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can some one tell me, if u have update questions. pls help me. i m nervous
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Question 1. Which of the following should a computer forensics lab used for investigations have? A. isolation B. restricted access C. open access D. an entry log Answer: B Question 2. Corporate investigations are typically easier than public investigations because: A. the users have standard corporate equipment and software B. the investigator does not have to get a warrant C. the investigator has to get a warrant D. the users can load whatever they want on their machines Answer: B Question 3. If you discover a criminal act while investigating a corporate policy abuse, it becomes a public sector investigation and should be referred to law enforcement? A. true B. false Answer: A Question 4. If a suspect computer is located in an area that may have toxic chemicals, you must: A. coordinate with the HAZMAT team B. determine a way to obtain the suspect computer C. assume the suspect machine is contaminated D. do not enter alone Answer: A Question 5. You are using DriveSpy, a forensic tool and want to copy 150 sectors where the starting sector is 1709 on the primary hard drive. Which of the following formats correctly specifies these sectors? A. 0:1000, 150 B. 0:1709, 150 C. 1:1709, 150 D. 0:1709-1858 Answer: B Question 6. What does the superblock in Linux define? A. file system names B. available space C. location of the first inode D. disk geometry Answer: B, C, D Question 7. A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF ***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772 =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84 Len: 64 01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................ 00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................ 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................ 00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........ =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104 Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............ 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ............... 3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.^.....localhost =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= + 03/15-20:21:36.539731 211.185.125.124:4450 -> 172.16.1.108:39168 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:31660 IpLen:20 DgmLen:71 DF ***AP*** Seq: 0x9C6D2BFF Ack: 0x59606333 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23679878 2880015 63 64 20 2F 3B 20 75 6E 61 6D 65 20 2D 61 3B 20 cd /; uname -a; 69 64 3B id; A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111 B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773 D. The attacker has installed a backdoor Answer: A Question 8. The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on: A. OS/2 B. BSD Unix C. Linux D. Microsoft Windows Answer: B Question 9. Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first? A. engage in damage control B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury D. qualify you as an expert witness Answer: D Question 10. You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for you to acquire digital evidence from this network? A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image fileC D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file Answer: C
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Question 1.
FindItem() function is used in ____________
A. Rich text
B. TreeView
C. DataWindow
D. Graph
E. Tab
Answer: B
Question 2.
This return code when placed in a DataWindow control ItemError event will automatically put back the original value and allow the focus to change
A. 2
B. 3
C. 0
D. 1
Answer: B
Question 3.
What functionality does the FileReadEx method have that the FileRead method does not?
A. ability to read more than 32K bytes at a time
B. ability to read files specified via Unified Naming Convention (UNC)
C. ability to read binary files
D. ability to read Unicode files in addition to ASCII files
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which of these are Pipeline Object properties? (Choose 2)
A. Repair
B. Cancel
C. RowsInError
D. RowsRead
E. PipeEnd
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
Which statement is TRUE regarding functions and events? (Choose 2)
A. The default behavior of a function is to override; the default for an event is to extend
B. Both functions and events can be made private
C. Functions and events can be both mapped and unmapped
D. events can be posted functions cannot be posted
Answer: A
Question 6.
Custom Transaction Objects are required: (Choose 2)
A. when you want to extend SQLCA
B. when you want to use dynamic DQL format 3 & 4
C. when you want to define stored procedures as methods
D. to define destination data for pipelines
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
In the code shown below, what is the value of lb_valid_object?
powerobject lpo_object
boolean lb_valid_object
SetNull(lpo_object)
lb_valid_object = isValid(lpo_object)
A. False
B. True
C. Causes a runtime error
D. Null
Answer: D
Question 8.
What is the default encoding format for the FileOpen() function?
A. EncodingANSI!
B. EncodingUTF16BE!
C. EncodingUTF8!
D. EncodingUTF16LE!
Answer: A
Question 9.
Identify the CORRECT statements with regard to the AncestorReturnValue variable? (Choose 2)
A. When you extend an event, the compiler automatically generates an instance variable called
AncestorReturnValue.
B. When you extend an event, the compiler automatically generates a local variable called
AncestorReturnValue.
C. The AncestorReturnValue variable is generated if you override the ancestor script and use the
CALL syntax to call the ancestor event script.
D. The AncestorReturnValue variable is generated if you extend the ancestor script and use the
CALL syntax to call the ancestor event script.
Answer: C
Question 10.
When implementing a UDDI browser you use methods of the which class?
A. UDDI Generator
B. UDDI Component
C. UDDIProxy
D. UDDI client
Answer: C
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Question 1.
You Write a Script that uses dot notation to manipulate a Datawindows Column property.
What is the Behaviour when the property name is misspelled?
(For Example : dw_1.Object.emp_name.Visibl = "0")
A. The Script will not compile.
B. The Script will Compile, But the code in the DBError event will execute at run time.
C. The Script will Compile, But the code in the Error event for dw_1 will execute at run time.
D. The Script will Compile, But the code in the itemError event for dw_1 will execute at run time.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Select three Examples of Script that correctly enable sharing of data among three DataWindows: the primary DataWindow thbat contains the data
(dw_primary), and two secondary DataWindows that will display the same data
(dw_secondary1 and dw_secondary2).
A. dw_primary.SetTransObject(SQLCA)
dw_primary.Retrieve( )
dw_primary.ShareData( dw_secondary1 )
dw_primary.ShareData( dw_secondary2 )
B. dw_primary.SetTransObject(SQLCA)
dw_primary.ShareData( dw_secondary1 )
dw_secondary1.ShareData( dw_secondary2 )
dw_primary.Retrieve( )
C. dw_primary.SetTransObject(SQLCA)
dw_primary.ShareData( dw_secondary1 )
dw_primary.ShareData( dw_secondary2 )
dw_primary.Retrieve( )
D. dw_primary.SetTransObject(SQLCA)
dw_primary.Retrieve( )
dw_secondary1.ShareData( dw_secondary1 )
dw_secondary2.ShareData( dw_secondary2 )
Answer: A, B, C
Question 3.
In a DataWindos Control, if the user clicks on a row other than the current row, which event should be used to determine both the current row and the new row?
A. RowChanged
B. ItemChanged
C. RowFocusChanged
D. ItemFocusChanged
E. RowFocusChanging
Answer: E
Question 4.
Which Painter is used to associate a data windows object with a data windows control at design time?
A. Application painter
B. DataWindows Painter
C. Library Painter
D. Database painter
E. Window painter
Answer: E
Question 5.
Which of the following Targets are considered Web Targets?
A. EAServer Componnt
B. Dynamo Website
C. Website
D. Migrate Powersite 7.1 Project(s)
Answer: B, C, D
Question 6.
For Which Two Controls does GetltemAtPointer( ) return a reference to the item under the cursor?
A. ListBox
B. ListView
C. TreeView
D. DropDownListBox
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
Which is NOT a Built-in global variable of an application?
A. SQLCA
B. Error
C. Transaction
D. Message
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which project is indicated for building a client application to access and EAServer component?
A. Application Wizard
B. Connection Object Wizard
C. EAServer Component Wizard
D. EAServer Proxy Wizard.
Answer: D
Question 9.
What Function is called to dynamically add a tab control to a window?
A. Show()
B. OpenTab()
C. Open(Sheet()
D. InsertObject()
E. OpenUserObject()
Answer: E
Question 10.
Two object-level functions with the same name but with argument lists that vary in number or in datatype are said to be ________.?
A. extended
B. overlayed
C. overridden
D. overloaded
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Given
The emplyees table has an index created as follows:
create index emp_index1
on employees(last_name,first_name desc)
Which of the following queries would not require a sort? (Choose 2)
A. Select * from employees order by last_name, first_name
B. Select * from employees order by last_name ASC, first_name DESC
C. Select * from employees order by first_name DESC, last_name ASC
D. Select * from employees order by last_name DESC, first_name ASC
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Given
number of worker proccesses = 10
parallel degree =5
max scan parallel degree = 4.
Table A has the following charateristics:
Datarows locking, No indexes, a column named price,5000 rows, 4 partitions.
A user executes the following query. Select* from A where price <$10.
Which of the following conditions would cause the query to run in serial instead of parallel? (choose 2)
A. there are not enough worker processes available at run time
B. the database option select into/bulkcopy/pllsort is not set to true
C. the partition skew is 2.3
D. the database is set for single user mode
E. max parallel degrees does not match the number of partitions
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Which of the following statements describes readpast locking? (Choose 2)
A. It can be specified at the session, transaction, and table level.
B. It allows insert, update, and delete commands to read past any incompatible lock.
C. it allows readers to not block writers.
D. It allows select and readtext queries to silently skip all rows or pageslocked with incompatible
locks.
Answer: B, D
Question 4.
The ACME company has an 8 CPU SMP system running Adaptive Enterprise (ASE). The ASE server has been allocated 1.5 GB of 2.0 GB of memory available. The ASE server has been allocated 2 enginess. There are 1,000 concurrent users of the ASE server. The sp_sysmon report shoes the spinlock contention rate averages 70-80% for the default data cache.
Which steps can be taken to correct this performance problem?
A. Add a 16KB buffer pool to the server.
B. Increase the size of the tempdb database.
C. Add two engines to the ASE server.
D. Add named caches to and bind the appropriate objects to the named caches.
E. Add more locks to the server.
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is the purpose of dsync flag?
A. to synchronize primary and mirroed devices.
B. to synchronize primary and secondary databases.
C. to control whether writes to operating system files are buffered or not.
D. to control Backup Server's access to a dump device.
Answer: C
Question 6.
All of the following execution class associations exist in the ASE when user FRED, running application ctisql, logs in.
Which one will be applied to FREDs session?
A. sp_bindexeclass ctisql,AP,NULL,EC1
B. sp_bindexeclass ctisql,AP,FRED,EC2
C. sp_bindexeclass FRED,LG,NULL,EC1
D. sp_bindexeclass FRED,LG,ctisql,EC2
E. It depends on the order of the creations of the bindings
Answer: B
Question 7.
The reorg command may be used to:(Choose 2)
A. Compact a table that users datarows locking
B. Reclaim unused space in a table that uses allpages locking
C. Reclaim unused space in an index that uses datapages locking
D. Rebuild a table that uses allpages locking
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
What are some ways to reduce last data page lock contention for inserts?(Choose 3)
A. alter the table to use the Datarows locking scheme
B. alter the table to use the Datapages locking scheme
C. partition the table
D. create a clustered index on a random key
E. increase the server configuration for the number of locks
F.increase the server configuration for the deadlock checking peroid
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
The "abstract plan language" is:
A. A language used to tell the optimizer how to process a query
B. The internal command language used by sp_sysmon
C. A new type of command language for creating very complicated queries
D. The language used internally by the server for planning the most efficient use of memory
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which two actions can cause locking on system tables in tempdb?(Choose 2)
A. create table in tempbd
B. select into a #tempbd
C. worktables created for reformatting
D. selecting from a large table in tempdb
Answer: A, B
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Question 1.
When using an Inline-Power enabled Catalyst Switch, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to an IP Phone?
A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8
Answer: A
CISCO CATALYST 4000 SERIES SWITCHES, Cisco Catalyst 4000 Series Inline
Power Solution
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps663/products_data_sheet09186a00800924d0.html
Question 2.
When using a Cisco Inline-Power Patch-Panel, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to the IP Phone?
A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8
Answer: E
CISCO NETWORK MODULES, Catalyst Inline Power Patch Panel
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2797/products_data_sheet09186a00800a9ea3.html
Question 3.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what protocol IP Phone uses to learn the Voice VLAN ID it should use for Voice traffic.
What will your reply be?
A. Skinny Station Protocol
B. 802.1q
C. LLQ
D. VTP
E. CDP
Answer: E
Question 4.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what MailStore options are supported in Unity version 2.4.6.
What will your reply be?
A. MS Mail
B. Domino
C. Exchange 2000
D. Exchange 5.5
E. None of the above
Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/voicesw/ps2237/prod_pre_installation_guide09186a00800ea54b.html #
Question 5.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys has a Unity3.0/ and Exchange 2000 system.
Which of the following attributes will be stored in Active Directory? (Choose three.)
A. Transfer Type (Supervised, Release to switch)
B. Location ID
C. Alternate Extensions
D. Recorded Name
E. All of the above
Answer: B, C, D
Question 6.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what Network Management Server (NMS) application she can use to monitor Voice quality by polling the SNMP MIB for MQC.
What will your reply be?
A. Voice Health Monitor
B. Quality of Service Policy Manager
C. Internetwork Performance Monitor
D. Resource Manager Essentials
E. None of the above
Answer: C
Question 7.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. The ITCertKeys network and the complete MPLS router QoS configuration is shown in the following exhibit:
The LAN switches (and any other equipment in the cloud) do not mark or remark the packets.
With regard to the QoS configuration in the exhibit, when IP Phone A calls IP Phone B, how will the voice and signalling packets be marked by the time they arrive at IP Phone B?
A. Voice: IP Precedence 5: Signaling 3
B. Voice: DSCP AF ; Signaling : DSCP EF31
C. Voice: IP Precedence 5; Signaling 3: 0
D. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : DSCP EF31
E. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : 0
Answer: D
The DSCP field remains unchanged in the entire process
Question 8.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what protocol an IP Phone uses to learn the IP Address of its TFTP Server.
What will your reply be?
A. CDP
B. OSPF
C. HSRP
D. EIGRP
E. DHCP
Answer: E
Question 9.
With regard to jitter, which of the following statements are true?
A. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is
actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout buffer to
accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
B. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it
actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer
to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
C. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it
actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout
buffer to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
D. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is
actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer to
accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
Answer: A
Question 10.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what the differences between Type of Service (ToS) and Class of Service (CoS) are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)
A. CoS allows a class based access to the media, but ToS prioritizes this access according to the
precedence bit.
B. CoS is a field in the IP header, but ToS is evaluated by the routing protocol.
C. CoS is a Layer 2 mechanism, but ToS is a Layer 3 mechanism.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
CoS Layer 2
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios120/120newft/120limit/120s/120s28/12swred.htm
ToS Layer 3
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps672/products_qanda_item09186a00800a8922.shtml
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Question 1. The user name that creates the original DB2 database must be a member of which of the following groups? A. SYSADM B. MANAGERS C. DB2ADMIN D. ADMINISTRATORS Answer: A Question 2. Which of the following is enabled by installing the DB2 Access server? A. Replication B. DB2 group locking C. ACLs and reader lists D. DB2 container storage Answer: C Question 3. It was decided to locate the DB2 server on the same physical box as the Lotus Domino server. In this scenario, the DB2 database that stores Domino data is titled which of the following? A. Lotus B. Domino C. NSFDB2 D. DB2Domino Answer: B Question 4. When DB2 is the default database storage type, the databases are stored in what location? A. In nsf files in the DB2 database B. As nsf files on a remote db2 server C. As files in the Domino server's disk space D. In a DB2 database managed by the DB2 server Answer: D Question 5. John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document placed? A. NAMES.NSF B. CERTLOG.NSF C. CATALOG.NSF D. DIRECTORY.NSF Answer: A Question 6. What is the maximum number of organizational units that may be listed in a hierarchial name? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five Answer: C Question 7. The site update database in Domino supports which of the following security controls for distributing updates? A. Schema B. Encryption C. Author fields D. Reader Fields Answer: D Question 8. Which type of server installation provides standard Domino application services and custom Domino databases for Notes and Web clients, as well as support for clusters? A. Domino Utility Server B. Domino Database Server C. Domino Messaging Server D. Domino Enterprise Server Answer: A Question 9. When the LDAP service can't find information for which an LDAP client is searching, it can return a referral to the client. What Domino service does it utilize to provide this referral? A. MAPS B. Referrer C. Replicator D. Directory Assistance Answer: D Question 10. While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which Domino server hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not configured? A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document Answer: A
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Question 1. Which policy package contains policies that are container specific? A. User Policy Package B. Server Policy Package C. Workstation Policy Package D. Service Location Policy Package Answer: D Question 2. Referring to ZENworks Asset Management, what is the default port that Task Server uses? A. 997 B. 7460 C. 7461 D. 7462 E. 7465 Answer: E Question 3. The parameter in the Myapps.html file you would edit if you want to hide the left folder view frame of the Application Browser view. Answer: Question 4. Which policy package is used to configure the Workstation Inventory policy? A. User package B. Server package C. Container package D. Workstation package E. Service Location package Answer: D Question 5. When installing ZENworks Desktop Management workstation agents, which information must be configured if the Novell Client is not being used to access policies and applications? (Choose 2.) A. The Workstation Manager agent B. The Remote Management agent C. The HTTP port number used by the middle tier server D. The DNS name or IP address of the back-end server E. The DNS name or IP address of the middle tier server Answer: C, E Question 6. Which object can you associate with a workstation package? (Choose 2.) A. User B. Alias C. Printer D. Profile E. Security F. Computer G. Container H. Workstation Group Answer: G, H Question 7. The option in the Distribution Rules page of this application object that will allow you to manage it in mixed environment consisting of ZENworks 7.0 are pre-ZENworks 6.5 versions of NAL. Answer: Question 8. The Repackager option you would use to covert an AOT file to an MSI package. Answer: Question 9. Which DesktopDNA.exe switch configures the DNA Engine to capture a workstations personality? A. /C B. /A C. /P D. /U E. /DNA F. /APPLY G. /UPLOAD H. /CAPTURE Answer: E Question 10. In relation to ZENworks Desktop Management and disconnected Novell application launcher (NAL), what can be used to distribute applications to disconnected workstations? (Choose 2.) A. CD B. LAN C. DVD D. USB Port E. Serial Port F. Wireless NIC G. Fire wire Port Answer: A, C
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Question 1.
What does the following WAN Traffic Manager policy control? TCPIP, NA
A. Prevents background traffic generated by TCP/IP
B. Prevents background traffic unless the traffic is generated by TCP/IP
C. Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic is in the same TCP/IP network area
D. Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic comes from a different TCP/IP network area
Answer: B
Question 2.
Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When you finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Listed are administrator roles and their characteristics. Drag the administrator role to its characteristic.
Answer:
Question 3.
You are the network administrator for your company and are in charge of your company's eDirectory design and implementation project. You have completed the project approach phase of the eDirectory design cycle.
Which tasks still need to be completed before you begin the implementation phase? (Choose 2.)
A. Design the redirector tree
B. Fine-tune the eDirectory design
C. Determine accessibility needs
D. Plan a time synchronization strategy
E. Gather business information related to network design
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
After you create object naming standards, what should be defined for the attribute standards? (Choose 2.)
A. Which object types require attributes
B. Whether the attribute of an object is required
C. Whether the attribute of an object is purge able
D. Whether the attribute of an object is unique from other object attributes
E. Whether the attribute of an object is a system attribute that is automatically populated by
eDirectory
Answer: B, E
Question 5.
Your company has 15 sites connected by a WAN link to corporate headquarters. Corporate headquarters has 50 servers and each of the 15 sites has 30 servers. You are implementing a multiple time provider group time synchronization strategy.
Which are considerations you should make before implementing this strategy? (Choose 2.)
A. If possible, create local time providers.
B. There will be a single point of failure at each location.
C. You cannot exceed 7 primary time servers in your network.
D. Make sure each reference server will synchronize with the same external source.
E. The single reference time synchronization strategy will provide a better strategy for this
network structure.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
Which DNS/DHCP object contains resource record sets for DNS root servers?
A. DNS Zone object
B. DNS Group object
C. DNS Locator object
D. DNS Name Server object
D. RootSrvrlnfo Zone object
Answer: E
Question 7.
What does WAN Traffic Manager control? (Choose 2.)
A. Events initiated by administrators or users
B. Server-to-server traffic generated by eDirectory.
C. Server-to-server traffic generated by time synchronization
D. The amount of director traffic based on cost of traffic and time of day.
E. Which servers the master replica server synchronizes to by using configured lists.
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Which statement is true of queue-based printing?
A. The print server object must be associated with a volume object.
B. The printer object must be associated with a print server object.
C. The print queue object must be associated with a print server object.
D. The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container.
E. The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container as the
corresponding server object.
Answer: B
Question 9.
You have completed a tree merge and want to confirm the new tree name by ensuring that all servers in the tree are configured to support the new tree.
Which utility will provide you the status of every server in the tree and the name of the tree it is servicing?
A. DSMAINT
B. DSMERGE
C. DSREPAIR
D. Console One
E. NDS Manager
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A. Master
B. Master and filtered
C. Master and read/only
D. Master and read/write
E. Master, read/write, and read-only
F. Master, read/write, and filtered
G. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Answer: E
|
Question 1.
Given
The emplyees table has an index created as follows:
create index emp_index1
on employees(last_name,first_name desc)
Which of the following queries would not require a sort? (Choose 2)
A. Select * from employees order by last_name, first_name
B. Select * from employees order by last_name ASC, first_name DESC
C. Select * from employees order by first_name DESC, last_name ASC
D. Select * from employees order by last_name DESC, first_name ASC
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Given
number of worker proccesses = 10
parallel degree =5
max scan parallel degree = 4.
Table A has the following charateristics:
Datarows locking, No indexes, a column named price,5000 rows, 4 partitions.
A user executes the following query. Select* from A where price <$10.
Which of the following conditions would cause the query to run in serial instead of parallel? (choose 2)
A. there are not enough worker processes available at run time
B. the database option select into/bulkcopy/pllsort is not set to true
C. the partition skew is 2.3
D. the database is set for single user mode
E. max parallel degrees does not match the number of partitions
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Which of the following statements describes readpast locking? (Choose 2)
A. It can be specified at the session, transaction, and table level.
B. It allows insert, update, and delete commands to read past any incompatible lock.
C. it allows readers to not block writers.
D. It allows select and readtext queries to silently skip all rows or pageslocked with incompatible
locks.
Answer: B, D
Question 4.
The ACME company has an 8 CPU SMP system running Adaptive Enterprise (ASE). The ASE server has been allocated 1.5 GB of 2.0 GB of memory available. The ASE server has been allocated 2 enginess. There are 1,000 concurrent users of the ASE server. The sp_sysmon report shoes the spinlock contention rate averages 70-80% for the default data cache.
Which steps can be taken to correct this performance problem?
A. Add a 16KB buffer pool to the server.
B. Increase the size of the tempdb database.
C. Add two engines to the ASE server.
D. Add named caches to and bind the appropriate objects to the named caches.
E. Add more locks to the server.
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is the purpose of dsync flag?
A. to synchronize primary and mirroed devices.
B. to synchronize primary and secondary databases.
C. to control whether writes to operating system files are buffered or not.
D. to control Backup Server's access to a dump device.
Answer: C
Question 6.
All of the following execution class associations exist in the ASE when user FRED, running application ctisql, logs in.
Which one will be applied to FREDs session?
A. sp_bindexeclass ctisql,AP,NULL,EC1
B. sp_bindexeclass ctisql,AP,FRED,EC2
C. sp_bindexeclass FRED,LG,NULL,EC1
D. sp_bindexeclass FRED,LG,ctisql,EC2
E. It depends on the order of the creations of the bindings
Answer: B
Question 7.
The reorg command may be used to:(Choose 2)
A. Compact a table that users datarows locking
B. Reclaim unused space in a table that uses allpages locking
C. Reclaim unused space in an index that uses datapages locking
D. Rebuild a table that uses allpages locking
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
What are some ways to reduce last data page lock contention for inserts?(Choose 3)
A. alter the table to use the Datarows locking scheme
B. alter the table to use the Datapages locking scheme
C. partition the table
D. create a clustered index on a random key
E. increase the server configuration for the number of locks
F.increase the server configuration for the deadlock checking peroid
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
The "abstract plan language" is:
A. A language used to tell the optimizer how to process a query
B. The internal command language used by sp_sysmon
C. A new type of command language for creating very complicated queries
D. The language used internally by the server for planning the most efficient use of memory
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which two actions can cause locking on system tables in tempdb?(Choose 2)
A. create table in tempbd
B. select into a #tempbd
C. worktables created for reformatting
D. selecting from a large table in tempdb
Answer: A, B
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