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Question 1.
Which of the following statements are false about cookies? (Choose Three)
A. Cookies are accessible only by the client’s browser.
B. Cookies are kept by the client’s browser on the server.
C. Cookies are assigned by the server or load balancer.
D. Cookies are kept by the client’s browser on the client machine.
E. Session state is maintained by a cookie provided by the client.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 2.
All of the following are the parameters required for configuring a service for SLL termination EXCEPT?
(Choose two)
A. Keepalive type ssl
B. Type
C. Ip address
D. Slot
E. Max-connections
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
Content routing uses the following three metrics to determine the best site on a global network EXCEPT?
(Choose two)
A. Client source address
B. Distance
C. Content engine channel subscription
D. Content engine availability
E. Server speed
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
The following three are the benefits of terminating SSL traffic in a Content Switch EXCEPT? (Choose two)
A. Eliminates the need for SSL.
B. Maintains security by allowing data to be decrypted, processed, and re-encrypted within a
single device.
C. Enable the Content Switch to make load balancing decisions on HTTP-layer information.
D. Reduces the number of digital certificates required in most web hosting environments.
E. Reduces or eliminates server button of negotiating SSL handshakes.
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
Which of the following is an invalid method to acquire media into a Cisco Content Engine?
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. HTTP
D. NMS
Answer: D
Question 6.
The following two are the primary reasons for implementing content routing EXCEPT? (Choose three)
A. To provide distributed access to distributed content.
B. To pre-position content where it will be most effective.
C. To load balance between servers within a data center.
D. To provide fundamental technology to distribute web applications.
E. To provide placement of content closer to the edge of the network.
Answer: B, C, E
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Question 1.
Your company has an IPv6 network. The IPv6 network has 25 segments. You deploy a server on the IPv6 network. You need to ensure that the server can communicate with systems on all segments of the IPv6 network.
What should you do?
A. Configure the IPv6 address as fd00::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/8.
B. Configure the IPv6 address as fe80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
C. Configure the IPv6 address as ff80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
D. Configure the IPv6 address as 0000::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008. Your company uses an Enterprise Certificate Authority. Company security policy requires that revoked certificate information be made available. You need to ensure that revoked certificate information is highly available.
What should you do?
A. Implement an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responder by using Network Load
Balancing.
B. Publish an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responder by using an Internet Security
and Acceleration Server array.
C. Publish the trusted certificate authorities list to the domain by using a group policy object.
D. Create a new group policy object that allows users to trust peer certificates. Link the group
policy object (GPO) to the domain.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Your corporate network has a member server named RAS1 that runs Windows Server 2008. RAS1 provides Routing and Remote Access Service. The company's remote access policy allows members of the Domain Users group to dial in to RAS1. The company issues smart cards to all employees to increase remote access security. You need to configure RAS1 and your remote access policy to support the use of the smart cards for dial-up connections.
What should you do?
A. Install the Network Policy Server (NPS) on the RAS1 server.
B. Create a remote access policy that requires users to authenticate by using Shiva Password
Authentication Protocol (SPAP).
C. Create a remote access policy that requires users to authenticate by using Extensible
Authentication ProtocolCTransport Layer Security (EAP-TLS).
D. Create a remote access policy that requires users to authenticate by using version 2 of the
Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP v2).
Answer: C
Question 4.
You deploy a Windows Server 2008 server that has routing and remote access installed. You configure the server that runs Windows Server 2008 to function as the corporate Virtual Private Network (VPN) server. All the portable computers in your company run Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional, Microsoft Windows XP or Windows Vista. The remote users in the company use this server for domain connectivity into the company network.
Confidential research data will be transmitted from the portable computers of the remote users to the VPN server. The company security policy requires public key infrastructure (PKI) based user and computer authentication for
the transmission of confidential data. You need to ensure that the VPN connection meets the security policy requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create certificate-based authentication with an L2TP/IPsec policy.
B. Create a custom IPSec policy by using the Kerberos version 5 authentication protocol.
C. Create a policy by using a Pre-shared authentication for most secure data transmission.
D. Run the secedit /refreshpolicy machine_policy command at the command line of the server.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Your company is deploying notebook computers that will be used to connect to the wireless network. You create a group policy and configure profiles by using the names of approved wireless networks. You link the group policy object (GPO) to the Notebook organizational unit. The new notebook computer users report that they cannot connect to the wireless network. You need to ensure that the group policy wireless settings are applied to the notebook computers.
What should you do?
A. Run the gpupdate /boot command on the notebook computers.
B. Run the gpupdate /target:computer command on the notebook computers.
C. Connect the notebook computers to the wired network. Log off the notebook computers, and
then log on again.
D. Run the Add a network that is in range of this computer wizard on the notebook computers and
leave the service set identifier (SSID) blank.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Your company plans to open a new branch office as a part of its Active Directory infrastructure. Users from the engineering department have to dial in to the company network when they work at the new branch office. You create a template account for new users in the engineering department. You need to ensure that all new user accounts in the engineering department hold the appropriate dial-in rights.
What should you do?
A. Add the group membership information to the template account, and then create a connection
request policy that includes the new group.
B. Add the group membership information to the template account, and then create a group policy
that grants the new group local logon permissions
C. Modify the schema for the account by changing the Logon Hours to 6:00-18:00 hours Monday
through Friday.
D. Modify the schema for the group membership attribute by selecting the Index this attribute in
the Active Directory check box.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run the Windows Server 2008 operating system. The company network has 10 servers that perform as Web servers. All confidential files are located on a server named FSS1. The company security policy states that all confidential data must be transmitted in the most secure manner. You activate Encrypting File System (EFS) on the confidential files. You also add EFS certificates to the Data Decryption Field (DDF) of the confidential files for the users who want to access them.
When you monitor the network, you notice that the confidential files that are stored on the FSS1 server are being transmitted over the network without encryption. You need to ensure that encryption is always used when the confidential files on the FSS1 server are transmitted over the network.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Deactivate all LM and NTLM authentication methods on the FSS1 server.
B. Use IIS to publish the confidential files, activate SSL on the IIS server, and then open the files
as a Web folder.
C. Use IPSec encryption between the FSS1 server and the computers of the users who want to
access the confidential files.
D. Use the Server Message Block (SMB) signing between the FSS1 server and the computers of
the users who want to access the confidential files.
E. Activate offline files for the confidential files that are stored on the FSS1 server. In the Folder
Advanced Properties dialog box, select the Encrypt contents to secure data option.
Answer: B, C
Question 8.
Network Access Protection is configured for the corporate network. The company policy requires confidentiality of data when the data is in transit between the client computers and the servers. Users connect their personal portable computers to the corporate network and access the network resources. You need to prevent computers that do not comply with the company policy requirements from accessing network resources.
What should you do?
A. Create an IPSec Enforcement Network policy.
B. Create an 802.1X Enforcement Network policy.
C. Create a Wired Network (IEEE 802.3) Group policy.
D. Create an Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) Enforcement Network policy.
Answer: A
Question 9.
You company has Network Access Protection and Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) deployed on the network. You set up new portable computers to connect to the company's wireless network. The portable computers will use PEAP-MS-CHAP V2 for authentication. You need to ensure that the portable computers can join the domain when users restart their portable computers.
What should you do?
A. Run the netsh wlan export profile command on each portable computer.
B. Configure each portable computer with a Bootstrap Wireless profile.
C. Configure a group policy with the Use Windows WLAN Auto Config service for clients policy
setting enabled.
D. Configure a group policy with the Use Windows Wired Auto Config service for clients policy
setting disabled.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Your company uses Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS) for remote user access. The remote users' computers are not domain members. You discover that the remote users' computers are the source of a virus on internal member servers. You need to protect the corporate network against viruses that are transmitted from remote users.
What should you do?
A. Deploy file-level antivirus software on the RRAS server and configure automatic updates for
the antivirus software.
B. Configure a network health policy to require that an antivirus application is running and that the
antivirus application is up to date.
C. Configure a network health policy to require that an anti-spyware application is running and
that the anti-spyware application is up to date.
D. Create an organizational unit for remote users. Deploy antivirus software to the organizational
unit by using a group policy object (GPO).
Answer: B
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Question 1.
The customer activates a VSAN for a new open system environment on the MDS-series switch.
What is the EMC recommended default zoning policy for the VSAN?
A. Deny - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
B. Permit - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
C. Permit - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
D. Deny - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
Answer: D
Question 2.
What are two [2] key features of Storage Management Interface (SMI)?
A. Automated discovery system
B. Common interoperable and statically management transport
C. Manually discovery system
D. Common interoperable and extensible management transport
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
The redraw time of the alerts window pane in ControlCenter takes several minutes to complete.
What do you recommend to fix this problem?
A. Edit the Alert Data Collection Policies
B. Edit the Alert Definition
C. Edit the Alert Templates
D. Edit the Alert Data Retention
Answer: D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
A customer has new DS-4100B switches. They want to turn on reporting levels of severity for messages.
Match the message to the corresponding severity level.
Answer:
Question 5.
Your company is planning to convert seven DS-32B2 standalone fabrics to a single full ISLs?
A. 112
B. 14
C. 84
D. 28
Answer: C
Question 6.
A customer has implemented a DR site 200 km away. They have an extended fabric configured between the SAN directors at each site, using a 62.5 MB/sec network infrastructure. They want to replicate mission critical data with a RPO objective of 60 seconds using SRDF and the existing SAN infrastructure.
What do you recommend to help them meet their objective?
A. They cannot meet these objectives using the existing environment
B. Add additional ISL bandwidth between directors
C. Add extended buffer credit licenses to all directors
D. SRDF/A for data replication
Answer: D
Question 7.
Exhibit:
When reviewing the print out of the trunking log in the exhibit you see the ISL rerouting.
How many ISL connections are between Domain ID 5 and Domain ID 6?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 8.
A company is replacing some M-series switches with new M-series directors. They will be replacing one for one, and want the least amount of disruption for their AIX and HP-UX boxes by maintaining their D_IDs.
How do they do this?
A. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
B. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Reboot servers
C. Set the different domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Persistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on the old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
D. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Disable Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
Answer: A
Question 9.
Two MDS-series fabrics, Fabric X and Fabric Y will be merged. Fabric X has one switch
A. Fabric Y has three switches B, C and D. The four switches are configured as domain-id preferred. Among the four switches, A has the highest priority and least WWN, C has the lowest priority, and D is the current principle switch in Fabric Y. Assume both fabrics will be merged without any conflicts.
Which switch will be the principle switch after the merge?
A. Switch B
B. Switch A
C. Switch D
D. Switch C
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is a valid FCID for a node connected to a MDS-series director in a fabric consisting of MDS-series, B-series and M-series switches?
A. 0x441111
B. 0x663333
C. 0x552222
D. 0x330000
Answer: B
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Question 1.
How many Zone Sets can be Activated per Fabric using SAN Manager?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
Question 2.
In an environment with hosts already accessing devices, which three [3] tasks must be performed to add volume access to a host?
A. Add access to the new devices on the HBAs
B. Unmask the devices from the HBAs
C. Refresh the VCMDB
D. Initialize the VCMDB
E. Backup VCMDB
F. Commit the masking to VCMDB
Answer: A, B, E
Question 3.
How many Bytes in length is the Fibre Channel Address field?
NOTE: Type in your answer in digits (0, 12, 321, etc.). Do NOT spell out your answer (one, two, etc.).
Answer:
Answer: 3
Question 4.
Which item changes when a link is physically moved from one switch port to another?
A. World Wide name.
B. N_Port Physical address.
C. NAT Table address.
D. AL_PA Address.
Answer: B
Question 5.
What is the Hexadecimal address of the Name Server in a Fabric?
A. FFFFFE
B. FFFFFC
C. FFFFFF
D. FFFFFD
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which Protocol is characterized by distance, connectivity and speed?
A. Escon
B. Fibre
C. SCSI
D. Bus & Tag
Answer: B
Question 7.
Where do you find information about logged in ports?
A. Directory Server
B. Port Login Table
C. Name Server Database
D. Fabric Login Service
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the correct command line syntax to upgrade a Connectrix MDS 9216 switch to firmware version 1.3.2a?
A. install all system bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
B. install all bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
C. install all kickstart :m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
D. install all kickstart bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the factory default user identification and password for logging into a B-Series switch?
A. user - admin password - password
B. user - admin password - admin
C. user - Administrator password - password
D. user - root password - root
Answer: A
Question 10.
To which device on a Connectrix Manager Service Processor does the automated backup of the d:\ECFM directory go to?
A. DVD drive
B. Zip Drive
C. Floppy drive
D. CDROM drive
Answer: B
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Question 1.
CLARiiON metaLUN expansion is best described by which statement?
A. Only a cancatented metaLUN can be expanded
B. A metaLUN cannot be expanded
C. A metaLUN can be expanded
D. Only a striped metaLUN can be expanded
Answer: C
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
In your capacity as the Storage administrator at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to arrange the tasks necessary to assign a LUN to a host, in the Navisphere GUI, into the correct sequence?
Answer:
Question 3.
Multihoming and cluster support with EMC ControlCenter can be described by which two of the following statements? (Choose two)
A. The ControlCenter installation program requires manual input to specify the multiple interface
connections
B. Multihoming is typically used for LAN traffic management
C. ControlCenter supports Adapter Teaming (Grouping network adapter ports for a connection to
a single physical segment)
D. ControlCenter is supported on hosts that have multiple network interface cards (NICs) or one
NIC with multiple interface connections
E. Multihoming is optional if you plan to install ControlCenter with Cluster Support
Answer: D, E
Question 4.
Assuming that zoning is already configured, which two tasks should you carry out after completing SDR operation in a Fibre Channel switched environment? (Choose two)
A. Set the new device state to" Write Disabled".
B. Perform LUN masking
C. Reconfigure the host to recognize the new devices that are available for access
D. Set the new device state to not ready.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
When a ControlCenter Store is overloaded, which are two possible actions that you should consider taking?
A. Add a ControlCenter Store
B. Add a ControlCenter Server
C. Add ControlCenter Master Agents
D. Distribute Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
E. Increase the frequency of the Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What would cause the Free Space view in the ControlCenter Console not to work?
A. You need to customize the Console to make it work
B. Free Space view is a report in StorageScope, it is not a view in the Console
C. The ARM License is not installed
D. You have to install a Service Pack
Answer: C
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Match the appropriate agent with the corresponding object that it manages.
Answer:
Question 8.
You are an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com is planning a ControlCenter 5.1.2 that must meet the following requirements:
Support for 12 medium size Symmetrix arrays.Storage Agents for Symmetrix on production hosts.Support for redundant Storage Agents for Symmetrix.WLA Archiver.
To meet these requirements, what is the minimum number of Symmetrix agents you should deploy?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is the projected database space required for 1 Terabyte of scanned data when you are sizing the VisualSRM database server?
A. 1.3 GB
B. 0.5 GB
C. 0.8 GB
D. 3.5 GB
Answer: A
Question 10.
Within the ControlCenter Console, what are the four kinds of Workload Analyzer-related Data Collection Policies that you can configure and enable? (Choose four)
A. WLA Summary
B. WLA Revolving
C. WLA Analyst
D. WLA Daily
E. WLA Retention
F. WLA Scheduled
Answer: B, C, D, E
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Question 1.
Select the two Connectrix MDS Models that are Multiprotocol (iSCSI / FCIP Storage Services Module) Ready? (Choose two)
A. MDS 9140
B. MDS 9120
C. MDS 9509
D. MDS 1032
E. MDS 9216
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
For what reason is having BCVs attached to the R2 devices at the remote site in a SRDF/A configuration recommended?
A. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a split operation.
B. To mirror R2 devices for backup purpose in a disaster recovery scenario.
C. To preserve extra tracks that would not fit into the cache of R2's COVD devices.
D. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a resynchronization operation.
Answer: D
Question 3.
EMC Replication Manager supports which three of the following features? (Choose three)
A. Provides incremental establish and restore functionality on CLARiiON storage arrays.
B. Exploits the incremental establish and restore capabilities of TimeFinder on Symmetrix storage
systems.
C. Automates tape backup based user specified schedule.
D. Restore automatically take advantage of the CLARiiON array's Protected Restore feature.
E. Performs TimeFinder Snap on Symmetrix Storage Systems.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they enquire as to how you created a recoverable copy of data, using TimeFinder. By way of explanation, arrange the tasks in the order you carried it out.
Answer:
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com's storage administrator wants to synchronize one device pair within a TimeFinder device group.
Which of the following command will achieve this objective?
A. symrdf namedf incremental BCV dev 0b3
B. symdev namedg full establish BCV dev 0b3
C. symmir namedg incremental BCV dev 0b3
D. symmir namedg full establish DEV003 BCV dev 0b3
Answer: D
Question 6.
The ControlCenter's interaction with its components can be described by what three statements?(Choose three)
A. The ECC Store retrieves real-time data requested by the Console.
B. The repository maintains current and historical data relating to EMC ControlCenter.
C. ControlCenter commands are passed over a TCP/IP network from the Console periodically
directly to the Agents.
D. The EMC ControlCenter Server provides most of the common services, which tie the
infrastructure together.
E. The Console relies on the EMC ControlCenter Server for information.
Answer: B, D, E
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the right, by placing them in the space provided on the left. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two are Symmetrix Host Adapters that is supported by Powerpath4.2? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre
C. Ficon
D. ESCON
E. SCSI
Answer: B, E
Question 9.
Which of the following are three Operating systems that support PowerPath pseudo devices? (Choose three)
A. SUN Solaris
B. HP-UX
C. Linux
D. AIX
E. Windows 200/2003
Answer: A, C, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they ask you to match the control center component pairs with the given maximum recommended network latency times, bearing in mind that these latency times may be used more than once.
Answer:
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
According to the exhibit, R1/BCV on Symm321 and R2 on Symm654 is pair 1, and R1/BCV on Sym654 and R2 on Symm987 is pair 2.
Which of the following commands is utilized for the control SRDF device operations on these two pairs?
A. Symrdf -bcv symrdf brbcv
B. syumrdf symrdf -rbcv
C. Symrdf Jcv symrdf -rdf -bcv
D. Symmir -rdf Jcv symrdf -rbcv
Answer: A
Question 2.
To simultaneously provide Read-Write acc4ess to both the R1 and R2 Volumes of the mydg device group, which SRDF symcli command would be used?
A. symrdf mydg spilt
B. symrdf mydg failover
C. symrdf mydg suspend
D. symrdf mydg spilt -concurrent
E. symrdf mydg suspend - concurrent
Answer: A
Question 3.
You Use Timefinder Snap to issue the following command:
Symnsnap list havedevs
Which two of the following statements best describes the output? (Choose two)
A. Percent full of the active Snap Session is shown.
B. The Symmetrix volumes associated with the Snap Save Devices are listed.
C. Percent full of the Save Devices is shown.
D. Lists the virtual devices associated with the Snap savedev device group.
E. Lists the active Snap Sessions.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
TimeFinder consistent splits are created by using which two items? (Choose two)
A. Resource Pak
B. Symmetrix integration Utilities (SIU)
C. PowerPath
D. Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA)
E. Persistent Storage Manager
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
A device group with SRDF source devices would be created by using which of the following SYMCLI commands?
A. symcreate namedg type RDF1
B. symdg create namedg -type RDF1
C. symdg create namedg type REGULAR
D. symdg create namedg type RDF1
Answer: D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the left, by placing them in the space provided on the right. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
For the following, you need to match the Symmetrix device type with the replication technology that it employs. Options may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 8.
What are the three features of SRDF/A, if cache and bandwidth are suitably configured? (Choose three)
A. Seconds of data exposure.
B. Unlimited distance.
C. No performance impact.
D. Some performance impact.
E. Hours of data exposure.
F. Limited distance.
G. No data exposure.
Answer: B, C, G
Question 9.
How can the Fibre Channel Buffer Credits, needed for a given distance, be calculated quickly?
A. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 1.6.
B. By dividing the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
C. By dividing the circuit distance in miles by 2.
D. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit above, the SRDF primary mode of operation is Synchronous, there is no secondary mode selected and the SRDF link is ready. While Production work on Host A is in progress, both local mirrors of the R1 Volume fail.
What will happen in this situation?
A. The Symmetrix will automatically change the status of the R2 Volume to write-enabled and
Production work an continue form Host B.
B. Production work can continue from Host A but new write operation cannot be perform.
C. Production work can continue from Host A without interruption. All new writes will accumulate
as invalid tracks from the R1 Volume.
D. Product ion work form Host A will fail. The application should be restarted form the Disaster
Recovery Host B.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera.
What is a possible problem?
A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
B. PEA tile was never provided to the application
C. Replication wasn't turned on
D. Storage pool creation not completed
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
Question 3.
Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool.
An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
1) Grant the profile access to the pool
2) Create application virtual pool
3) Start migrating pool mappings
4) Set the home pool for the access profile
5) Create pool mapping
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is an "unbundled" cluster?
A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to
deploy
B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
Answer: D
Question 5.
What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary
cluster
B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the
secondary Centera
C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power
rail
Answer: A
Question 6.
How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu
Answer: C
Question 7.
Click the exhibit button.
Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question 8.
What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional?
A. Chain and Inward Star
B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
C. Point to Multipoint and Link
D. Ring and Star
Answer: A
Question 9.
A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production.
How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster
Answer: C
Question 10.
With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
A. NDMP compatible systems
B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
Answer: D
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Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
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Question 1.
You accidentally initiated an abort sequence. As a consequence, your SPARC-based SYSTEM WENT INTO THE prom MODE.
Which two actions disable the default keyboard abort sequence? (Choose two)
A. detach serial console device
B. run the kbd -a disable command
C. run the eeprom command to disable KEYBOARD_ABORT
D. in PROM mode, change the value of keyboard to disable
E. edit / etc/default/kbd to change the value of the variable KEYBOARD_ABORT to disable
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Your x86-based system with Solaris 10 OS installed on it is not booting correctly. You think the problem might be that a BIOS setting is not correctly configured.
What should you do to abort the boot process and reboot into the BIOS configuration menu?
A. While holding down the reset button, you power cycle the system.
B. You press the middle mouse button, When the screen times out, you enter the BIOS
configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
C. You press the stop-A keys then typ reset-all. You reboot directly into the BIOS configuration
menu and examine the BIOS settings.
D. You press the Ctrl-Alt-Del keys and reboot the system, or press the reset button. When the
screen tells indicates the key to enter the BIOS, you press it and examine your BIOS settings.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given:
ap: : sysinit:/sbin/sutopush -f/etc/iu.ap
sp: : sysinit:/sbin/soconfig -f /etc/sock2path
smf: :sysinit:/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd >/dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog /dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog
Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. This file must be read by the process inetd.
B. When booting this system, svc.startd will start.
C. This is a part of the content of the /etc/inittab file
D. This system starts/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd for run level 1.
E. When this system gets the powerfail signal, svc.startd will be respawned.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device aliases . The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them.
Which sequence of OBP commands temporarily disables the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=false
reset
B. use-nvramrc?=false
reset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? false
reset
D. setenv use-nvramrc? = false
reset
Answer: C
Question 5.
An x86-based laptop has just had Solaris 10 OS installed. The graphics configuration has NOT been automatically detected and it is running without graphics.
Which program can you run to create an Xsun configuration file?
A. /user/X11/bin/Xserver
B. /user/dt/bin/xsession
C. /usr/x11/binxorgconfig
D. /usr/openwin/bin/kdmconfig
E. /usr/x11/bin/xorg -configure
Answer: D
Question 6.
The SPARC-based workstation system in your accounts department need their PROMs upgraded. Some of the systems fail to upgrade.
What is the cause?
A. The patch is corrupt.
B. The systems do not have enough memory
C. The write protect jumper has not been set correctly.
D. The system is running an earlier version of Solaris OS.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A SPARC-based system does not boot and displays the message:
"Timeout waiting for ARP/RARP packet"
Which three actions should you take to check the boot environment of the system? (Choose three)
A. check if the frame buffer is working properly
B. check if the NVRAM alias net is set properly
C. check if the NVRAM alias boot-file is set properly
D. check if the PROM variable boot-device is set properly
E. check if the PROM variable local-mac-address?
Answer: B, D, E
Question 8.
You receive a complaint from a user who is unable to use the SSH service to access the user's lab system. You use a serial line to get in and check the SSH service. The svcs output is shown in the exhibit.
What has caused the disruption of the SSH service?
A. The service is disabled.
B. The contract_id is missing
C. There is no "next state" defined
D. One of the dependencies has NOT been met.
Answer: D
As you can see /network/physical is disabled
One of dependencies has not been meet therefore ssh not running
So right answer is D
Question 9.
A SPARC-based system, but you are not sure of the physical path information;
Which OBP command shows you this information/
A. printenv
B. probe-all
C. show-devs
D. prtdiag -v
E. probe-scsi-all
Answer: C
Question 10.
As system administrator, you are asked to shut down the Apache HTTPD service that is running on a development server. You run the svcs grep apache command, and receive this output.
Legacy_run Feb_02 1RC:/ETC/RC3_D/S50APACHE
Based on this output, which two statements are tru?
A. This service is managed by LRC.
B. This service is NOT managed by SMF
C. Any legacy_run state can NOT be manually shut down.
D. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the shutdown script in the /tc/init.d
directory
E. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the following shutdown script svcadm –
v disable /etc/init.d/s50apache
Answer: B, D
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