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Question 1.
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric
B. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
C. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
D. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. All of the above
D. Large enterprise distribution layer
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
B. Eight output queues per port
C. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted
Random Early Discard)
D. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Eight hardware queues per switch
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Configurable queue processing
D. Queue priority is based only on FirstIn First Out (FIFO) algorithm
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables
B. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
C. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
D. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Drag each switch family to the recommended customer environment.
Answer:
Question 7.
Which three application-availability techniques should be used to ensure high network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Protect resources with network security
B. Enforce techniques primarily at the network core
C. Block rogue applications
D. Identify and prioritize mission-critical applications
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: "An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
C. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
D. Creates a 12Gbps full-duplex link between switches
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500G-EI
B. All of the above
C. Switch 5500-EI
D. Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A
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Question 1. When surfing the internet, which layer of the OSI Model will result in a session time-out? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 4 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 6 Answer: C Question 2. A customer complains that when there is a phone call at home, the wireless on his notebook computer will lost connection. What is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ-11 jack B. The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router C. The cordless phones are2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless D. The cordless phones are5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless Answer: C Question 3. If you want to use a 100BASE-T network to connect two servers and five workstations, which physical topology will you use? A. Star B. Bus C. Ring D. FDDI Answer: A Question 4. In an RJ-11 connector, how many wire pairs can be used at most? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: A Question 5. Which term best describes a server that can be configured to block connections according to the static address of a computer? A. Kerberos B. RADIUS C. IP address filtering D. MAC address filtering Answer: C Question 6. How many wires can be fit into RJ-11 connector at most? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Question 7. CAT 5 cable is a twisted pair (4 pairs) high signal integrity cable type. In a main distribution frame (MDF), which is the highest transmission speed for a CAT5 network cable? A. 1Mbps. B. 10Mbps. C. 100Mbps. D. 1000Mbps. Answer: C Question 8. Which of the following operates at a maximum of 16 Mbps? A. 10GBase-SR B. 10Base-T C. Token Ring D. FDDI Answer: C Question 9. Which network device connects to a Telco T1 line at the boundary point? A. Modem B. ISDN adapter C. NIC D. CSU / DSU Answer: D Question 10. Which network component transmits packets through a wireless network? A. WAP B. NIC C. CSU / DSU D. WEP Answer: A Question 11. Which document describes the coverage area of a wireless network in detail? A. Baseline B. Physical network diagram C. Logical network diagram D. Site survey Answer: D Question 12. Which of the following is the maximum number of a network ID in a Class C subnet? A. 20bits B. 24bits C. 32bits D. 34bits Answer: B Question 13. Which of the following will a company work with if it wants to use one of the reserved private IP address ranges? A. IEEE B. their legal department. C. IANA D. their IT department. Answer: D
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Question 1. Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA? A. Private key B. Symmetric key C. Recovery key D. Public key Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server? A. XTACACS B. TACACS C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. Where are revoked certificates stored? A. Recovery agent B. Registration C. Key escrow D. CRL Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. DRPs should contain which of the following? A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel B. Hierarchical list of critical systems C. Hierarchical access control lists D. Identification of single points of failure Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent: A. password sharing. B. escalation of privileges. C. implicit deny. D. administrative account lockout. Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised? A. Full disk encryption B. Common access card C. Strong password complexity D. Biometric authentication Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host enumeration by sweep devices? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. IPv4 D. ICMP Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack? A. Memory addressing B. Directory traversal C. Initial vector D. Session cookies Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended recipient can decrypt the ciphertext? A. Private B. Escrow C. Public D. Preshared Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports? A. VLAN separation B. Access control C. Loop protection D. DMZ Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following memory types has a clock speed of 400MHz? A. PC133 B. PC2700 C. PC3200 D. PC10600 Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted FIRST? A. Reset the CMOS B. Rollback to a restore point C. Boot into Safe Mode D. Reconfigure the BIOS Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of which of the following classes? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound? A. VGA B. S-Video C. DVI D. HDMI Answer: D Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling process? A. Heatsink B. Fan C. Liquid cooling system D. Thermal compound Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST approach? A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help. B. Ask open-ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem. C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain. D. Ask focused questions that lead the customer with yes or no answers. Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month? A. Laser B. Thermal C. Inkjet D. Dot Matrix Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation? A. Windows Key + L B. CTRL + ALT + Delete C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this? A. Bluetooth card B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard C. 802.11n WiFi card D. Cellular WAN card Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem? A. Upgrade the BIOS. B. Release the LCD cutoff switch. C. Toggle the WiFi switch. D. Toggle the Fn key. Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. You have just added a CD.ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to your system and have added it to yourfstab. Typically you can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom? A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom B. mount/dev/cdrom C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom D. mount /mnt/cdrom E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom Answer: D Explanation: /mnt/cdrom or /media/cdrom is the mount point for cdrom specified in /etc/fstab. /dev/hdd /media/cdrom auto pamconsole ,exec,noauto,managed 0 0 /dev/hdc /media/cdrecorder auto pamconsole ,exec,noauto,managed 0 0 So we need to mount just typing mount /media/cdrom command. Question 2. With Xorg 7.0, what is the name of the default font server? A. xfserv B. xfs C. fonts D. xfstt E. fserv Answer: B Question 3. CORRECT TEXT Which command (without options) would you use to display how much space is available on all mounted partitions? Answer: /BIN/DF Question 4. CORRECT TEXT What command with all options and/or parameter will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2? Answer: KILLALLSUSR1APACHE2 Question 5. The command echo $! will produce what output? A. the process id of last background command B. the exit status of the last command C. the exit status of the last background command D. the process id of the current shell E. the name of the command being executed Answer: A Question 6. You are using quota on your system. How can you see disk quota details? A. repquota B. quotA.I C. quota D. quotacheck E. quotA.List Answer: A Explanation: repquota prints a summary of the disk usage and quotas for the specified file systems. For each user the current number of files and amount of space (in kilobytes) is printed, along with any quotas created with edquota. Example: repquota /home prints the summary of disk usage and other information of all users. Question 7. What is the difference between thE.remove and thE.purge action with the dpkg command? A. -remove removes the program, -purge also removes the config files B. -remove only removes theprogram, -purge only removes the config files C. -remove removes a package, -purge also removes all packages dependent on it D. -remove removes only the package file itself, -purge removes all files related to the package Answer: A Explanation: -r or -remove remove everything except configuration files. This may avoid having to reconfigure the package if it is reinstalled later. (Configuration files are the files listed in the debian/conffiles control file).-P or-purge removes everything, including configuration files. If-a or-pending is given instead of a package name, then all packages unpacked, but marked to be removed or purged in file /var/lib/dpkg/status, are removed or purged, respectively. Question 8. CORRECT TEXT What application can be used in place of xhost? Please enter only the name without path. Answer: XAUTH Question 9. You have read/write permission on an ordinary file foo. You have just run In foo bar. What would happen if you ran rm foo? A. foo and bar would both be removed. B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible. C. foo would beremoved, bar would still exist but would be unusable. D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible. E. You would be asked whether bar should be removed. Answer: B Explanation: Correct Answer is B. The In command is used to create the link. There are two types of link a. Soft link b. Hard link. a. Soft link Can create for directory also, can span multiple pratations but available until and unless Original Files remain. Syntax for Soft link In-soriginalfile linkfile b . Hardlink Can separate Physical File, can't create for directory, can't span multiple file but remains the link file if original file removed. Syntax for Hardlink In originalfile linkfile In Questions, created the bar hardlink of foo. That means bar is on separate physical file. The file bar is accessible after removing the foo file also. Question 10. Which of the following commands will change all CR-LF pairs in an imported text file, userlist.txt, to Linux standard LF characters and store it as newlist.txt? A. tr '\r\n'" < userlist.txt > newlisttxt B. tr -c '\n\r'" < newlist.txt > userlist.txt C. tr -d V < userlist.txt > newlisttxt D. tr V V userlist.txt newlist.txt E. tr-s /AM' /AJ' userlist.txt newlist.txt Answer: C
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Question 1. The legacy program for sending files to the printer queues from the command line is which of the following? A. lpd B. lpr C. lpq D. lpp Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following statements would create a default route using a gateway of 192.168.1.1? A. netstat -add default gw B. route default 192.168.1.1 C. ip route default 192.168.1.1 D. route add default gw 192.168.1.1 E. ifconfig default gw 192.168.1.1 eth0 Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following is the purpose of the dig command? A. To adjust a directory's hidden permissions B. To search for files on the filesystem C. To adjust a file's hidden permissions D. To perform hostname lookups E. To ping all known hosts on the current subnet Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following configuration files does sudo read when determining if a user is permitted to run applications with root privileges? A. /etc/groups B. /etc/passwd C. /etc/sudoers D. /etc/sudo.conf Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following commands will set the local machine's timezone to UTC? A. cat UTC > /etc/timezone B. ln -s /usr/share/zoneinfo/UTC /etc/localtime C. date --timezone=UTC D. mv /usr/timezone/UTC /etc Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. CORRECT TEXT A user was not given permission to use the CRON scheduling system. What file needs to be modified to provide that access? (Please specify the full path to the file). Answer: /ETC/CRON.ALLOW Question 7. Which of the following commands should be added to /etc/bash_profile to change the language of messages from an internationalised program to Portuguese (pt)? (Select TWO). A. export LANGUAGE="pt" B. export MESSAGE="pt" C. export LANG="pt" D. export LC_MESSAGES="pt" E. export ALL_MESSAGES="pt" Answer: C, D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is pool.ntp.org? A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel. B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project. C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers. D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux. Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following directories in a user's home contains configuration files and key rings for GPG? A. ~/gpg.d/ B. ~/.gpg/ C. ~/.gnupg/ D. ~/gnupg/ E. ~/.gpg.d/ Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following lines from /etc/X11/xorg.conf indicates that fonts can be found on a font server? A. FontPath= server B. Fonts "unix/:7100" C. FontPath "unix/:7100" D. Fonts= server E. Fontserver = "servername" Answer: C Explanation: Question 11. The files in the /etc/skel directory are used by the: A. pwconv command B. pwunconv command C. useradd command D. passwd command Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following would help a new administrator quickly determine if a network had a VLAN for its publicly accessible servers? A. Baselines B. Regulations C. Logical network diagrams D. Wiring schematics Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Keyword and blacklist filtering would be handled at which level in a network? A. Layer 2 managed switch B. DHCP server C. Hardware firewall D. Bridge Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. A common technique used to prevent the unauthorized network devices from sending traffic across a network is port. A. spanning B. address translation C. mirroring D. authentication Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. When installing two 802.11g access points in the same building, which of the following channels will MOST likely be used to minimize interference? A. 5 and 6 B. 1 and 6 C. 6 and 10 D. 2 and 6 Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following devices transmits timed broadcasts onto an active network? A. Bridge B. Unmanaged switch C. DHCP client D. Firewall Answer: C Explanation: Question 6. Users are unable to stay connected to the company's wireless network. Several times throughout the day the users' signals are dropped and they are forced to reconnect to the network. A technician determines the network cabling that supplies the WAP has been run inside with several power lines. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network issue? A. A short B. Open pairs C. ESD D. EMI Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following describes the location where an administrator would terminate a bundle of CAT5e cables? A. Switch B. Smart jack C. Router D. Patch panel Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following can be an STP cable? A. RG-6 B. CAT5e C. Fiber D. RG-59 Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following is used to identify active hosts along with their network addresses? A. Port scan B. Ping sweep C. IDS D. NIPS Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. A section of the building has been having intermittent connectivity problems lately. An action plan and solution has been created. Which of the following steps would an administrator perform NEXT? A. Document the solution and process. B. Establish the most probable cause. C. Implement and test the solution. D. Identify additional symptoms and problems Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1.
Javier copies a file named "secret" from a folder named "restricted" to a folder named "open". Both folders reside on the same NTFS partition. What happens to the permissions on the file named "secret"?
A. The file inherits the target directory's permissions
B. The file loses its permissions and is assigned to the Everyone group
C. The retains the permissions it has before it was copied
D. The file is copied into the new directory and the old file is deleted, all permissions are retained.
Answer: A
Explanation:
On a copy, permissions are inherited from the target folder. However, if it was a move, then the permissions move with the file, as long as it is on the same partition.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The new permissions are inherited from the target folder. It is not assigned to the everyone group unless that is what the target folder permissions were set at.
C: Permissions are retained on a MOVE, not a COPY.
D: This is really a move operation, not a copy.
Question 2.
Which of the following steps is necessary to add a new device driver to a Linux machine?
A. Copy the device driver to the device driver directory.
B. Extend the Linux kernel by incorporating the device code.
C. Insert the device into the Linux system and allow the system to choose the device files from its
device directory.
D. Insert the cd-rom with the device driver into the machine Linux will detect it and prompt you
through installation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The process of adding the device driver is done by extending the Linux kernel.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There are directories on Linux for source and executables, but moving code to these directories does not automatically install the device driver.
C: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
D: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
Question 3.
Nora is a site administrator for a large e-commerce site. She notices that the site is running slower and taking longer to process transactions.
What should Nora first do to trouble shoot the problem?
A. Identify any bottlenecks in the current system by using the site diagnostic tools such as web
trends.
B. Apply any necessary patches to the software running the site.
C. Monitor the CPU usage of the server running the site by using Windows NT performance
monitor.
D. Test the site using different connection speeds to verify whether the connection is running
more slowly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first thing to do is see what tasks are using the most CPU resources. In Windows NT, the Performance Monitor is the tool that will provide this monitoring.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The site diagnostic tools do not provide enough detail information for troubleshooting this problem. Since CPU processing performance needs to be monitored, a Operating System level tool ill b required.
B: Applying the patches may fix the problem, or make it worse. The first thing that should be done is to analyze the problem, and not just throw on fixes and other code HOPING that the problem may go away. Getting to know the problem helps to identify what is really wrong, and to apply the correct fix or course of action.
D: The observation that the site is running lower implied that the CPU had bottlenecks. Running at different communications speeds would only detect network bottlenecks, not CPU bottlenecks. There I no indication in this question that the network was being congested.
Question 4.
Ingrid is a Red Hat Linux system administrator. She is installing apache on her Linux server.
Which command should Ingrid execute to determine whether apache is already installed?
A. ps aus|grep apache
B. lynx apache
C. rpm -q apache
D. rpm -i apache
Answer: C
Explanation:
Red Hat Packet Manager (RPM) commands are used on Red Hat Linux. A query is issued to determine if apache is already there.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Running process status and a grep command (to search the active list) will not provide the information. If the apache server is running, then you caught it, but if the apache server is installed and not running, you will miss it.
B: There is no lynx command.
D: Although we need to run a RPM command, the -I form of the command does not provide the information we need.
Question 5.
Denise is the system administrator of a Linux system. She notices that whenever a specific process is running the performance of the system declines severely.
What can Denise do to learn exactly how the process affects her system?
A. Use the top program to see if the program is CPU-intensive.
B. Use performance monitor to monitor the process.
C. Kill the process and observe the result.
D. Use pine to check the process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The TOP program will provide an interactive screen with information similar to the ps command, and will display performance statistics.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Performance monitor is a Windows term, and is not used in Linux. Performance tools available in Linux are: ps, top, and vmstat.
C: Killing the process will lose the necessary information on how the process degraded the system and affected it. Denise needs to see the effect, ad this has to be done while the task is running and still doing its damage.
D: Pine is a mail program, and does not provide performance checking.
Question 6.
Nadir installed a Perl script in the cgi-bin directory of his Linux system that is running apache server. NO significant modifications have been made to Apache server. He accesses a script named test.cgi via a web browser, but the script does not execute, and Apache server returns a 500 "Internal Server Error" message. Nadir executes the command is-al on the cgi-bin directory of the problem server. He learns that the permissions on test.cgi are 700, and that the file is owned by root.
Which command should Nadir enter to ensure that his Perl script will execute securely?
A. Chmod 711 test.cgi
B. Chmod test.cgi 100.
C. Chown apache test.cgi.
D. Chmod.test.cgi 711
Answer: A
Explanation:
The format is chmod xxx filename. 711 Allows full access to the owner, and read access to all others.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This is the wrong syntax of the command, and 100 would restrict the owner to read only and everyone else is still locked out.
C: Change owner will not correct the situation, it is a permission issue.
D: This is the wrong syntax of the command, the permission number 711 comes before the filename.
Question 7.
Stephen has been assigned to install two apache web servers. He only has hardware for one server. So he decides to create a virtual server to host the second site that he will host.
Which file should Stephen edit to set the virtual servers attributes?
A. Httpd.conf
B. Linux.conf.
C. Access.conf
D. Magic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Directives for the Apache Web server are stored in the httpd.conf file.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Linux.conf doesn't hold virtual server attributes.
C: Access.conf is used for access control, to control which directories people can access.
D: Virtual server attributes are not saved in a Magic file.
Question 8.
Which of the following services is an example of a Mail Transfer Agent (MTA)?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Post Office Protocol version3 (POP3)
C. Microsoft Outlook.
D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Mail Transfer Agent is responsible for transmission of mail between servers. SMTP performs that function.
Incorrect Answers:
B: POP3 is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
C: Microsoft Outlook is a Mail User Agent (MUA), which can be customized to use either POP3 or IMAP to read mail from the mail server.
D: IMAP is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
Question 9.
Jim is configuring his new mail server but he can't remember the well-known port for SMTP.
What should Jim configure his mail server?
A. Jim should configure the server using port 80.
B. Jim should configure the server using port 25.
C. Jim should configure the server using port 23.
D. Jim should configure the server using port 24.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The well known port for SMTP is 25.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Port 80 is the well known port for HTTP
C: Port 23 is the well known port for Telnet.
D: Port 24 is not assigned as a well known port.
Question 10.
Frank is a system administrator for a large network. His company has a large DNS structure that he does not want to reveal to outsiders. He alters the SMTP headers of all messages so that his users appear to be sending mails from a different address.
What is the name of process that Frank implemented?
A. Aliasing.
B. Masquerading.
C. Forwarding.
D. Relaying.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Masquerading is the proper technical term for the process of changing SMPT headers to make the origins of the messages appear as if they came from a different source.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Aliasing allows the use of nicknames, the address itself is not hidden in this process, so Frank would not be able to hide anything but user information.
C: Forwarding will forward the messages, but the headers are preserved and Frank has not hidden anything.
D: Relaying is when an intermediate mail server, or hub, is used to pass mail from server to server. Headers are preserved, so nothing is hidden and the original IP addresses and domain names are exposed.
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Question 1. Cookies can be used to: A. spread viruses on a network. B. send personal information back to the Web server. C. execute programs on a Web server. D. target users for marketing. Answer: D Question 2. Where do SVG files render? A. On the client side B. In the XML markup C. On the server side D. In the Flash plug-in Answer: A Question 3. Consider the following code:What kind of code is shown in the preceding example? A. XML B. activescript C. VBScript D. HTML Answer: A Question 4. You have been asked to insert an image named kayak.jpg in a Web page. Which of the following code examples will validate as XHTML 1.0 Transitional? A. 1942 Casablanca Michael Curtiz B.
C.
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