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Question 1.
Which functions are the System ERASE utility can perform all of the following functions EXCEPT? Select TWO
A. Clear NVRAM.
B. Purge browser cache.
C. Clear hard drives.
D. Demagnetize display.
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
You want to change the boot order on a Compaq server. Which of the following utility can be used to change the boot order on a Compaq server?
A. Compaq Insight Manager
B. Array Diagnostic Utility
C. System Configuration Utility
D. Array Configuration Utility
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which of the following tools are not involved to view Integrated Management Log (IML)? Select THREE.
A. SmartStart
B. IMD
C. IML viewer
D. IMD viewer
E. Inspect
Answer: A, D, E
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Question 1.
Based on the following output in ITCertKeys 1, which statement is true ITCertKeys 1#show mpls forwarding-table 50.0.0.3 detail Local Outgoing Prefix Bytes tag Outgoing Next Hop tag tag or VC or Tunnel Id switched interface 19 17 50.0.0.3/32 0 Et0/0 192.168.0.14 -------
A. None of the other alternatives apply.
B. If a labeled packet arrives with the top most label of 19, it will be replaced with label 17 and
sent out on Ethernet 0/0 interface.
C. If a labeled packet arrives with the top most label of 17, it will be replaced with label 19 and
sent out on Ethernet 0/0 interface.
D. If a labeled packet arrives with the top most label of 17, all the labels will be removed and a
clear IP packet is sent to Next Hop 192.168.0.14 on Ethernet 0/0.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Based on the following output in a router A running LDP, which statement is true? show mpls ldp bindings 50.0.0.1 32
tib entry: 50.0.0.1/32, rev 5
local binding: tag: imp-null
remote binding:tsr:50.0.0.4:0, tag:16
A. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to the non-directly connected LDP neighbor, 50.0..0.4.
B. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to its directly connected LDP neighbor, 50.0..0.4.
C. None of the other alternatives apply.
D. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to one of its own interfaces.
Answer: D
Question 3.
What OSPF LSA is used to support MPLS-traffic Engineering ?
A. Opaque LSA (Type 9 )
B. Opaque LSA (Type 10 )
C. NSSA LSA (Type 7 )
D. Opaque LSA (Type 11 )
E. External LSA (Type 5 )
Answer: B
Question 4.
What statement about Transit AS is true?
A. Traffic and prefixes originating from Source AS are carried across a Transit AS to reach their
destination AS.
B. None of the other alternatives apply.
C. Traffic and prefixes originating from Transit AS are carried across a Stub AS to their
destination AS.
D. Traffic and prefixes originating from Transit AS are carried across a Stub AS to their Source
AS.
Answer: A
Question 5.
In which state can BGP peers exchange Update messages?
A. Idle
B. OpenConfirm
C. OpenSent
D. Active
E. Established
Answer: E
Question 6.
Which of the following technologies can improve convergence time following a link failure in a service provider network?
A. VPLS
B. MPLS TE FR
C. RSVP
D. MPLS VPN
E. SNMP
F. BFD
Answer: B, F
Question 7.
A Successor is:
A. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination.
B. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination and whose reported distance equals
the feasible distance.
C. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition
D. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition and has the lowest cost path towards the
destination
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following processes in IOS XR run exclusively on the Route Processor?
A. gsp
B. wdsysmon
C. sysmgr
D. mpls_idp
E. bgp
Answer: D, E
Question 9.
In which of the following lists of APS Action Requests is the priority correctly arranged from lowest to highest?
A. Wait-to-Restore, Forced Switch, Manual Switch, Lockout of Protection.
B. Wait-to-Restore, Manual Switch, Forced Switch, Lockout of Protection
C. Wait-to-Restore, Manual Switch, Lockout of Protection, Forced Switch
D. Manual Switch, Wait-to-Restore, Lockout of Protection, Forced Switch.
E. Lockout of Protection, Forced Switch, Manual Switch, Wait-to-Restore
F. Lockout of Protection, Manual Switch, Forced Switch, Wait-to-Restore
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.)
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
B. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a brodcast network.
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router
becoming DIS.
D. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
E. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC
address becomes the DIS.
F. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
A medium-sized insurance company has outgrown power capacity of their existing datacenter and is evaluating options to accommodate workload growth. All of the following are key benefits of CoolBlue.
Which one is of the MOST benefit to the customer in this situation?
A. System x can maximize datacenter density while lowering TCO.
B. Power Executive gives the client the ability to optimize energy utilization.
C. The IBM Rear Door Heat exchanger can be installed to reduce cooling requirements.
D. IBM energy efficient blade servers reduce the clients high energy costs for power and cooling.
Answer: D
Question 2.
A potential new customer needs servers and requests a response to their hardware requirements. The customer requests a quote from IBM within 48 hours.
Which of the following should the System x Sales Specialist do to MAXIMIZE the odds of winning this business?
A. Request an extension because 48 hours will not be enough time to propose an appropriate
solution.
B. Ask the customer for a brief meeting or call to learn more about their needs and respond to
Their request with a complete solution.
C. Use the configuration guide or spreadsheet configurator to assemble server configurations that
meet the specification, and then look for the lowest price.
D. Contact the IBM Client Representative for this account and ask for assistance in setting up a
meeting with the technical decision maker of the prospective customer.
Answer: B
Question 3.
A customer is interested in the ability to increase a system's computing power as needed.
Which of the following System x server attributes should the Sales Specialist promote?
A. Ability to hot-plug additional processors on demand
B. Low cost of System x servers makes scaling out an option
C. "Pay as you Grow" scalability of the IBM System X3950 server
D. Integration of System x servers with the existing servers using an interconnect
Answer: C
Question 4.
A potential new customer needs servers and requests a response to their hardware specifications, which are all related to hardware speeds, disk, and memory configuration. The customer requests a quote from IBM within 48 hours.
Which of the following should the System x Sales Specialist do to MAXIMIZE the odds of winning this business?
A. Request an extension because 48 hours will not be enough time to propose an appropriate
solution.
B. Ask the customer for a brief meeting or call to learn more about their needs and respond to
Their request with a complete solution.
C. Use the configuration guide or spreadsheet configurator to assemble server configurations that
meet the specification, and then look for the lowest price.
D. Contact the IBM Client Representative for this account and ask for assistance in setting up a
meeting with the technical decision maker of the prospective customer.
Answer: B
Question 5.
A customer currently buys HP ProLiant servers and EMC storage. The customer has encountered various problems getting certain servers to work with their storage.
Which of the following arguments can the Sales Specialist present to best position IBM?
A. IBM's server division regularly tests their products with other vendors' storage products.
B. IBM's storage division regularly tests their products with other vendors' server products.
C. IBM sells other vendors' products and will test compatibility with the customer's products.
D. IBM's ServerProven program assures a customer of compatibility with specific third-party
products.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which option best represents the way Capacity Manager aids optimizing performance and maximizing availability of managed servers?
A. System monitor resources are managed by thresholds.
B. Scheduled rejuvenation achieves server software peak efficiency.
C. Slot manager identifies best slot for installation of PCI/PCI-X adapters.
D. Performance analysis identifies system bottlenecks and recommends solution.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which of the following customer requirements would suggest a systems management solution on System x?
A. Higher scalability
B. Reduced operating costs
C. Improved server performance
D. Consolidation to one operating system
Answer: B
Question 8.
A customer uses a 3rd-party management system to manage all the servers in their data center. They have approached their Sales specialist about purchasing some IBM System x servers for a new project. The customer has heard about IBM Director, but is concerned that this will produce additional administrative overhead.
Which of the following statements will be MOST useful in addressing the customer's concern?
A. Most third party management systems are IBM ServerProven products.
B. IBM Director will run concurrently with third party management systems.
C. The IBM Director Console can be run on the third party management server.
D. Upward integration modules for many prominent third party management systems are
Available with IBM Director.
Answer: D
Question 9.
A customer already has an HS21 blade server and wishes to upgrade the blade to 32GB of RAM (8 x4GB DIMMs).
What should be proposed to the client?
A. 8 x4GB DIMMs to go in their existing HS21
B. 8 x 4GB DIMMs and a Memory and I/O expansion module
C. 8 x 4GB DIMMs and a Storage and I/O expansion module
D. An alternative server solution; the HS21 does not support 32GB of RAM
Answer: B
Question 10.
IBM Director allows for upward integration into some management tools.
Which management tool does NOT allow for this upward integration?
A. IBM Tivoli
B. BMC Patrol
C. HP Openview
D. Microsoft SMS
E. Microsoft WSUS
Answer: E
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Question 1.
What are the results of the command: fw sam [Target IP Address]?
A. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy
B. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the
Security Policy
C. The Security Policy is compiled and installed on the target's embedded VPN/FireWall Modules
D. Connections from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security
Policy
Answer: B
Question 2.
The command fw fetch causes the:
A. Security Gateway to retrieve the user database information from the tables on theSmartCenter
Server.
B. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the debug logs of the target Security Gateway
C. Security Gateway to retrieve the compiled policy and inspect code from theSmartCenter
Server and install it to the kernel.
D. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the IP addresses of the target Security Gateway
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which of the following deployment scenarios CANNOT be managed by Check Point QoS?
A. Two lines connected directly to the Gateway through a hub
B. Two lines connected to separate routers, and each router is connected to separate interfaces
on the Gateway
C. One LAN line and one DMZ line connected to separate Gateway interfaces
D. Two lines connected to a single router, and the router is connected directly to the Gateway
Answer: D
Question 4.
Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow Telnet service to itself from any location.
How would you set up the authentication method? With a:
A. Session Authentication rule
B. Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900
C. Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on
D. Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on
Answer: B
Question 5.
You must set up SIP with a proxy for your network. IP phones are in the 172.16.100.0 network. The Registrar and Proxy are installed on the host, 172.16.101.100. To allow handover enforcement for outbound calls from SIP-net to the Internet, you have defined the following objects:
Network object: SIP-net: 172.16.100.0/24
SIP-gateway: 172.16.101.100
VoIP Domain object: VoIP_domain_A
End-point domain: SIP-net
VoIP gateway installed at: SIP-gateway host object
How would you configure the rule?
A. VoIP_domain_A / any / sip_any / accept
B. VoIP_Gateway_A / any / sip / accept
C. Unsupported because the SIP Registrar and the SIP Proxy are installed on the same host.
Separate and create two VoIP Domain objects.
D. SIP-net & SIP-gateway / any / sip / accept
Answer: A
Question 6.
A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway
A. Stealth
B. Cleanup
C. SmartDefense
D. Reject
Answer: A
Question 7.
An advantage of using central vs local licensing is:
A. Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
B. Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
C. The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of a Security Gateway.
D. A license can be taken from oneSmartCenter Server and given to SmartCenter Server.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which command allows verification of the Security Policy name and install date on a Security Gateway?
A. fw ver -p
B. fw show policy
C. fw stat -l
D. fw ctl pstat -policy
Answer: C
Question 9.
What command displays the version of an already installed Security Gateway?
A. cpstat -gw
B. fw printver
C. fw ver
D. fw stat
Answer: C
Question 10.
When configuring objects in SmartMap, it is helpful to ____________ the objects so that they are properly defined for use in a policy rule.
A. Save
B. Actualize
C. Physically connect to
D. Expand
Answer: B
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Question 1.
The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High Availability member
When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become active?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1 1
C. Both members' state will be standby
D. Both members' state will be active
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the command to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 SmartCenter Server to VPN-1 NGX using a CD?
A. cd patch add
B. fwm upgrade_tool
C. cppkg add
D. patchadd
E. patch addcd
Answer: E
Question 3.
You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at version VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R55. You must upgrade your two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1 NGX.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the twoSmartCenter Servers.
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two Servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your primary SmartCenter Server is installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine, which is also a VPN-1 Pro Gateway. You want to implement Management High Availability (HA). You have a spare machine to configure as the secondary SmartCenter Server. How do you configure the new machine to be the standby SmartCenter Server, without making any changes to the existing primary SmartCenter Server? (Changes can include uninstalling and reinstalling.)
A. You cannot configure Management HA, when either the primary or secondary SmartCenter
Server is running on a VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
B. The new machine cannot be installed as the Internal Certificate Authority on its own.
C. The secondary Server cannot be installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine alone.
D. Install the secondary Server on the spare machine. Add the new machine to the same network
as the primary Server.
Answer: A
Question 5.
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 256 MB, Security Gateway
version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four Intel 3Com, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four other manufacturers, memory: 128 MB,
Security Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
SmartCenter Pro Server: MS Windows Server 2003, NIC: Intel NIC (one), Security Gateway and primary SmartCenter Server installed version: VPN-1 NGX
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, theSmartCenter Pro Server is not using the same operating system as the cluster
members.
B. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for aClusterXL deployment.
C. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
D. No, the SmartCenter Pro Server has only one NIC.
Answer: B
Question 6.
You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal networks can access your partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text.
How do you configure the VPN Community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the
Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the
Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP services to the
Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the
Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the Community
object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule in the
Security Policy to allow Any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How does a standby SmartCenter Server receive logs from all Security Gateways, when an active SmartCenter Server fails over?
A. The remote Gateways must set up SIC with the secondarySmartCenter Server, for logging.
B. Establish Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the primary and secondary Servers.
The secondary Server can then receive logs from the Gateways, when the active Server fails
over.
C. On the Log Servers screen (from the Logs and Masters tree on the gateway object's General
Properties screen), add the secondary SmartCenter Server object as the additional log server.
Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Create a Check Point host object to represent the standby SmartCenter Server. Then select
"Secondary SmartCenter Server" and Log Server", from the list of Check Point Products on the
General properties screen.
E. The secondary Server's host name and IP address must be added to the Masters file, on the
remote Gateways.
Answer: C
Question 8.
You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols, passing directly between end points.
Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for VPN-1 NGX?
A. VPN-1 Certificate Manager
B. SmartCenterServer
C. SmartLSM
D. Policy Server
E. Security Gateway
Answer: B
Question 10.
You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX.
Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?
A. CallManager
B. Gatekeeper
C. Gateway
D. Proxy
E. Transmission Router
Answer: A
Question 11.
What type of packet does a VPN-1 SecureClient send to its Policy Server, to report its Secure Configuration Verification status?
A. ICMPPort Unreachable
B. TCPkeep alive
C. IKE Key Exchange
D. ICMP Destination Unreachable
E. UDPkeep alive
Answer: E
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Question 1.
Which statement is true regarding the EX-series file system?
A. Contents in the /var directory are automatically removed upon a successful software upgrade.
B. The file system must be cleaned manually after every upgrade.
C. Contents in the /var directory are automatically archived for future software rollbacks.
D. The file system must be cleaned manually before every upgrade.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)
A. All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.
B. The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.
C. The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.
D. The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the asterisk (*) indicate?
A. The interface is configure for PoE.
B. The interface receives untagged frames.
C. The interface is up and active.
D. The interface contains Layer 3 configuration.
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled in the factory-default configuration?
A. STP
B. PVST
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which statement is true for configuring a link aggregation group?
A. No more than 10 member links can belong to a link aggregation group.
B. Link duplex mode and speed must match within a link aggregation group.
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 interfaces can be mixed when creating a link aggregation group.
D. Member links cannot span multiple member switches within a virtual chassis.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which three statement describe benefits of bridging? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging allows mixed physical media types on a common LAN.
B. Bridging uses Layer 2 bridge tables to intelligently forward traffic towards its destination.
C. Bridging logically segments user groups based on administrative policy.
D. Bridging allows for the creation of multiple broadcast domains.
E. Bridging can reduce the number of collisions on a LAN.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
When configuring a redundant trunk group (RTG) on an interface, which restriction would apply?
A. The interface must be configured as a Layer 3 interface with an assigned IP address.
B. The interface cannot be configured as a Layer 2 trunk.
C. The gratuitous-ARP-reply must be disabled on the interface.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) cannot be configured on the interface.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which two commands are valid for verifying NTP operation? (Choose two.)
A. show ntp status
B. show ntp associations
C. show ntp synchronization
D. show ntp server
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
What describes the way the JUNOS software evaluates a route against a policy?
A. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the match clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in
the then clause and stops processing further terms.
B. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the
then clause and continues processing further terms if the accept action was specified.
C. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches any criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in
the then clause and stops processing further terms.
D. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the
then clause and stops processing further terms.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, in which configuration hierarchy would the block-stuff filter be defined?
A. [edit firewall family vlan]
B. [edit firewall family ethernet]
C. [edit firewall family ethernet-switching]
D. [edit firewall family inet]
Answer: C
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Question 1.
A volume can contain up to___snapshots concurrently.
A. 125
B. 225
C. 255
D. Depends on capacity and number of disk drives
Answer: C
Question 2.
You can unlicense the cluster feature only in
A. normal, disabled
B. normal, enabled
C. takeover, disabled
D. takeover, enabled
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which one of the following keywords alone can be used to convert an asynchronous mirror to be synchornous?
A. cksum
B. src_con
C. sync
D. outstanding
Answer: C
Question 4.
What command would you enter to restore the /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc file from a snapshot to the /vol/flexvolO/home directory?
A. snap restore -r vol /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
B. snap restore -t /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
C. snap restore -t file -r /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
D. snap restore -s /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which three of the following configurations would increase data transfer rates for traditional volume SnapMirror?
A. The destination and source contain disks of the same size.
B. The destination and source contain RAID groups of the same size.
C. The destination and source storage appliances are no further than 30 meters apart.
D. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Correct; A, B, D
The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Correct; A, B, D
Answer: D
Question 6.
The snapvault update command is only available on the secondary system.
A. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups. Correct; A, B, D
B. True
C. False
Answer: A
Question 7.
What is the format for snapvault schedule?
A. YYYY-MM-DD
B. crontab format
C. cnt[@day_Hst][@hour_list]
D. List of dates in ISO Date format
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which one of the following commands is used to specify the destination appliance(s) that are allowed to replicate (pul data from the source appliance?
A. options snapmirror.allow
B. snapmirror release
C. snapmirror initialize
D. options snapmirror.access
Answer: D
Question 9.
Open System SnapVault agents can be installed on all non-Network Appliance platforms.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which one of the following statements apply to the Free Space Estimator utility?
A. This utility determines if there is sufficient space on the secondary volume to perform a transfer
B. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the primary to perform an
OSSV transfer
C. This utility run automatically after each transfer
D. This utility must be enabled on the secondary storage system
Answer: B
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Question 1. The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance can track up to how many devices? A. 1000 B. 2000 C. 2500 D. 1500 Answer: D Question 2. Which of the following functions on the wireless LAN controller is used to determine whether or not a rogue access point is connected to the same Layer 2 network? A. rogue detector B. rogue containment C. RLDP D. RIDP Answer: C Question 3. On a Cisco Aironet 1130 Series autonomous access point, the status indicator is blinking dark blue. What does this indicate? A. The access point is booting. B. A firmware upgrade is in progress. C. The internal radio has failed. D. An access point buffer overflow is occurring. Answer: B Question 4. How many WLANs can a REAP support when actively connected to a wireless controller? A. 8 B. 32 C. 4 D. 16 Answer: D Question 5. On a Cisco Aironet 1230 Series autonomous access point, the Status LED is solid red, and the Ethernet and Radio LEDs are both off. What does this indicate? A. A firmware upgrade is in progress. B. The internal radio has failed. C. An access point buffer overflow is occurring. D. The access point is booting. Answer: A Question 6. A wireless controller can reside in how many mobility groups? A. two B. three C. four D. one Answer: D Question 7. To implement the optional phase zero when using EAP-FAST for authentication, which of the following parameters must be set on the Cisco Secure ACS? A. EAP-FAST master server B. Allow automatic PAC provisioning C. client initial message D. authority ID info Answer: B Question 8. When conducting an Assisted Site Survey, the WLSE does which of the following during the Radio Scan process? A. chooses the least congested channel B. uses the configured channel C. sets all access points to the same channel D. steps through each of the allowed channels Answer: C Question 9. The wireless LAN controller maintains up to how many controller crash files? A. 20 B. 5 C. 15 D. 10 Answer: B Question 10. In a network using Cisco autonomous access points running WDS, what port is used for authentication by the local authentication service on an access point? A. 1813 B. 1645 C. 1646 D. 1812 Answer: D
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Question 1.
LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation.
What can you do to help pinpoint the problem?
A. Check for security alarms
B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device
configuration screen
C. View the SDI trace output
D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been
downloaded to the IP phone
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. Set preference to 1
B. Invoke a Tcl application
C. Enable dtmf-relay
D. Set codec to G.711
E. Disable DID
F. Disable VAD
Answer: B, C, F
Question 3.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
Answer: B
Question 4.
You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway.
What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same time-stamp
B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to
C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked
D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same TCP handle
Answer: A
Question 5.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2?
A. Queue 2
B. Queue 3
C. Queue 1
D. Queue 4
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again.
Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The TON in incorrect
B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue
C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the
gateway
D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is
an internation call
E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls
Answer: A
Question 7.
You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors.
Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing?
A. Route Plan Report
B. Dial Plan Installer
C. Dialed Number Analyzer
D. RTMT Traces and Alarms
Answer: C
Question 8.
You have just obtained a list of the following options:
all patterns
unassigned DN
Call Park
Conference
Directory Number
Translation Pattern
Call pickup group
Route pattern
Message waiting
Voice mail
Attendant console
What have you selected in order to produce this list?
A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard
B. Control Center > Feature Services
C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Answer: C
Question 9.
You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings.
How does this change the trace output?
A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex
B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the
trace output
C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message
D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the
session
Answer: B
Question 10.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
What criterion does Oracle9i use to determine whether a database file is an Oracle Managed File?
A. The filename format.
B. Information stored inside a data dictionary table.
C. Information stored in the ALERT.LOG file for the corresponding instance.
D. Information stored inside the corresponding initialization parameter file for the instance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Oracle will use naming conventions when it creates the OMF files. In this naming convention, %t represents the tablespace name, %u is a unique 8-character string, and %g stands for the redo log group number.
Incorrect Answers
B: Oracle will create a locally managed tablespaces, so information about a datafile will not be stored inside a data dictionary table.
C: Oracle does not use ALERT.LOG file to store information about datafiles. It just keep log of database events and database structure changes.
D: Initialization parameter file will not be used to store this information. Oracle reads this file to set initialization parameters to start the instance. The structure of the database is stored inside control files. Oracle uses them to mount and open the database. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 153-160 Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 2-12
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features
Question 2.
Oracle9i extends the cursor sharing functionality with the new value of SIMILAR for the CURSOR_SHARING parameter. With CURSOR_SHARING = SIMILAR, cursors are shared for safe literals only.
What is meant by 'safe literals only'?
A. No literal value is substituted for a shared cursor.
B. Different execution plans are generated for substituted literal values.
C. The substitution of a literal value will produce different execution plans.
D. The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Oracle9i has enhanced cursor sharing mode. It can use additional value, SIMILAR, in addition to the EXACT and FORCE cursor sharing modes. When you specify SIMILAR, Oracle only uses the execution plan if is certain that the execution plan does not have any association with the specific literal value. You can enable similar statements to share the same SQL execution plan by setting CURSOR_SHARING to either FORCE or SIMILAR.
Incorrect Answers
A: Literal value is substituted for a shared cursor. The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan.
B: Exactly the same execution plans will be generated for substituted literal values.
C: The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 215-217
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 57-59
Chapter 2: Oracle9i Architecture Changes
Question 3.
The Dynamic SGA feature allows the SGA to grow and shrink dynamically according to an ALTER SYSTEM command. This avoids the previous need of shutting down the instance in order to modify the components of the SGA, namely the buffer cache and shared pool components.
Which three statements are true for the Dynamic SGA feature? (Choose three)
A. The maximum granule size is 4 MB.
B. The minimum SGA configuration is three granules.
C. SGA memory is based on granules by SGA components.
D. The size of the SGA components is set by the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.
E. The size of the SGA components is limited by the setting of SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.
Answer: B, C, E
Explanation:
The minimum SGA configuration is three granules. One is for fixed SGA, one for database buffer, one for shared pool. Oracle9i has enhanced the nature of SGA parameters; they are now dynamic. You can change the values of the shared pool and the buffer cache without restarting the database instance. The Oracle9i dynamic SGA concept enables you to take memory from one area of the SGA and allocate it to another area as needed while the database instance is up and running. Additionally, the unit of memory allocation fr SGA is a granule in Oracle9i. Oracle9i also introduces SGA_MAX_SIZE, a new static parameter that enables the DBA to start with a smaller SGA and dynamically increase it to the maximum value specified by SGA_MAX_SIZE. If you do not set SGA_MAX_SIZE or if you set it to a value less than initial SGA size, you cannot increase the SGA size later.
Incorrect Answers
A: The size of a granule is 4 MB if the SGA at startup is less than 128 MB; it will be 16 MB otherwise.
D: The size of the SGA components is not set by the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter. This parameter is just maximum limit for sum of the SGA components. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 180-182
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 16-17
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features
Question 4.
There is more than one way to set the server to detect and affect long running operations automatically.
What is the best choice of you want to reduce the impact of long running operations on other users without aborting the long running operations?
A. Define user profiles and set the CPU_PER_CALL limit.
B. Define a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager.
C. Create a batch job that checks V$SESSION_LONGOPS; the batch job alters the session
priority of the long running operations.
D. Create a user defined event in the Oracle Enterprise Manager, which monitors
V$SESSION_LONGOPS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You can define a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager to reduce the impact of long running operations on other users without aborting the long running operations.
Incorrect Answers
A: You cannot do this with CPU_PER_CALL limit.
C: You don't need to use a batch job to check V$SESSION_LONGOPS for this purpose.
D: It can be done with a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager, you don't need to monitor V$SESSION_LONGOPS.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 122-129 Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Question 5.
What are three benefits of performing data definition language (DDL) statements against a partitioned table with the UPDATE GLOBAL INDEXES clause? (Choose three)
A. Global indexes are rebuilt automatically at the end of the DDL operation thereby avoiding problems with the UNUSABLE status.
B. You do not have to search for invalid global indexes after the DDL command completes and rebuild them individually.
C. Global indexes are maintained during the operation of the DDL command and therefore can be used by any concurrent query.
D. Global indexes remain intact and available for use by data manipulation language (DML) statements even for sessions that have not enabled the skipping of unusable indexes.
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
Oracle9i overcomes the problem of rebuilding the global index by giving you the option to update global indexes as Oracle performs the partition DDL. This feature is not applicable to local indexes, domain indexes, index-organized tables (IOTs), or to indexes that were UNUSABLE prior to start of the partition DML. You can invoke this capability by using the optional clause UPDATE GLOBAL INDEX of the ALTER TABLE command. You can use this clause with the ADD, COALESCE, DROP, EXCHANGE, MERGE, MOVE, SPLIT, and TRUNCATE partition DDL commands.
Incorrect Answers
C: Global indexes are not maintained during the operation of the DDL command. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 130-131
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 102-107
Chapter 4: New Oracle9i Database DDS and Data-Warehouse Features
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes the function of Oracle9i Cache Fusion feature?
A. It provides each session with its own view of the database at a different point in the past.
B. It enables you to execute scalable applications on a clustered database without having to
partition the users or the database tables.
C. It lets you dynamically reassign memory in your database buffer cache to different block buffer
sizes.
D. It allows you to add new sites to multimaster replication environment without quiescing the
master definition site.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Oracle9i Cache Fusion allows you to execute scalable applications on a clustered database without having to partition the users or the database tables.
Incorrect Answers
A: It does not provide each session with its own view of the database at a different point in the past.
C: The Oracle9i Cache Fusion feature does not dynamically reassign memory in your database buffer cache to different block buffer sizes.
D: It does not provide you ability to add new sites to multimaster replication environment without quiescing the master definition site.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 223-230
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 193-206
Chapter 7: Oracle9i Real Application Clusters
Question 7.
What is true if you want to switch undo tablespaces from the current one, called UNDO1, to a new one called UNDO2?
A. It is NOT possible to switch unless no active transaction exist in UNDO1.
B. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; but current active transactions will abort.
C. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; current active transactions will be automatically migrated to
UNDO2.
D. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; only current active transactions will continue to execute
inside UNDO1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can switch undo tablespaces from the current one, called UNDO1, to a new one called UNDO2. Only current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1, all new transactions will be assigned to the new undo tablespace.
Incorrect Answers
A: You can switch undo tablespaces while active transactions will run in the old undo tablespace. All new transactions will be assigned to the new undo tablespace.
B: Current active transactions will abort if you switched undo tablespaces.
C: Current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1 till they commit or roll back. They will not be automatically migrated to UNDO2.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 160-166
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 19-25
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features
Question 8.
Examine the list of variables and their data types:
NAME DATA Type
TS, TS1 TIMESTAMP
TSZ TIMESTAMP WITH TIME ZONE
TLZ TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
IYM INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
IDS, IDSI INTERVAL YEAR To SECOND
Which three expressions using the new data and time data types are valid? (Choose three)
A. IDS* 2
B. TS + IYM
C. TS -TSI
D. IDS - TS
E. IDS + IYM
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
IDS*2, TS+IYM and IDS+IYM are valid new date and time data types.
Incorrect Answers
C: You cannot subtract timestamps.
D: It's not possible to subtract timestamp from the interval day to second.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 266-271
Chapter 5: Language Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 132-135
Chapter 5: Miscellaneous Oracle9i Features and Enhancements
Question 9.
Consider the following statement:
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SHEMA_STATS (-
2> ownname => 'OE', -
3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, -
4> method opt => 'for all columns size AUTO');
What is the effect of 'for all columns size AUTO' of the METHOD_OPT option?
A. The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all
table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
B. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the
application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data and application usage of the column/s
for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data
distribution, for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
Incorrect Answers
A: The Oracle server does not create a new histogram based on existing histogram.
B: Histogram creation is not regardless of how the application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D: The Oracle server creates a histogram not only based on application usage, but based on data distribution also.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 220-222
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 180-181
Chapter 6: Oracle9i SQL, PL/SQL New Features
Question 10.
Which two are true regarding external tables? (Choose two)
A. External tables can be updated.
B. External tables are read-only tables.
C. Indexes can be created on external tables.
D. Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
External tables are read-only tables whose data resides in an external OS flat file, and whose definition is stored inside the database. Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
Incorrect Answers
A: External tables cannot be updated. They are read-only tables.
C: Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 131-134
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 111-116
Chapter 4: New Oracle9i Database DDS and Data-Warehouse Features
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