table attached to the form C. Fields from the auto-linked table D. Fields from the table created by the user Answer: A, C Question 6. Declaring variables before using them in your code is recommended. Doing this alleviates incorrect names of a variables when writing code and the scope of the variable can also be defined. In the VBA options window you can mark an option called “Require Variable Declaration”. It this option is marked what displays in the code window before any procedure? A. Option Explicit B. Explicit C. Implicit D. Force Explicit Answer: A Question 7. Using VBA code, how do you verify if a window is open? A. Is Open Method B. Is Loaded Method C. Is Open Property D. Is Loaded Property Answer: D Question 8. In the VBA Properties window what options are listed for the Event Mode property? A. emOriginalonly B. emAlways C. emMudifiedOnly D. emNever Answer: A, C, D Question 9. In VBA what window event can be used to check which button the user pushed on a modal dialog message? A. After Modal Dialog B. Before Modal Dialog C. After Close D. Before Close Answer: A Question 10 In the Great Plains application, how can you visually identify that a window has been customized using Modifier? A. “Modified” is displayed at the top of the window B. “Modified” is displayed at the bottom of the window C. “Modified” appears after the title of the window D. A period appears before the title of the window Answer: D
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Question 1.
Bob is tasked with developing a web application to help in the organization and assignment of tasks in Microsoft CRM. One of the requirements for this application is to generate a set of task activities and assign them to specific users.
Which of the following methods can Bob use to meet this requirement?
A. CRMActivity.Handle() method moves an activity to the In Progress (WIPBin) queue of the user.
B. CRMActivily.Route() method moves the activity to the private or public queue of the user or
does auto-routing.
C. BizUser.Queue() method can be used to assign to a specific user work in progress queue.
BizUser.Queue() method can be used to assign to a specific user? work in progress queue.
D. Assign activities to public queues configured to automatically assign tasks to users based on
predetermined criteria.
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Which of the following statements are true for Pole-Based Security in Microsoft CRM?
A. Privileges cannot be modified at the user level.
B. The roles you create for your business unit are inherited by all of the business units below it in
the hierarchy.
C. Roles are configurable within each Microsoft CRM Sales Territory.
D. The roles you create in MS CRM are replicated in Active Directory Schema as Security
Groups.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
Which or the following statements about deleting objects in Microsoft CRM are true?
A. When deleting an object, all the child objects are deleted or the delete fails and none are
deleted.
B. When deleting an account, the account won be deleted if there is an open contract for the
account.
C. When deleting an account, if the caller doesn have privileges that allow deletion of all child
objects, account will be flagged for deletion and an activity requesting deletion or any child
objects will be created for the owner or those objects. When the owner deletes the child
objects, the account deletion operation will proceed.
D. When deleting an account, all child objects will no longer be associated with the account.
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
Is there any difference between Incidents and Cases?
A. Yes. Incidents are customer requests for assistance, whereas Cases are customer requests
for service.
B. Yes. Cases are issues that can be tracked by case numbers, and can be assigned to CRM
Users Work in progress queues, whereas incidents are limited to the Service module in the
application scope and are informational only.
C. Yes. Incidents have different Status and Status Reasons than Cases.
D. No. The Microsoft CRM Application uses the term “Cases”. The Microsoft CRM platform uses
the term “Incidents”.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Below is a list of a user access rights defined by their role for specific records in Microsoft CRM: Account: Append To
Contact Append and Append To
Opportunity: Append
Note: Append and Append To
Which of the following actions is possible based on these rights?
A. User can add a note to an opportunity.
B. User can associate an opportunity with an account.
C. User can associate a contact with an account.
D. User can associate a note with an account.
Answer: A
Question 6.
You are designing an application which will perform many diverse actions against the Microsoft Business Solutions CRM platform. While reviewing your custom application requirements you notice that custom business logic must be repeatedly applied when updating Accounts and Contacts. Your application will be written using C or VB.NET.
Which choice represents a best practice in designing this code?
A. Use a global procedure to act on the account or contact for code modularity. Using runtime
type information the object type can be detected and acted upon accordingly.
B. Define a base class that implements the functionality. Create a class that inherits from this
class, CRMAccount, and CRM Contact. Use the inherited functionality to act on the inherited
account or contact using polymorphism.
C. Use an abstract base class to define methods to encapsulate the needed business logic.
Then implement the inherited classes using the base class the methods to act on the data.
D. Use a template based solution to implement the functionality. Declare the required methods to
act on the account or contact and template constructors for CRMAccount and CRM Contact.
Answer: C
Question 7.
While developing an application that interacts with the Microsoft Business Solutions CRM, you are assigned the task of creating an XML string for use in a fetch XML query.
What is a best practice to obtain the value representing the object type Account in Microsoft Business Solutions CRM 1.2?
A. Use the integer value documented in the Microsoft Business Solutions CRM SDK.
B. Use the value provided by the Microsoft.CRM.Proxy.ObjectType.otAccount.
C. Use the value provided by Microsoft.Crm.Platform.Types.ObjectType.otAccount
D. Use the value provided by Microsoft.Crm.Platform.Proxy.ObjectType.otAccount.
Answer: C
Question 8.
You are tasked with developing an application which searches against accounts and contacts stored in Microsoft Business Solutions CRM. A design goal for the application states that the queries should execute as efficiently as possible.
Which of the following represent a supported best practice that you would apply to achieve this goal?
A. You create a COM+ component to be deployed on the Microsoft Business Solutions CRM
server. This component uses the COM Proxy interface to retrieve information. The information
is marshaled back to the client using Net Remoting in binary format.
B. After the first call to BizUser.WhoAml(), you cache the CUserAuth instance in a Session
variable for future calls.
C. You create stored procedures on the Microsoft Sql Server instance serving the Microsoft
Business Solutions CRM installation database. You then use ADO.Net to access these stored
procedures to efficiently query the database.
D. You create a COM+ component to be deployed on the Microsoft Sql Server instance serving
the Microsoft Business Solutions CRM installation database. This component uses ADO.Net
to retrieve the information from custom stored procedures. The information is marshaled back
to the client using .Net Remoting in binary format.
Answer: B
Question 9.
You are a developing an application which queries the Microsoft Business Solutions CRM Server based on input from the user. The information is returned as XML and is to be displayed to the user in HTML format as efficiently as possible.
Which choice represents a best practice in presenting the returned information to the user?
A. Use the .Net XmlDocument class to read the Xml. Select the result nodes using XPath and
read through the nodes building an HTML output string for display to the user.
B. Use an ADO.Net Dataset to read the Xml. Iterate through the dataset building an HTML output
string for display to the user.
C. Use the .Net XmlSerializer class to implement custom classes that represent data returned.
Once the Xml data is deserialized, render it into HTML through a custom method in the class.
D. Transform the XML into HTML using XSLT transformations.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statements represent best practices for using a Post-URL step in a Microsoft Business Solutions CRM Work flow process?
A. Use as the last step in the work flow.
B. Use for non-critical processing.
C. Use to open a new window to capture additional information from the user.
D. Use as a means to write critical business data to a back-end application.
Answer: A, B
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Question 1.
What does the platform layer use to protect itself from changes to the underlying database structures?
A. Platform Proxy
B. Metadata
C. Local Data
D. Database Replicator
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which of the following statements are True regarding testing and maintaining your workflow rules?
A. You must activate the rule before testing it
B. You can use Workflow Monitor to detect a possible infinite loop in a running workflow process
C. Workflow Manager will flag possible infinite loops when you insert a sub-process into a rule
that performs the rule being maintained
D. You must deactivate a active rule in order to edit it
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
Which of the following events are available to trigger client-side actions?
A. onClick
B. onLoad
C. onCharige
D. onSubmit
Answer: C
Question 4.
What parts of the Microsoft CRM application can be customized using the System Customization Tools?
A. Views
B. Forms
C. Contacts
D. Product Catalogs
Answer: A, B
Question 5.
Which layer or Microsoft CRM performs all security checks independent of the caller?
A. Application
B. Platform
C. Database
D. Presentation
Answer: B
Question 6.
Once you have created a workflow rule, what must you do to it before you can test it in Microsoft CRM?
A. Using Server Manager, run the server task titled “WF 100_Publish_Rule” in order to instantiate
the workflow rule you created
B. Activate the rule
C. Publish the rule
D. Assign the rule to a business unit
Answer: B
Question 7.
Your business is interested in using Microsoft CRM Workflow to automate its business processes and policies.
Which types of processes can a company automate with Microsoft CRM Workflow?
A. A process triggered by an event in an unlinked third-party application
B. A process that specifies the steps a sales rep should go through to close a sale
C. A process that schedules an activity for a non-Microsoft CRM user and places it on his Outlook
calendar
D. A process that assigns a sales rep to an account
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Which of the following can instantiate a workflow rule against a particular record?
A. A unit
B. An event
C. A code change
D. A manual ‘Apply Rule’ action
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
The Microsoft CRM Professional Edition includes which of the following Workflow tools?
A. Workflow Manager
B. Workflow Process Mapper
C. Workflow Monitor
D. Workflow Event Scheduler
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
Workflow Rules can be created for which of the following objects?
A. Accounts
B. Activities
C. Case
D. Lead
Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1. What is the most important phase in a Data Migration project? A. Planning B. Preparing Microsoft CRM C. Importing data into the CDF database D. Data Cleansing Answer: A Question 2. Which user account must be used when installing the Microsoft CRM Data Migration Framework? A. A Domain Administrator account B. Any account that is assigned the CRM System Administrator role C. The same account used to install Microsoft CRM D. Any account that is assigned the CEO-Business Manager role Answer: C Question 3. Which of the following tables does not exist in the CDF? A. Cdt_Account_ext B. Cdt_Activity_ext C. Cdt_Contact_ext D. Cdt_Lead_ext Answer: B Question 4. Which of the following is NOT one of the tasks of the CDF Migration Tool? A. Correlate Organization, Business Unit, Territory, and System User Entities. B. Update existing Microsoft CRM objects with new data. C. Migrate Data. D. Update Relationships between entities. Answer: B Question 5. How do you initialize the CDF database? A. Execute a program from a command window. B. Run a set of SQL Scripts. C. Execute a stored procedure. D. Click “Initialize CDF” from the Manage CDF window. Answer: A Question 6. The Microsoft CRM Data Migration Framework must be installed on which server? A. On the SQL Server used by the Microsoft CRM installation B. On a BizTalk server C. On a dedicated server D. On a Microsoft CRM Server Answer: D Question 7. The user account that is used to install the Microsoft CRM Data Migration Framework must have what kind of Microsoft CRM License? A. A license that includes each of the objects being migrated B. Professional Suite C. Professional Sales D. Standard Service Answer: A Question 8. What mechanism is used to synchronize the primary keys of the Entity Base tables, Entity Extension tables and the Entity Information tables? A. Initializing the CDF database. B. SQL Server replication. C. Triggers on the Entity base tables. D. It is a manual process. Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following is not one of the planning spreadsheets included with the Microsoft CRM Data Migration Framework? A. ACT to CDF Mapping.xls B. Sales Logix to CDF Mapping.xls C. Gold mine to CDF Mapping.xls D. Siebel to CDF Mapping.xls Answer: B Question 10. What data migration approaches are supported by Microsoft CRM? A. Direct import using SQL Server Data Transformation Services (DTS). B. Direct import using SQL queries. C. Third party data migration tools which use the Microsoft CPM Platform. D. Microsoft CRM Data Migration Framework. Answer: C, D
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Question 1. Your new customer will be monitoring 4 DMX800s, 1 DMX1000, 2 DMX2000P direct attached arrays with ControlCenter. What are the minimum total gatekeepers recommended if configurations are changed by EMC during outage windows only? A. 14 B. 20 C. 24 D. 28 Answer: A Question 2. Your customer is using ControlCenter to manage multiple data centers in multiple time zones. What might happen if data collection policies are scheduled incorrectly? A. SAN performance degrades B. Information is missing from StorageScope reports C. Agents cannot be installed D. Storage performance degrades Answer: B Question 3. Exhibit: A customer has the environment shown in the graphic. The customer has a very tight security policy for its networks and has installed separate firewall zones for all of its sites. The customer has reported that network latency is within the supported limits for ControlCenter. A large, distributed two-Store ControlCenter infrastructure has been purchased and installed at Site 1. What must you check before you begin deploying agents to the remote sites? A. Firewalls are NAT based and all the required ports have been opened B. Firewall rules have been created to allow the agents to send information to ControlCenter only C. Firewalls are all Static Rule-based and the required ports have been opened D. Firewalls are all PAT-based and all the required ports have been opened Answer: C Question 4. After the merger of BigBank and LittleBank, several storage administrators continued to use their own ControlCenter accounts. Several months later, it was determined that none of the current administrators knew the "eccadmin" password. What can be done? A. Reinstall just the server component B. Force a zone transfer C. Delete the "eccadmin" account from the domain D. Change the local user's password Answer: D Question 5. A customer wants all switch hardware faults to be forwarded to a SNMP management framework that has been set up for SNMP version 3 only. What must be configured? A. Switch to forward SNMP informs to a third-party framework application B. Switch to forward SNMPv1 traps to a third-party framework application C. Switch to forward SNMP informs to ControlCenter D. ControlCenter to forward SNMP traps to a third-party framework application Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: Host A has access to RAID-1 protected STD device. An unprotected R1/BCV is used to replicate this STD device. The R2 is RAID-1 protected. In StorageScope terminology, what is the allocated raw capacity for Host A? A. 12GB B. 4GB C. 8GB D. 20GB Answer: D Question 7. To upgrade VisualSAN when space is limited, select three [3] files that should be considered to determine the size of VisualSAN database? A. VSAN.MDF B. NM.MDF C. PM.MDF D. PDMA.MDF E. CM.MDF Answer: B, C, E Question 8. After a lightning strike, a Connectrix M series switch was replaced with an identical spare. The new switch was configured using Telnet. Now, Storage Provisioning Services (SPS) reports errors during attempts to allocate certain volumes. Why? A. SNMP community is wrong B. Switch password was changed C. An active zoneset is obsolete D. Telnet is no longer supported Answer: C Question 9. You are installing ControlCenter 5.2 on a single infrastructure Server with Windows 2003 and 4GB of memory. Which concern must be addressed? A. memquery.exe file must be replaced prior to beginning the installation B. memquery.exe file must be replaced prior to installing the Repository C. There are no issues if the Server is running Windows 2003 D. memquery.exe file must be replaced prior to installing the Server Answer: B Question 10. Your customer is complaining that the ControlCenter FCC Agent is not working properly. During your troubleshooting, you have confirmed there are no firewalls. Select (2) conflicts which could be interfering with the FCC Agent. A. SDM Agent B. Dell OpenManage service C. VNC D. NAS Agent E. Windows Terminal Services Answer: B, D
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