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Question 1.
Which of the following items are not necessary to be present in the Ac Access Policy?
A. Service
B. Authentication
C. Source address
D. Firewall settings
E. Action (permit, deny, tunnel)
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
A policy permits, denies, or tunnels specified types of traffic unidirectionally between two points. The type of traffic (or “service”), the location of the two endpoints, and the invoked action compose the basic elements of a policy. Although there can be other components, the required elements, which together constitute the core section of a policy, are as follows:
• Direction – The direction of traffic between two security zones (from a source zone to a destination zone)
• Source address – The address from which traffic initiates
• Destination address – The address to which traffic is sent
• Service – The type of traffic transmitted
• Action – The action that the NetScreen device performs when it receives traffic meeting the first four criteria: deny, permit, reject, or tunnel
For example, the policy stated in the following CLI command permits FTP traffic from any address in the Trust zone to an FTP server named “server1” in the DMZ zone: set policy from trust to untrust any server1 ftp permit
• Direction: from trust to untrust (that is, from the Trust zone to the Untrust zone)
• Source Address: any (that is, any address in the Trust zone. The term “any” stands for a predefined address that applies to any address in a zone)
• Destination Address: server1 (a user-defined address in the Untrust zone address book)
• Service: ftp (File Transfer Protocol)
• Action: permit (that NetScreen device permits this traffic to traverse its firewall)
Question 2.
Which of the following are not advanced policy configuration options? (Choose Three)
A. Schedule
B. Service group
C. Authentication
D. Source address
E. Action (permit, deny, tunnel)
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
Schedule
A schedule is a configurable object that you can associate with one or more policies to define when they are in effect. Through the application of schedules, you can control network traffic flow and enforce network security.
The schedule option can be found under the advanced policy section. When you define a schedule, enter values for the following parameters:
Schedule Name:
The name that appears in the Schedule drop-down list in the Policy Configuration dialog box. Choose a descriptive name to help you identify the schedule. The name must be unique and is limited to 19 characters.
Comment: Any additional information that you want to add.
Recurring: Enable this when you want the schedule to repeat on a weekly basis.
Start and End Times: You must configure both a start time and an end time. You can specify up to two time periods within the same day.
Once: Enable this when you want the schedule to start and end only once.
mm/dd/yyyy hh:mm: You must enter both start and stop dates and times.
Service Group Services are objects that identify application protocols using layer 4 information such as standard and accepted TCP and UDP port numbers for application services like Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and HTTP. The ScreenOS includes predefined core Internet services. Additionally, you can define custom services.
You can define policies that specify which services are permitted, denied, encrypted, authenticated, logged, or counted.
Authentication
Selecting this option requires the auth user at the source address to authenticate his/her identity by supplying a user name and password before traffic is allowed to traverse the firewall or enter the VPN tunnel. The NetScreen device can use the local database or an external RADIUS, SecurID, or LDAP auth server to perform the authentication check. The authentication options can be found under the advanced policy section. Net Screen provides two authentication schemes:
• Run-time authentication, in which the NetScreen device prompts an auth user to log on when it receives HTTP, FTP or Telnet traffic matching a policy that has authentication enabled
• WebAuth, in which a user must authenticate himself or herself before sending traffic through the Net Screen device
Source Address
You can apply source address translation (NAT-src) at the policy level. With NAT-src, you can translate the source address on either incoming or outgoing network and VPN traffic. The new source address can come from either a dynamic IP (DIP) pool or the egress interface. NAT-src also supports source port address translation (PAT).
Action
An action is an object that describes what the firewall does to the traffic it receives.
• Deny blocks the packet from traversing the firewall.
• Permit allows the packet to pass the firewall.
• Reject blocks the packet from traversing the firewall. The NetScreen device drops the packet and sends a TCP reset (RST) segment to the source host for TCP traffic3 and an ICMP “destination unreachable, port unreachable” message (type 3, code 3) for UDP traffic. For types of traffic other than TCP and UDP, the NetScreen device drops the packet without notifying the source host, which is also what occurs when the action is “deny”.
• Tunnel encapsulates outgoing IP packets and decapsulates incoming IP packets. For an IPSec VPN tunnel, specify which VPN tunnel to use. For an L2TP tunnel, specify which L2TP tunnel to use. For L2TP-over-IPSec, specify both an IPSec VPN tunnel and an L2TP tunnel4.
The NetScreen device applies the specified action on traffic that matches the previously presented criteria: zones (source and destination), addresses (source and destination), and service.
Question 3.
Which of the following two commands can not be properly used to verify that routing is correctly configured?
A. ping
B. get route
C. trace-route
D. get arp
E. get interface
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
Ping
Use the ping command to check the network connection to another system.
Get Route
The get route command displays:
• The IP address, netmask, interface, gateway, protocol, preference, metric, and owner vsys
• The protocol value can be any of the following:
– C (Connected)
– S (Static)
– A (Auto Exported)
– I (Imported; that is, route imported from another virtual router)
– iB (internal BGP)
– eB (external BGP)
– O (OSPF)
– E1 (OSPF external type 1)
– E2 (OSPF external type 2)
Use the get route command to see if the NetScreen device has a route to the IP address on the correct interface.
Trace-route
Use the trace-route command to display the route to a host.
Get arp
Use the arp commands to create, remove, or list interface entries in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table of the NetScreen device.
Get Interface
Use the interface commands to define or display interface settings for a NetScreen device.
• Name: This field identifies the name of the interface.
• IP/Netmask: This field identifies the IP address and netmask address of the interface.
• Zone: This field identifies the zone to which the interface is bound.
• Type: This field indicates if the interface type: Layer 2, Layer 3, tunnel, redundant, aggregate, VSI.
• Link: This field identifies whether the interface is active (Up) or inactive (Down).
• Configure: This field allows you modify or remove interfaces.
Question 4.
If the inbound interface is configured for NAT mode, which two (2) will be not be affected by the Net Screen when traffic travels from the Trust zone to the Untrust zone?
A. Source IP
B. Source Port
C. Destination IP
D. Destination Port
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
When an ingress interface is in Network Address Translation (NAT) mode, the NetScreen device, acting like a Layer 3 switch (or router), translates two components in the header of an outgoing IP packet destined for the Untrust zone: its source IP address and source port number. The NetScreen device replaces the source IP address of the originating host with the IP address of the Untrust zone interface. Also, it replaces the source port number with another random port number generated by the NetScreen device.
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Question 1.
You need to implement QoS for the ITCertKeys VOIP network.
Which three statements are true about the data traffic characteristics of voice traffic? (Select three)
A. Voice packets require TCP for rapid retransmission of dropped packets.
B. Latency is not a concern as long as jitter is kept below 30 ms.
C. Voice packets require a fairly constant bandwidth reserved for voice control traffic as well as
for the voice payload.
D. Voice packets do not require a specific type of queuing.
E. Latency must be kept below 150 ms.
F. Voice packets are rather small
Answer: C, E, F
Explanation:
QoS refers to the ability of a network to provide improved service to selected network traffic over various underlying technologies including Frame Relay, ATM, Ethernet and 802.3 networks, SONET, and IP-routed networks.
QoS features provide improved and more predictable network service by offering the following services:
1. Dedicated bandwidth
2. Improved loss characteristics
3. Congestion management and avoidance
4. Traffic shaping
5. Prioritization of traffic
Voice quality is directly affected by all three QoS quality factors such as loss, delay, and delay variation.
Loss causes voice clipping and skips. Industry standard codec algorithms can correct for up to 30 ms of lost voice. Cisco Voice over IP (VoIP) technology uses 20 ms samples of voice payload per VoIP packet. Only a single Real Time Transport (RTP) packet could be lost at any given time. If two successive voice packets are lost, the 30 ms correctable window is exceeded and voice quality begins to degrade. Delay can cause voice quality degradation if it is above 200 ms. If the end-to-end voice delay becomes too long, the conversation sounds as if two parties are talking over a satellite link or a CB radio. The ITU standard for VoIP, G.114, states that a 150 ms one-way delay budget is acceptable for high voice quality. With respect to delay variation, there are adaptive jitter buffers within IP Telephony devices. These buffers can usually compensate for 20 to 50 ms of jitter.
Question 2.
ITCertKeys uses G.711 for the VOIP calls. When analog signals are digitized using the G.711 codec, voice samples are encapsulated into protocol data units (PDUs) involving which three headers? (Select three)
A. UDP
B. RTP
C. IP
D. TCP
E. Compressed RTP
F. H.323
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
When a VoIP device, such as a gateway, sends voice over an IP network, the digitized voice has to be encapsulated into an IP packet. Voice transmission requires features not provided by the IP protocol header; therefore, additional transport protocols have to be used. Transport protocols that include features required for voice transmission are TCP, UDP, and RTP. VoIP utilizes a combination of UDP and RTP.
Question 3.
VOIP has been rolled out to every ITCertKeys location.
What are three features and functions of voice (VOIP) traffic on a network? (Select three)
A. Voice traffic is bursty
B. Voice traffic is retransmittable
C. Voice traffic is time-sensitive
D. Voice traffic is bandwidth intensive
E. Voice traffic is constant
F. Voice traffic uses small packet sizes
Answer: C, E, F
Explanation:
The benefits of packet telephony networks include
i. More efficient use of bandwidth and equipment: Traditional telephony networks use a 64-kbps channel for every voice call. Packet telephony shares bandwidth among multiple logical connections.
ii. Lower transmission costs: A substantial amount of equipment is needed to combine 64-kbps channels into high-speed links for transport across the network. Packet telephony statistically multiplexes voice traffic alongside data traffic. This consolidation provides substantial savings on capital equipment and operations costs.
iii. Consolidated network expenses: Instead of operating separate networks for voice and data, voice networks are converted to use the packet-switched architecture to create a single integrated communications network with a common switching and transmission system. The benefit is significant cost savings on network equipment and operations.
iv. Improved employee productivity through features provided by IP telephony: IP phones are not only phones, they are complete business communication devices. They offer directory lookups and access to databases through Extensible Markup Language (XML) applications. These applications allow simple integration of telephony into any business application. For instance, employees can use the phone to look up information about a customer who called in, search for inventory information, and enter orders. The employee can be notified of a issue (for example, a change of the shipment date), and with a single click can call the customer about the change. In addition, software-based phones or wireless phones offer mobility to the phone user.
Question 4.
ITCertKeys is rolling out an H.323 VOIP network using Cisco devices.
Which IOS feature provides dial plan scalability and bandwidth management for H.323 VoIP implementations?
A. Digital Signal Processors
B. Call Routing
C. Gatekeeper
D. Call Admission Control
E. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Enterprise voice implementations use components such as gateways, gatekeepers, Cisco Unified CallManager, and IP phones. Cisco Unified CallManager offers PBX-like features to IP phones. Gateways interconnect traditional telephony systems, such as analog or digital phones, PBXs, or the public switched telephone network (PSTN) to the IP telephony solution. Gatekeepers can be used for scalability of dial plans and for bandwidth management when using the H.323 protocol.
Question 5.
A Cisco router is being used as a VOIP gateway to convert voice signals in the ITCertKeys network.
What steps are taken when a router converts a voice signal from analog to digital form? (Select two)
A. Quantization
B. Serialization
C. Packetization
D. Sampling
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Step 1 Sampling: The analog signal is sampled periodically. The output of the sampling is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.
Step 2 Quantization: The PAM signal is matched to a segmented scale. This scale measures the amplitude (height) of the PAM signal.
Step 3 Encoding: The matched scale value is represented in binary format.
Step 4 Compression: Optionally, voice samples can be compressed to reduce bandwidth requirements. Analog-to-digital conversion is done by digital signal processors (DSPs), which are located on the voice interface cards. The conversion is needed for calls received on analog lines, which are then sent out to a packet network or to a digital voice interface.
Question 6.
You need to implement the proper IOS tools to ensure that VOIP works over the ITCertKeys network.
Which queuing and compression mechanisms are needed to effectively use the available bandwidth for voice traffic? (Select two)
A. Priority Queuing (PQ) or Custom Queuing (CQ)
B. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. Low Latency Queuing (LLQ)
D. Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)
E. TCP header compression
F. UDP header compression
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
1. Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion.
CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight. By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
2. TCP/IP header compression subscribes to the Van Jacobson Algorithm defined in RFC 1144. TCP/IP header compression lowers the overhead generated by the disproportionately large TCP/IP headers as they are transmitted across the WAN. TCP/IP header compression is protocol-specific and only compresses the TCP/IP header. The Layer 2 header is still intact and a packet with a compressed TCP/IP header can still travel across a WAN link. TCP/IP header compression is beneficial on small packets with few bytes of data such as Telnet. Cisco's header compression supports Frame Relay and dial-on-demand WAN link protocols. Because of processing overhead, header compression is generally used at lower speeds, such as 64 kbps links.
Question 7.
You want to ensure the highest call quality possible for all VOIP calls in the ITCertKeys network.
Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?
A. G.711, PCM
B. G.729, CS-ACELP
C. G.729A, CS-ACELP
D. G.728, LDCELP
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a call is placed between two phones, the call setup stage occurs first. As a result of this process, the call is logically set up, but no dedicated circuits (lines) are associated with the call. The gateway then converts the received analog signals into digital format using a codec, such as G.711 or G.729 if voice compression is being used. When analog signals are digitized using the G.711 codec, 20 ms of voice consists of 160 samples, 8 bits each. The result is 160 bytes of voice information. These G.711 samples (160 bytes) are encapsulated into an RTP header (12 bytes), a UDP header (8 bytes), and an IP header (20 bytes). Therefore, the whole IP packet carrying UDP, RTP, and the voice payload has a size of 200 bytes. When G.711 is being used, the ratio of header to payload is smaller because of the larger voice payload. Forty bytes of headers are added to 160 bytes of payload, so one-fourth of the G.711 codec bandwidth (64 kbps) has to be added. Without Layer 2 overhead, a G.711 call requires 80 kbps.
Question 8.
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs four separate steps.
From the options shown below, which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding
quantization
optional compression
sampling
B. optional compression
encoding
sampling
quantization
C. sampling
quantization
encoding
optional compression
D. optional compression
sampling
encoding
quantization
E. sampling
quantization
optional compression
encoding
F. encoding
optional compression
quantization
sampling
G. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step 1 Sampling: The analog signal is sampled periodically. The output of the sampling is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.
Step 2 Quantization: The PAM signal is matched to a segmented scale. This scale measures the amplitude (height) of the PAM signal.
Step 3 Encoding: The matched scale value is represented in binary format.
Step 4 Compression:
Optionally, voice samples can be compressed to reduce bandwidth requirements. Analog-to-digital conversion is done by digital signal processors (DSPs), which are located on the voice interface cards. The conversion is needed for calls received on analog lines, which are then sent out to a packet network or to a digital voice interface.
Question 9.
ITCertKeys has determined that during its busiest hours, the average number of internal VoIP calls across the WAN link is four (4). Since this is an average, the WAN link has been sized for six (6) calls with no call admission control.
What will happen when a seventh call is attempted across the WAN link?
A. The seventh call is routed via the PSTN.
B. The call is completed, but all calls have quality issues.
C. The call is completed but the seventh call has quality issues.
D. The call is denied and the original six (6) calls remain.
E. The call is completed and the first call is dropped.
F. None of the above.
Answer: B
Explanation:
IP telephony solutions offer Call Admission Control (CAC), a feature that artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls to prevent oversubscription of WAN resources. Without CAC, if too many calls are active and too much voice traffic is sent, delays and packet drops occur. Even giving Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets absolute priority over all other traffic does not help when the physical bandwidth is not sufficient to carry all voice packets. Quality of service (QoS) mechanisms do not associate individual RTP packets with individual calls; therefore, all RTP packets are treated equally. All RTP packets will experience delays, and any RTP packets may be dropped. The effect of this behavior is that all voice calls experience voice quality degradation when oversubscription occurs. It is a common misconception that only calls that are beyond the bandwidth limit will suffer from quality degradation. CAC is the only method that prevents general voice quality degradation caused by too many concurrent active calls.
Question 10.
While planning the new ITCertKeys VOIP network, you need to determine the size of the WAN links to use. To do this, you need to calculate the bandwidth required by each call.
Which three pieces of information are used to calculate the total bandwidth of a VoIP call? (Select three)
A. The serialization of the interface
B. The quantization
C. The TCP overhead
D. The packetization size
E. The UDP overhead
F. The packet rate
Answer: D, E, F
Explanation:
Packet rate: Packet rate specifies the number of packets sent in a certain time interval. The packet rate is usually specified in packets per second (pps). Packet rate is the multiplicative inverse of the packetization period. The packetization period is the amount of voice (time) that will be encapsulated per packet, and is usually specified in milliseconds.
Packetization size: Packetization size specifies the number of bytes that are needed to represent the voice information that will be encapsulated per packet. Packetization size depends on the packetization period and the bandwidth of the codec used.
IP overhead: IP overhead specifies the number of bytes added to the voice information during IP encapsulation. When voice is encapsulated into Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and IP, the IP overhead is the sum of all these headers.
Data link overhead: Data-link overhead specifies the number of bytes added during data-link encapsulation. The data-link overhead depends on the used data-link protocol, which can be different per link.
Tunneling overhead: Tunneling overhead specifies the number of bytes added by any security or tunneling protocol, such as 802.1Q tunneling, IPsec, Generic Route Encapsulation (GRE), or Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS). This overhead must be considered on all links between the tunnel source and the tunnel destination.
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Question 1. Which port is indicated on the right Secondary Codec for the CTS-3210? A. Right Display B. Right Camera C. Center Display D. Left Display Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which port do you conned to on the Primary Codec in order to establish an Ethernet connection between your laptop and the Cisco TelePresence 3000 equipment? A. Video port B. Network port C. IP Phone port D. Secondary Camera port Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which size and type of tool is required to loosen the screws that allow rotational adjustment of the CTS-3010 cameras? A. #1 Phillips screwdriver B. 5.0 mm Allen wrench C. #3 Phillips screwdriver D. 3.0 mm Allen wrench Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which four functions does Cisco TelePresence rely on Cisco Unified Communications Manager for? (Choose four) A. Configurations B. Software upgrades C. Management D. Call processing E. Scheduling meetings F. Microphone calibration Answer: A, C, D, E Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following components are included on the Cisco TelePresence 3210? (Choose three.) A. One boardroom-style table with a second row B. One boardroom-style table C. One 40" external display D. Nine table microphones E. Four LED light fixtures Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Question 6. DRAG DROP Answer: Explanation: Layer 2 Datalink – ARP Layer 3 – Network – IP Layer4 – Transport – TCP Layer7 – Application - Email Question 7. Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TelePresence Manager? (Choose three) A. Bulk software upgrades of endpoints B. Calendaring integration and management C. One-Button-to-Push meeting access D. Allow for content sharing E. Concierge services Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Question 8. Which two hardware components are optional for the Cisco TelePresence 1000? (Choose two) A. One Cisco Unified IP Phone 7975G B. One external display C. One high-definition camera D. One Auxiliary Control Unit Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 9. Which port is indicated on the Auxiliary Control Unit for the CTS-1100 and 1300? A. Auxiliary Collaboration Display B. Serial Control for Projector C. Lights D. Serial Control for Dimmer Box Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. DRAG DROP Answer: Explanation: CTS-500 – 1-2 participants in a home/executive office CTS-1100 – 2 participants in multipurpose room CTS-1300 – 6 participants in multipurpose room CTS-3010 – 6 participants in dedicated telepresence room CTS-3210 – up to 10 participants in dedicated telepresence room
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Question 1.
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not no
secure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to
which the client is associated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
E. 150
F. 300
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Urgent
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 5.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers.
Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires CCXv5
D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
E. requires CCXv4
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2.
E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 8.
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 11.
Lightweight access points send control traffic to which device(s)?
A. Other access points.
B. The Wireless Control System.
C. The Wireless Controller.
D. Lightweight access points don't send control traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Question 1. Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic? A. AUX B. Gigabit Ethernet C. Fast Ethernet D. Channelized serial Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two) A. Encapsulation type B. Interface status C. Layer 2 address D. Layer 3 address E. Keep alive Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 3. The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two) A. Pins 1 and 4 B. Pins 1 and 7 C. Pins 2 and 5 D. Pins 2 and 8 E. Pins 1 and 5 F. Pins 2 and 7 Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 4. What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two) A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and 'Ink OK B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad C. Start > All Programs > Notepad D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain. C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID Answer: A, B, E Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is a DTE device? A. router B. CSU/DSU C. cable modem D. DSL modem Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two) A. It is a repeater. B. It is a data link layer device. C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host. D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port. E. It acts as an amplifier. Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router? A. Crossover B. Straight-through C. Fiber D. Rollover Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cable us used on the ATM card? A. Fiber-optic BNC B. Coaxial C. Serial D. Crossover Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.) A. a single strand of glass fiber B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber C. cost is less than multimode fiber D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber Answer: A, B Explanation:
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 2.
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 5.
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long.
Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
source: http://www.freeopenbook.com/upgrading-repairingnetworks/
ch04lev1sec4.html
Question 6.
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media
gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
reason: The question is saying that the service is not working for certain calls which means that ip connectivity might be fine and the fail over is also working.. Similarly, if sip version are not compatible there would be a problem with all calls. So trunks problem might be the answer
Question 7.
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are
Informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any
NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally
defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are
standards-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3184632
Question 9.
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL®
D. NEBS
E. eTOM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
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Question 1. A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection? A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Watermarking D. Checksumming Answer: B Question 2. What key roles are performed by the Project Manager? A. Manage goals, company expectations, staffing and equipment needs, and costs B. Secure funding, write proposals, and manage departmental priorities C. Manage and maintain image quality control and production goals D. Manage and ensure that the imaging process is documented and that costs are contained Answer: A Question 3. A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned? A. Tracking capability B. Records management C. Scan-to-folder D. Error handling Answer: A Question 4. A customers current document security model provides access to paper documents based upon job definition. Employees change jobs periodically based upon skills and business needs. An electronic system would need to implement: A. role-based security. B. user privilege sets. C. modifiable document classification models. D. user group security. Answer: A Question 5. What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner? A. Resolution, compression, and memory B. Workflow, ease of use, and productivity C. Documents, images, and storage medium D. Interface, resolution, and paper handling Answer: D Question 6. A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process? A. The customer has a formal records storage management process. B. The customer has an informal records management process. C. The customer has a document capture process. D. The customer does not have a records management process. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following would be the BEST way to obtain customer commitment for a document imaging project? A. A series of white papers on the solution B. Executive briefing with only senior management C. Onsite demonstration with customers documents D. Onsite demonstration with the consultants prepared documents Answer: C Question 8. Currently, corporate headquarters maintains a central document repository with a Records Manager that maintains custody of these confidential documents. There are 18 branch locations connected via intranet with six new additional locations opening within the year. If a branch office needs confidential documents, an e-mail request is sent to the Records Manager who will then fax or overnight the documents to the branch locations. What would be the impact of implementing a web-based solution for end-users? A. It would require extensive training on use and operation. B. End-user productivity would dramatically increase. C. The new system would be slower to receive desired information than the current system. D. Most end-user computers would need to be upgraded to support a web-based solution. Answer: B Question 9. A customer is printing large TIFF images. The method with the LEAST impact on network load is to decompress the image at the: A. printer. B. jukebox. C. client workstation. D. network server. Answer: A Question 10. In order to allow for the encrypted access of documents over the web, the web server should support: A. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). C. FTP. D. XML. Answer: B Question 11. The scanned file size of an A4 (8.3 inches x 11.7 inches or 210 mm x 279 mm) page with a 200 dpi (8 dots per mm) resolution and a bit depth of one using TIFF Group 4 compression is approximately: A. 50 KB. B. 100 KB. C. 75 KB. D. 25 KB. Answer: D
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Question 1. Which of these are symptoms of malware on a computer? (Select TWO). A. Hard drive and network activity is higher when the computer is idle B. CD-ROM ejects unexpectedly from the computer C. Web browser accesses unexpected websites D. Prints from the computer have random characters and symbols instead of text E. The monitor has a permanent image burned into the display Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following commands will map a shared network drive? A. SFC B. NSLOOKUP C. NET USE D. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. A technician wants to copy the entire documents and settings folder and subfolders to a new computer. Which of the following commands should the technician use? A. EDIT B. XCOPY C. COPY/A D. MOVE Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. A laptop reports the following RAM configuration. Assuming RAM is the same price per Mb, which of the following would be the least expensrve upgrade to the laptop to give it 12GB of RAM? Memory 3lots 2 DRAM Frequency 661.0 MHz Memory Timings 9-9-9-24 (CL-RCD-RP-RA3) Device Locator Slot 1 Capacity 4096 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No Device Locator Slot 2 Capacity 2048 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No A. Two 6Gb DDR3 PC 10700 RAM modules B. One 10Gb DDR3 PC10700 RAM module C. One 8Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module D. One 6Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A SOHO user has just installed a new wireless router on the network. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the user should do to secure the router from unauthorized use? A. Change the default administrator name and password B. Update the firmware in all of the client computers C. Setup MAC filtering to limit the devices that can connect D. Determine the DHCP range and any static exclusions Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to move a user' s documents and file settings, when upgrading the user from a Windows Vista computer to a Windows 7 computer? A. Easy Transfer B. Backup and Restore C. XCOPY D. System Restore Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. User profiles in Windows 7 are stored in which of the following locations? A. C:\UserProfiles B. C:\DocumentsandSettings\UserProfiles C. C:\Documents and Settings D. C:\Users Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. After a video card upgrade nothing is displayed on the LCD screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The new video card has to be first installed using the Services MMC. B. The onboard video of the motherboard is still enabled in the BIOS. C. New video cards require new monitors as their resolutions do not match D. The new video card has to be enabled by a DIP switch on the motherboard. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following multimeter settings should only be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested? (Select TWO). A. Ampere B. Continuity C. volt D. Resistance E. Wattage Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following commands would be used to map a network drive? A. MD B. SFC C. IPCONFIG D. NET Answer: D Explanation: Question 11. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when replacing a motherboard? A. Use a benchmarking tool B. Use anti-state wrist band C. Remove the CPU D. Remove the power supply Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and Trojans? A. Spam Blocker B. Antivirus C. Anti Spyware D. Anti Adware Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to trouble shoot the issue? A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory. B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output. C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer. D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email? A. SFTP B. FTP C. SMTP D. POP3 Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader? A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults? A. Anti-static wrist straps B. Compressed air C. Anti-static wipes D. Operating system rescue disk Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when installing RAM? A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post C. Wearing a grounded wristband D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD? A. Celeron B. Athlon C. Pentium D. Core 2 Quad Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem? A. Format the external USB hare drive. B. Turn off the external monitor C. Disconnect the external monitor D. Remove and reset the laptop battery Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers? A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website B. The manufacturer’s website C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the following is problem? A. The technician is not in administrator mode. B. System restore is turned off. C. System 32 folder has been removed. D. System restore is not supported on the OS version. Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1.
Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A. print HTML>>;
B. print ;
C. print ("HTML">;
D. print ("HTML">;
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which method is not effective for protecting server scripts?
A. Assigning the cgi-bin directory read-only permissions.
B. Running the Web server under a user account with few permissions.
C. Using CGI wrapper scripts.
D. Saving scripts with only .exe, .cgi or .pl extensions.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which one of the following lists of special characters denotes a space character in pattern matching?
A. \r \t \W \D
B. \r \t \n \f
C. \^ . * +
D. \s \D \W \f
Answer: B
Question 5.
List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A. The compiler
B. The debugger
C. The interpreter
D. The environment
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which choice best demonstrates how to add a name-value pair to form data?
A. $object = append( name=>"state", value=>"New York");
B. $object = add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
C. $object-> append( -name=> "state", -value=>"New York");
D. 4object ==> add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
Answer: C
Question 7.
The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A. The access permissions.
B. The inode number.
C. The file's owner.
D. How the file is opened.
Answer: D
Question 8.
The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A. GET or POST data.
3
B. Load external variables.
C. Read large amounts of text into the script.
D. Access environment variables.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given $_ = "alphabetais", consider the following substitution:
s/a+.*/greektome/gi;
What is the new value of $_ after this substitution?
A. isgreektome
B. ISGREEKTOME
C. greektome
D. alphabetais
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
D. DELETE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue' FROM MyDatabase
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which one of the following statements will open the file /home/myfile and append data?
A. open (INPUT "/home/myfile");
B. open (INPUT, ">>/home/myfile");
C. open (OUTPUT, ">/home/myfile");
D. open (OUTPUT "/home/myfile");
Answer: B
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