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Please provide 513 dump
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Question 1.
The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High Availability member
When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become active?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1 1
C. Both members' state will be standby
D. Both members' state will be active
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the command to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 SmartCenter Server to VPN-1 NGX using a CD?
A. cd patch add
B. fwm upgrade_tool
C. cppkg add
D. patchadd
E. patch addcd
Answer: E
Question 3.
You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at version VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R55. You must upgrade your two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1 NGX.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the twoSmartCenter Servers.
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two Servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your primary SmartCenter Server is installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine, which is also a VPN-1 Pro Gateway. You want to implement Management High Availability (HA). You have a spare machine to configure as the secondary SmartCenter Server. How do you configure the new machine to be the standby SmartCenter Server, without making any changes to the existing primary SmartCenter Server? (Changes can include uninstalling and reinstalling.)
A. You cannot configure Management HA, when either the primary or secondary SmartCenter
Server is running on a VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
B. The new machine cannot be installed as the Internal Certificate Authority on its own.
C. The secondary Server cannot be installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine alone.
D. Install the secondary Server on the spare machine. Add the new machine to the same network
as the primary Server.
Answer: A
Question 5.
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 256 MB, Security Gateway
version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four Intel 3Com, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four other manufacturers, memory: 128 MB,
Security Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
SmartCenter Pro Server: MS Windows Server 2003, NIC: Intel NIC (one), Security Gateway and primary SmartCenter Server installed version: VPN-1 NGX
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, theSmartCenter Pro Server is not using the same operating system as the cluster
members.
B. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for aClusterXL deployment.
C. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
D. No, the SmartCenter Pro Server has only one NIC.
Answer: B
Question 6.
You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal networks can access your partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text.
How do you configure the VPN Community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the
Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the
Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP services to the
Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the
Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the Community
object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule in the
Security Policy to allow Any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How does a standby SmartCenter Server receive logs from all Security Gateways, when an active SmartCenter Server fails over?
A. The remote Gateways must set up SIC with the secondarySmartCenter Server, for logging.
B. Establish Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the primary and secondary Servers.
The secondary Server can then receive logs from the Gateways, when the active Server fails
over.
C. On the Log Servers screen (from the Logs and Masters tree on the gateway object's General
Properties screen), add the secondary SmartCenter Server object as the additional log server.
Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Create a Check Point host object to represent the standby SmartCenter Server. Then select
"Secondary SmartCenter Server" and Log Server", from the list of Check Point Products on the
General properties screen.
E. The secondary Server's host name and IP address must be added to the Masters file, on the
remote Gateways.
Answer: C
Question 8.
You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols, passing directly between end points.
Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for VPN-1 NGX?
A. VPN-1 Certificate Manager
B. SmartCenterServer
C. SmartLSM
D. Policy Server
E. Security Gateway
Answer: B
Question 10.
You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX.
Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?
A. CallManager
B. Gatekeeper
C. Gateway
D. Proxy
E. Transmission Router
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.) A. Intel single core processors B. AMD dual core processors C. AMD quad core processors D. Inteldual core processors Answer: A, D Question 2. How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server? A. 2 channels B. 3channels C. 4channels D. 6 channels Answer: D Question 3. On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located? A. processor socket B. processor core C. HyperTransport Bus D. Front Side Bus Answer: B Question 4. Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.) A. chipset B. PCI-e cards C. hard drives D. CPU E. fans Answer: A, D Question 5. A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive size presented to the operating system? A. 292GB B. 438GB C. 584GB D. 730GB Answer: B Question 6. Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem? A. Sun Solaris B. Windows Server 2008 R2x64 Enterprise Edition C. Novell NetWare 6.5 D. Novell SLES 10 Answer: A Question 7. Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors? A. Extreme Digital (xD) B. Secure Digital (SD) C. Compact Flash (CF) D. PCI-express (PCIe) Answer: B Question 8. For the Intel x5570Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x" preceding the processor model number indicate? A. extreme performance B. lowerwattage C. turbo boost performance D. highperformance/wattage Answer: D Question 9. In which log are Array POST errors recorded? A. Windows Event Log B. Integrated Management Log C. IPMI Log D. Onboard Administrator Log Answer: B Question 10. What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.) A. firmwareversion B. OEM hard drive vendor C. RAID stripe size D. HardwareErrorLogs E. SmartArray driver version Answer: A, C, D Question 11. Which capability is a key improvement in HP ProLiant G6 servers using Dynamic Power Management? A. ability to spin down idle disk drives B. ability to put CPU sockets to sleep and wake up real time C. ability to power down unused PCI-e slots D. ability to put CPU cores to sleep and wake up real time Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A
Question 4.
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
Question 5.
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimise the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimise salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B
Question 8.
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D
Question 12.
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C
Question 13.
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A
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Question 1.
A CallPilot customer site will be using Multimedia Messaging. The switch will need a specific kind of configuration for this messaging service.
What is the required configuration?
A. Regular DN
B. Phantom DN
C. Control DN (CDN)
D. ACD-DN dummy queue
Answer: C
Question 2.
With CallPilot RIs. 5.0, when upgrading to a new release of CallPilot, the number of reserved seats may now be reduced. You are performing an upgrade on a CallPilot RIs. 4.0 system with a keycode that authorizes 500 Fax messaging seats. Only 200 Fax messaging seats are currently in use.
Which is the minimum number of Fax messaging seats that can be authorized with a new RIs. 5.0 keycode?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 250
D. 500
Answer: B
Question 3.
You are preparing to install CallPilot RIs.5.0 for a customer. The customer wants to access the CallPilot system from the LAN and must provide some information for the installation.
What information must the customer provide?
A. DHCP server
B. a Cat-5 cable
C. an Ethernet switch
D. a static IP address and subnet mask
Answer: D
Question 4.
When installing CallPilot Reporter, what is a valid installation option?
A. Client PC
B. CallPilot server
C. Administrator PC
D. Customer provided Web server
Answer: D
Question 5.
An administrator cannot login to CallPilot Manager from the login web page. You have confirmed that the administrator is entering their correct mailbox number and password and that their mailbox is not disabled.
What should you check?
A. that the user's PC is running Internet Information Server (IIS)
B. that the Server field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system
C. that the Location field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system
D. that the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) option is turned on because passwords can only be
passed over SSL
Answer: B
Question 6.
CallPilot desktop messaging has several CallPilot RIs.5.0 feature enhancements.
Which are two of these enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. ping on Startup
B. Global CallPilot Address Book
C. creating personal distribution lists
D. Deliver to Location in Microsoft Outlook
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
The CallPilot RIs. 5.0 has introduced the High Availability feature.
The High Availability feature is available on which CallPilot server platform?
A. 703t
B. 600r
C. 1005r
D. 1002rp
Answer: C
Question 8.
When installing CallPilot Reporter RIs. 5.0 on the standalone Web server, additional required software is also installed.
Which version of Crystal Reports is installed?
A. Crystal Reports 8
B. Crystal Reports X
C. Crystal Reports 8.5
D. Crystal Reports Xl
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which software is required before installing CallPilot Manager on a stand-alone Web server?
A. PC Anywhere
B. Sybase Database
C. Java Runtime Environment
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D
Question 10.
Your customer is upgrading to CallPilot RIs. 5.0. The current keycode authorizes 500 Speech Activated Messaging seats but the customer is currently only using 100 seats.
With the upgrade and a new CallPilot Rls. 5.0 keycode, what two options does the customer have for the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats? (Choose two.)
A. No options are available; the number of seats cannot be reduced.
B. Take no action and retain the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats.
C. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to
100 or more.
D. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to
any number as long as the feature is supported on at least 1 seat.
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F
Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F
Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco
technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements
of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help
deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the
customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A
Question 11.
Your ITCertKeys trainee, ITCertKeys, asks you which of the following three tasks are executed in the security administration component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)
A. utilization monitoring
B. customer operational account creation
C. identity management
D. security incident management
E. security configuration management
F. security problem escalation
Answer: C, D, E
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Question 1. Order the following resolutions, by pixel count, from lowest to highest. A. D1, HD, QCIF, CIF B. D1, CIF, 4CIF, HD C. QCIF, CIF, D1, HD D. QCIF, D1, CIF, HD Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. What are the two differences between interlaced and progressive scan video? (Choose two.) A. Progressive scan video is generally better with fast-moving objects B. Interlaced video is generally better with fast-moving objects C. Interlaced video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines D. Progressive scan video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 3. Where should outdoor surveillance cameras be mounted when nearby sources of light are present? A. The camera should be mounted lower than the light source. B. The camera should be mounted in parallel with the nearest light source. C. The camera should be mounted above the light source. D. Location does not matter, as long as the camera is day/night capable. Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. What is the correct camera and lens setup for the use of IR lighting? A. Color camera with IR corrected lens B. A camera with day/night mode and IR corrected lens C. A camera with day/night mode and varifocal lens D. Color camera with varifocal lens Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which switch port capability is recommended for an MSP server? A. Server switch ports should have 10/100 Mb capability B. Server switch ports should have 1000 Mb capability C. Server switch ports should have 10 Gb capability D. Servers should be connected to PoE-capable switches Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. On a converged network infrastructure, which Layer 2 technology can be easily enabled and configured to ensure separation of video surveillance traffic on the network from other sources (such as voice, email, and web browsing)? A. IP routing B. Firewall C. QoS D. VLAN Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. In addition to bandwidth, which factors should be considered when designing an IP network capable of delivering high-quality surveillance video in real time? A. Minimize jitter and maximize latency B. Minimize latency and maximize jitter C. Minimize both jitter and latency D. Maximize both jitter and latency Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. The Cisco Physical Security CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 platform can support which configuration of option cards? A. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P B. 2 x CIVS-ENC-8P C. 2 x CIVS-ENC-16P D. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P and 1 x CIVS-ENC-8P Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Which two of the following Cisco Physical Security MSP servers support an optional secondary power supply? (Choose two.) A. CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 B. CPS-MSP-2RU-K9 C. CPS-MSP-4RU D. CPS-SS-4RU E. CIAC-PAME-1125-K9 Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 10. What is the maximum number of internal encoder ports supported by the CPS-MSP-2RU-K9? A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 48 Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1.
Which two characteristics of optical networks data to be transmitted over extremely long distances? (Choose two.)
A. No electromagnetic interference (EMI)
B. Minimal signal loss
C. No bandwidth limits
D. No encryption
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
What is a wide-area network (WAN)?
A. A network that is restricted to a single building, a group of buildings, or even a single room
B. A network that connects client devices wirelessly using radio waves
C. A network that crosses metropolitan, regional or national boundaries
D. A network that encompasses an entire city or metropolitan area and connects multiple local-
area networks (LANs)
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which IP telephony component provides call processing, such as signaling that in a traditional voice network is provided by switching equipment, such as a PBX?
A. Voice gateways, such as the Cisco VG248 analog phone gateway
B. Call-management hardware and software, such as Cisco Call Manager
C. Client-based software, such as Cisco SoftPhone
D. Advanced call-handling software, such as Cisco Unity
Answer: B
Question 4.
A software engineering firm wants to streamline call center operations to reduce customer wait times and improve employee productivity.
Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP Telephony
B. DSL
C. WLAN
D. Optical Network
Answer: A
Question 5.
A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet to the company extranet.
Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP telephony
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C. Content Networking
D. Wireless network
Answer: B
Question 6.
What creates an encrypted tunnel through a shared public network infrastructure, such as the Internet to provide a secure connection between remote users and a private network?
A. VPN
B. HTTP
C. DSL
D. Optical Networking
Answer: A
Question 7.
What does a router do?
A. Reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location
and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)
B. Stores data on network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network
(WAN)
C. Routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-
area network (WAN)
D. Broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and
wide-area network (WAN)
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which device is used in wireless networks to send transmission to a target area?
A. Directional Antenna
B. Optical fiber
C. Omni-directional antenna
D. Access point
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which wireless local-area network (WLAN) device is often used to make wireless connections between buildings or campuses?
A. Access Point
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Client Adapter
Answer: B
Question 10.
On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communications system reside?
A. A single, joined voice, video and data network
B. Voice networks only
C. Wireless networks only
D. Data networks only
E. Independent voice, video and data networks
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which of these options describes Cisco StackWise technology? (Select one.)
A. Cisco StackWise technology joins individual, stackable switches to create a single functional
switch.
B. Cisco StackWise technology creates data stacks to prioritize converged network traffic.
C. Cisco StackWise technology joins modular switches together to provide switching redundancy.
D. Cisco StackWise technology groups routers and switches together in the wiring closet.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which three security features distinguish the Cisco Security Suite from basic wireless security? (Choose three.)
A. TKIP
B. SSIDs
C. static WEP keys
D. advanced security
E. IEEE authentication
F. MAC address authentication
Answer: A, D, E
Question 3.
Company ABC deployed several Cisco 7500 Series Routers as backbone routers, reliably delivering business-critical network services. Today's networks need the higher levels of services integration and performance found in newer and more robust Cisco platforms. The Cisco 7500 Series will be EOL'd.
Which platform is the best choice for the customer if they want to improve performance up to 30 mpps and increase the scalability and density of ports?
A. Cisco 6500 Series
B. Cisco 7200 Series
C. Cisco 7600 Series
D. Cisco 12000 Series
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which four ways can the Cisco Catalyst 6500 be used? (Choose four.)
A. for small businesses
B. for SOHO networks
C. for large service providers
D. to scale future IPv6 applications
E. for the distribution and core layers
F. as the switch aggregation point for the entire network
Answer: C, D, E, F
Question 5.
Which three blueprints would you suggest for voice and data with 500 to 1000 ports per site? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Catalyst 3750 and 7200 ISR Routers
B. Cisco Catalyst 3560 and 2801 ISR Routers
C. Cisco Catalyst 4500 and 7200 ISR Routers
D. Cisco Catalyst 2960 and 7200 ISR Routers
E. Cisco Catalyst 6500 and 7200 ISR Routers
F. Cisco Catalyst 6400 and 1801 ISR Routers
Answer: A, C, E
Question 6.
You have a customer who has adapted to new technology very slowly. This mid-sized manufacturing business has been in the same building for 50 years and employees still punchin using a time clock. Despite this, the company has grown and recently opened a state-of-the-art facility overseas. The son is taking over the business and would like to automate the office by adding communications and ERM applications.
What three types of advanced technology options immediately come to mind? (Choose three.)
A. VoIP
B. instant messaging
C. Video conferencing
D. IEEE authentication
E. network investment life solutions
F. Cisco IP Communications solutions
Answer: B, C, F
Question 7.
Which of the following features are included in Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Tools that provide information regarding network devices, connectivity, VLAN/LANE and ATM
configuration, analysis, and IP phone user and path information
B. Tools that help integrate built-in knowledge of interactions between different Cisco IOS
features, industry best practices, and TAC-recommended configurations
C. Tools that help manage Cisco devices using inventory- and device-change management,
network configuration and software image management, network availability, and syslog
analysis
D. Tools that are designed to assign priority to data packets based on dedicated bandwidth
Answer: B
Question 8.
Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series switches are positioned for which market segment? (Select one.)
A. Telecommuter home office
B. Small branch office of less than 250 employees
C. Medium-sized branch office of between 250 and 500 employees
D. Large office of between 500 and 1,000 employees
Answer: B
Question 9.
The Cisco 7301 Router is attractive for headquarters customers who are looking for: (Select one.)
A. The functionality of Cisco 7200 Series routers but with a more compact form factor
B. Scalability using VIPs
C. A router with the most complete port adapter family
D. A 2-RU form factor router
Answer: A
Question 10.
How does Cisco IOS software modularity help minimize downtime?
A. By enabling modular Cisco IOS subsystems to run in independent, self-correcting processes
B. By automatically notifying administrators when network performance falls below prescribed
levels
C. By automatically re-routing voice traffic to the PSTN if the WAN fails or becomes congested
D. By enabling stateful failover on Catalyst 6500 switches
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following would be considered a Cisco Unified Computing technical design criteria? A. Increase the number of servers in the data center. B. Decrease security requirements. C. Simplify the Data Center architecture. D. Reduce power costs while maintaining or increasing compute capacity. Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which three business pressures are most typically faced by data centers? (Choose three.) A. language barriers B. government regulation and compliance C. SLA metrics D. global availability E. technology silos Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Question 3. Which two physical security concerns would most likely be considered first when planning a data center installation? (Choose two.) A. ventilation B. alarm systems C. raised flooring D. fire suppression systems Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 4. Which condition is prevented by the use of the "Combined" power redundancy mode in the Nexus 7000? A. one PSU failure B. lack of redundancy C. one input circuit failure D. one PSU or one input circuit failure Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which statement is true regarding UCS ports dedicated as external LAN device uplinks? A. Ports carry VLAN traffic only B. Ports are configured as ISL trunks C. Spanning tree must be enabled on these ports D. Ports are configured as access ports Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which three components are included in Cisco Business Advantage Data Center Architecture? (Choose three.) A. unified I/O B. virtualization C. Security Manager D. consolidation E. Desktop Consolidator Answer: A, B, D Explanation: Question 7. What is the purpose of the L1 and L2 ports on the Cisco UCS 6100 and 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect switches when running in a cluster with another fabric interconnect? A. support LACP B. provide high-availability services C. used for out-of-band management D. centralized management port Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which is a characteristic of the end-host-mode? A. It offers no redundancy. B. It participates in STP. C. It participates in network control data plan. D. UCS appears to the external LAN as an end station with many adapters. Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. What is the primary purpose of NPIV? A. It is a switch-based solution with a reduction in overhead. B. Virtual server interfaces can be created within an Cisco MDS switch. C. Virtual machines can bypass the hypervisor and access a LUN directly. D. Multiple virtual applications can share a single switch port while maintaining their identity. Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. What is the purpose of a VSAN in a Cisco Data Center network? A. to share the zoning across other configured VSANs B. to provide distributed service within the SAN fabric C. to advertise the existence of LUNs across the storage area management fabric D. to facilitate logical end-to-end separation within a single physical storage infrastructure Answer: D Explanation:
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