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Question 1.
Which of the following three elements are not necessary for comprehensive and detailed trend analysis? (Choose three)
A. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
B. Cisco Resource Manager Essentials
C. Cisco Data Collection Engine
D. Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter
E. Cisco Traffic Collector
Answer: B, C, E
Question 2.
Which of the following characteristic is not supportable by SD port?
A. It ignores buffer-to-buffer credits.
B. It allows data traffic in the egress (tx) and igress (rx) directions.
C. It does not require a device or an analyzer to be physically connected.
D. Port mode cannot be changed if it is being used for a SPAN session.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following command option is not supportable by Call Home?
A. XML-destination
B. HTML-destination
C. short-txt-destination
D. full-txt-destination
Answer: B
Question 4.
Traffic Analyzer can generate all of the following statistics EXCEPT? (Choose two)
A. CPU load statistics.
B. Overall network statistics.
C. Session-based statistics.
D. N_Port-based statistics.
E. VSAN-based statistics.
F. FC framing errors ASIC utilization statistics.
Answer: A, F
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Question 1. Regarding Disaster Recovery, What information does the Phase 1 start-up file (P1S) contain? A. Information on how to format and install all disks within a system B. Information about the logical tape device C. Information about system registry D. Information on drivers and software to be loaded Answer: A Question 2. What is the default threshold for medium overwrites for linear tapes? A. 250 B. 300 C. 350 D. 400 Answer: A Question 3. The file demo.txt in the directory tree d:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by incremental backups on January 6,7 and 8. When browsing the internal database context, how many sessions will be available? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: D Question 4. What is accomplished by invoking the Data Protector Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery Method? A. The failed client system is automatically recovered from the latest backup B. The call Manager replicates the cell database to a standby system C. The Call Manger creates the file that is to be used by the CD-burner D. The SRD file for a failed client is updated Answer: C Question 5. A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients. Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license? A. Multipath B. Autopass C. Direct Backup D. Indirect backup Answer: A Question 6. What will happen to an extra session that is started over the default or configured number of concurrent backups? A. The extra session will fail and the backup will be lost B. The session will be queued and started when others finish C. All of the backups will start at the same time to avoid backup loss D. The extra backups will be scheduled to start at a time configured in the global file Answer: B Question 7. What must fist be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to version 5.5? A. Ensure that a Windows Installation server is installed B. Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level C. Install the latest Windows NT service pack D. Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version Answer: D Question 8. To make sure a library is not claimed by another SCSI initiator, which tool can be used? A. uma B. devbra C. omnidlc D. omnicheck Answer: B Question 9. Which operations and security verifications are used in a Windows domain environment? A. Secure Shell 2 B. Windows Active Directory C. Windows Domain Verification D. Data Protector internal protocol Answer: D Question 10. Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process? A. Hard Drive B. Video Card C. Network Card D. Host Bus Adapter Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following verification points appear in the Asset pane when a script is being viewed? (Select all that apply.) A. Window Image B. File Existence C. File Comparison D. Region Image E. Module Existence Answer: A, D Question 2. A GUI functional test script with no verification points can still be part of a valid application test A. True B. False Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following are characteristics of scripts? (Select all that apply.) A. They contain actual results of the verification points included B. They are files that Robot can execute C. They can be executed by a Robot suite D. They can be executed by a TestManager suite E. They may contain properties, such as the type and purpose of the script Answer: B, D, E Question 4. Which of the following statements describe the baseline data of a verification point? (Select all that apply.) A. Editable file containing input data used during the script playback B. Actual state of the object when the script is played back C. Object information captured during recording D. Expected state of the object during subsequent builds Answer: C, D Question 5. Where should verification points be inserted into scripts? A. At every object in the application B. At every data entry field C. At every feature you want to test D. At every window and dialog box Answer: C Question 6. The Timeout value for a wait state is 30 seconds and the verification point passes in 5 seconds What does Robot do? A. Continues to wait until the 30 seconds has passed, then executes the remainder of the script B. Waits 30 seconds, then attempts the verification point again C. Waits 5 seconds, then executes the remainder of the script D. Immediately continues the execution of the remainder of the script Answer: D Question 7. What is the purpose of Datapools? A. To report on errors written to log files during testing B. To track or "pool" data written to log files during testing C. To provide unique input data to scripts executed multiple times D. To provide response time data for different types of input data Answer: C Question 8. What is the purpose of the Alphanumeric verification point type? A. To test data in windows objects that contain text;for example,pushbuttons and labels B. To verify the existence of a file by comparing the name to a stored variable C. To do a byte-for-byte comparison of data within a file D. To capture data from a spreadsheet to compare to a file Answer: A Question 9. What is the purpose of the Object Properties verification point type? A. To compare the properties of a window;e.g. normal,minimized,maximized,or hidden B. To capture and compare properties 01 standard Windows objects C. To compare the properties of the application ;e.g control location,menu options,etc D. To test data in windows objects that contain text;for example,pushbuttons and labels Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following can be viewed through the Comparators? (Select all that apply.) A. Causes of application failures B. Actual results of verification points for this run C. Messages sent to external log files D. Baseline data for verification points Answer: B, D
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Question 1.
A team has a heavily conventional group style. Their solutions are below average and they do not achieve synergy. The team members feel that the group could be doing somewhat better.
What is the best suggestion for minimizing the negative impact of this style?
A. Emphasize the importance of arriving at a consensus decision - one that all members can buy
into.
B. Establish a feeling of unity among group members. Remind the team that when the group
wins, everyone wins.
C. Play "devil's advocate" when group members keep proposing the same safe solution. Ask
probing questions to pinpoint the pros and cons of their solution.
D. Encourage the more reserved group members to speak up. They may be able to supply
missing information and a fresh perspective. Make sure to include them so they understand
their value to the team.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following best describes an example of subordinating all decisions to the output capability of the constriction, or bottleneck?
A. Additional capacity is obtained by purchasing the capital equipment needed to keep up with
demand.
B. The output of all operations in front of the bottleneck, including release, is reduced to match
that of the constriction.
C. The output capabilities for processes downstream from the bottleneck are increased so that
product will move quickly once it passes the constriction.
D. Capacity figures for all resources are reviewed and compared with demand in order to
determine the bottleneck department so that work schedules can be established.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following is the best definition of Manufacturing Cycle Time?
A. It is the total time it takes to process, ship and deliver a product to a customer.
B. It is the total time that it takes to process a product through a Manufacturing line.
C. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials to stock through
delivery to the customer.
D. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials through the last
manufacturing operation excluding non-value-added process steps.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which of the following best describes the benefits of Takt Management in a manufacturing line?
A. Hourly output is monitored versus hourly demand so that production shortfalls can be identified
and addressed.
B. Hourly fluctuations in WIP are monitored and reasons for special cause variation are identified
and addressed.
C. As constrictions, or bottlenecks, move throughout the manufacturing line, the bottleneck is
identified and Takt targets are increased.
D. Ongoing process improvement is achieved by identifying enhancers and detractors to output
resulting in improvement opportunities for the line.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following is a constructive cultural characteristic of an effective team?
A. The team leader is expected to provide initiative.
B. The team takes a "failure is not an option" attitude when identifying goals.
C. Individual accomplishment is recognized and rewarded as a model for other team members.
D. People are encouraged to be decisive, take moderate risks, take initiative and be accountable.
Answer: D
Question 6.
One of an organization's productivity values is "Prioritization is a major barrier to production."
Which of the following run rules supports that value?
A. First In First Out (FIFO) will be practiced in all areas.
B. Engineering builds are exempt from any prioritization run rules.
C. Complete Takt charts hourly.
D. Respect customer Kanban limits.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is a critical rule for the successful implementation of a Kanban system?
A. Limits may be violated by the supplier only.
B. Once established, limits should never change, regardless of the reason.
C. Limits should be reviewed regularly, and changed when necessary by a central authority.
D. A customer should feel free to request a violation of established limits for any reason, because
they best recognize their own needs.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which of the following is an attribute of an effective team?
A. Works toward reaching consensus
B. Expects conformity from team members
C. Uses a democratic process for decision-making
D. Encourages discussion until the leader closes the topic
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following is the most effective technique for performing queuing analysis?
A. Process Mapping
B. Pareto Analysis
C. Simulation Modeling
D. Statistical Process Analysis
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which of the following WIP management techniques promotes the concept of root cause analysis?
A. A capacitated release strategy implementation
B. Dynabans implementation
C. Kanbans implementation
D. Takt management implementation
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Prior to installing Document Manager servers, the PATH system environment variable should include which of the following?
A. Information Integrator C++ Connector DLL directory
B. %IBMCMROOT%\cmgmt directory
C. Information Integrator installation directory
D. Information Integrator Java Connector directory
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which application must be used by DM to create a thumbnail rendition from a CAD file?
A. Cimmetry AutoVue
B. AutoDesk AutoCAD
C. Bentley MicroStation
D. Informatative Graphics MYRIAD
Answer: A
Question 3.
If the Name field of the properties of a Cache Service does not equal a LibraryName value in ddmcasrv.ini, what happens to the Document Manager Desktop when an attempt to log on is made?
A. The Document Manager Desktop will fail to connect to the selected library and return an error.
B. The Document Manager Desktop will succeed in connecting to the selected library.
C. The Document Manager Desktop will hang until a predetermined timeout value is reached.
D. The Document Manager Desktop will succeed in connecting to the selected library with
degraded performance.
Answer: A
Question 4.
When configuring Designer to connect to a library, the Name field in the Library Configuration must match the LibraryName in which file?
A. ddmsmtp.ini
B. ddmcasrv.ini
C. ddmcfgsv.ini
D. ddmlogconfig.properties
Answer: B
Question 5.
In order to conduct a web based install of the Document Manager Desktop, which of the following files must be copied to the web server directory?
A. ddminst.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, index.htm, default.htm
B. ddmdsktp.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, index.htm, default.htm
C. ddminst.htm, ddmdsktp.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, default.htm
D. ddmdsktp.htm, ddmcasrv.ini, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, default.htm
Answer: C
Question 6.
The System Administrator can configure datastore pooling to improve the overall performance of a DB2 Document Manager system.
How does datastore pooling improve performance?
A. It allows the specification of a department-level cache server that is used to "pool" document
data that is local to that department.
B. It allows the administrator to specify allocation of pools of memory that can be shared by
different item types in the repository.
C. It reduces the overhead associated with opening a new connection each time a request is
issued by a user by reusing cached datastores.
D. It retains a database connection for each user of the system for a period of hours as defined in
the DdmConnCfg.ini file.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Assuming standard naming conventions, which metadata information is required, in Document Manager's Library Configuration, to work with data in the library?
A. Class and Revision
B. Class and State
C. Revision and Properties
D. State and Revision
Answer: B
Question 8.
In addition to a user name, password, and DM Library Server name, which additional item is required for the Designer to login to the library?
A. The Content Manager machine name.
B. A user with the SysAdminCM privilege set.
C. The Content Manager database name.
D. SOAP information if the server is not behind a firewall.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following commands can be used to determine the currently installed version of IBM Information Integrator for Content?
A. cmlevel
B. dmlevel
C. db2level
D. ii4clevel
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which INI file must be configured after the Document Manager Server is installed?
A. ddmconncfg.ini
B. ddmcache.ini
C. ddmcfgsv.ini
D. ddmcasrv.ini
Answer: D
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Question 1.
A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution.
What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?
A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer's current environment
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following statements best describes a customer's pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?
A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any
additional time."
D. "We are on oldertechnology. I know that getting upto date will help us improve on our
customer satisfaction."
Answer: B
Question 3.
A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9.
Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?
A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing
Answer: C
Question 4.
A Syslem z competitor has announced their potential entry into the main? lame market. It Rather claims that thew system can run z/OS.
What should the sales rep male sure the customer understands.
A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system wIll also run zNM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines,
subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonslrabd to run on Designated Machines.
subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.
Answer: C
Question 5.
A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows.
Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?
A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?
A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power
capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a
full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to
the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9
Answer: C
Question 7.
A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements.
Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?
A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools
Answer: C
Question 8.
A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment.
Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency
Answer: A
Question 9.
A universally physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously.
Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?
A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and
decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all
vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet pertormance needs at the best price and
consider the total cost of ownership
Answer: B
Question 10.
A new ClO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure.
Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?
A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization
Answer: B
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