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Question 1.
Joyce wants to promote her online business, www.AdoptAPet.com. What methods of online promotions are commonly used? (Choose four):
A. Givaways and sweepstakes
B. Banner ads and banner exchange
C. Spam, targeted email and opt-in email.
D. Search engine placement
E. Referrer sites
Answer: B, C, D, E
Explanation:
Givaways and sweepstakes are not as common as the other online promotion methods.
Question 2.
Jill wants to advertise her _________ Website on a ________ Website such as Yahoo. Fill in the blanks.
A. Publisher, marketer
B. Marketer, publisher
C. Marketer, marketer
D. Publisher, publisher
Answer: B
Explanation:
Publisher Websites make most of their money selling ad space. Marketer Websites make most of their money selling products or services.
Question 3.
George wants to know what are characteristics of a Publisher site. You say: (Choose 3):
A. Banner ads that lead away from the site
B. Few if any links that lead away from the site
C. A higher ratio of content to advertising
D. The primary goal is to sell something
E. A multitude of short marketing messages
Answer: A, C, E.
Question 4.
If you don't care if users come to your site and then quickly leave your site, without buying anything, for another site advertised on your site, then you are running a ________________.
A. Loss-leader site
B. Publisher site
C. Distributer site
D. Subscriber site
E. marketer site
Answer: B
Explanation:
A publisher website's primary focus is selling ad space.
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Question 1.
Which ProLiant Essential add-on pack can perform an unattended install of VMWare ESX 3.0?
A. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
B. Remote Deployment Utility (RDU)
C. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: A
Question 2.
For which ProLiant server series does IPMI serve as the management interface?
A. DL100
B. DL300
C. DL500
D. DL700
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is a characteristic of the shared-nothing cluster model, like the one used for the Windows 2003 failover cluster?
A. shared-cache
B. shared-memory
C. shared-disk
D. shared-everything
Answer: C
Question 4.
After resolving a problem at a customer site, you plan to provide a report to the customer. Your report will include details about the root cause of the problem and what the documented fix or fixes were.
What else should you provide as part of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select two.)
A. recommendations of preventive measures to take
B. the root cause of the problem and the person or group that should be held responsible for
causing it
C. recommendations of upgrades that would increase system performance
D. a current copy ofSmartStart
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
You want to determine if the battery on the array accelerator board has failed.
Which offline tool run from the SmartStart CD shows if the battery is in an error state?
A. RBSU
B. ORCA
C. OARS
D. ADU
Answer: D
Question 6.
What does the HP Subscriber's Choice service provide?
A. an optional driver delivery site for a single server, much like Windows Update
B. proactive notification of critical updates and product changes forProLiant servers
C. New Product Introduction (NPI) and notification services
D. a host site for the Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from which to acquire drivers
andProLiant Support Packs (PSPs)
Answer: C
Question 7.
Where is Selective Storage Presentation configured for MSA iSCSI and fiber storage arrays?
A. RBSU
B. ACU
C. ORCA
D. SmartStart
Answer: B
Question 8.
The blue light on an HP ProLiant server is flashing. What does this indicate?
A. The server is being remotely managed throughiLO.
B. The server has sustained a failure in a redundant component
C. The server has recently sustained a thermal shutdown.
D. The server is in an ASR state.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which filesystem does VMWare ESX Server use to contain its virtual machines?
A. NTFS
B. VMFS
C. VMS
D. VMDK
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the primary value proposition of the HP ProLiant ML Server family?
A. most supported processor sockets
B. faster adoption of newer technologies as they become available
C. extra redundancy usually found in Integrity class servers
D. largest internal storage option
Answer: D
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Question 1.
A report output file gets generated when you run "Validate APPS schema" by using the adadmin utility in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite environment. If the report shows something similar to "GL_CODE_COMBINATIONS table does not exist or is an invalid object", what is the first step that the database administrator (DBA) should take to correct this issue?
A. Run the AD Relink utility and relink the GL product.
B. Use License Manager, and register the GL product.
C. Run the "Recreate grants and synonyms for APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
D. Run Autopatch, and apply GL latest available patch.
E. Run Rapid Install to reinstall the database components.
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which three cases is it most effective to run validation on the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite setup? (Choose three.)
A. before performing an export/import
B. immediately after an upgrade or applying a maintenance pack
C. after converting to multiple organizations or multiple reporting currencies
D. after a patch or multiple patches are applied
E. whenever you receive a run-time error that suggests that a problem is caused by the AD_DDL
package
Answer: B, D, E
Question 3.
Which four statements correctly describe a schema? (Choose four.)
A. There is no one-to-one relationship between schemas and users in a database.
B. the concept of a database schema is directly tied to the concept of a database user, or a grant
from the schema owner
C. The database user and the schema never have the same name.
D. A schema can allow another schema to use its objects by granting access.
E. An Oracle Application products database objects are divided between the product schema and
the APPS schema.
F. A schema is a named collection of database objects.
Answer: B, D, E, F
Question 4.
You have just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applications are now experiencing problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form. You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix the problem.
You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)
2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)
4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)
5. Enter list if products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)
6. Generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)
7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)
8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmx
The utility finished with no errors in the log file.
What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors
B. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors
C. all forms in the product group fnd now render with errors
D. all forms in the product group fnd now render without errors
Answer: A
Question 5.
Where can you find the Oracle 8.0.6 and iAS files in the Oracle Applications 11i file system?
A. DB
B. ORA
C. COMN
D. FND_TOP
E. APPL_TOP
Answer: B
Question 6.
You needed to apply patches to the production environment. Applying the patches on the Test environment was successful. When you applied the patches to the Production environment, the patches finished without any errors during the process. However, patch changes were not applied and the patch histories were not changed.
What could be the cause of this situation?
A. The patch was applied in pre-Install mode.
B. The patch was applied inNormal mode.
C. The AutoPatch version is incorrect.
D. The Production database is down.
E. The patch was applied in Test mode.
F. The table for the patch history is full.
Answer: E
Question 7.
What is contained in the FND_APPLICATION_TL table found in the Oracle Applications 11i database?
A. trigger logic for all the Application Object Library (AOL) related tables
B. transaction-load statistics of Application Object Library usage
C. table list of all the Oracle Application Object Library (AOL) objects
D. language translated information about all the applications registered with Application Object
Library
Answer: D
Question 8.
You suddenly start receiving errors indicating that there are numerous Java files in the database that are corrupted and cannot be run. You have determined that you have to reload the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) to fix the errors.
In addition to reloading the JVM, what Oracle database utilities, if any, do you need to run and why? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Reload JAR files to the database, because after reloading the JVM, the Java class files would
be missing.
B. Compile the Menu information, to restore Java menu files to the application forms.
C. Compile the APPS schema, because after the JVM has been reloaded, APPS permissions
need to be reestablished.
D. None of the Oracle database utilities need to be run, because by reloading the JVM, all the
Java file corruption is corrected with the new files loaded during this process.
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is true about Rapid Install?
A. Along with creating Oracle homes, Rapid Install generates new configuration files by using
Autoconfig.
B. Rapid Install can be used to install only the new technology-stack components.
C. Rapid Install can be used to install a new database tier.
D. For an upgrade, Rapid Install installs Oracle 9i RDBMS Oracle home without a database.
E. Rapid Install can be used to set up the file system and configure server processes for an
upgraded system.
F. Rapid Install can be used only for a new installation of Oracle Applications.
Answer: F
Question 10.
In your Oracle Applications 11i EBS implementation, the database is corrupt and to resolve it the database Java Virtual Machine (JVM) was reloaded. Identify the type of problem that may occur and the related correct solution.
A. Problem: Many invalid objects are found in the APPS schema.
Solution: Run the "Validate APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
B. Problem: The Application window does not show any of the Accounts Receivables data.
Solution: Use the "Compile/Reload Applications Database Entities" option from the adadmin
utility.
C. Problem: The Application screen display does not come up with one of the installed language
characters.
Solution: Run the "Convert Character set" task by using the adadmin utility.
D. Problem: All Oracle Applications Java classes are missing.
Solution: Run the "Reload JAR files to the DB" task by using the adadmin utility.
Answer: D
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Question 1. The Oracle Workflow engine is _______________. A. Embedded only in Oracle 11i Applications database B. Embedded in any Oracle Database C. Embedded in any Oracle Application Server D. Embedded only in Oracle 11i Applications Servers Answer: B Question 2. Under which four conditions can you create transitions, if the source activity in a workflow diagram has an associated result type? (Choose Four.) A. When the activity does not return a result, labeled asB. When the activity times out, labeled as C. When the activity run simultaneously with 1 or other activities, labeled as D. When a result returned is not covered by other transitions, labeled with the result display name E. Regardless of the result returned, labeled as Answer: B, C, D, E Question 3. Which profile option allows user to delegate, transfer and reassign modes? A. WF: Notification Transfer, Delegate and Reassing Mode B. WF: Notification Delegate Mode C. WF: Notification Transfer Mode D. WF: Notification Reassing Mode E. WF: Notification Mode Answer: D Question 4. Which subscription property defines the order in which multiple subscription to the same business event are executed? A. Status B. Phase C. Customization Level D. Rule Datbase Answer: B Question 5. Which two methods can you use to transfer workflow definitions to a stand-alone Oracle Workflow database? (Choose two.) A. Workflow Builder B. FNDLOAD C. Workflow Definition Loader Concurrent Request D. wfload Answer: A, D Question 6. The access Level 0-9 is reserved for ____________. A. Customer Organizations B. Oracle Application Object Library C. Public D. Oracle Workflow E. Oracle E-business Suite Answer: D Question 7. When the Workflow Engine raises a send event, a series of agents is called in a sequence until the response is processed. What is the correct sequences? A. WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_NOTIFICATION_IN B. WF_NOTIFICATION_IN>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_DEFERRED C. WF_NOTIFICATION_IN>WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT D. WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_IN E. WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_NOTIFICATION-IN>WF_DEFERRED Answer: A Question 8. Which two options describe how role could be referenced in a workflow process? (Choose two.) A. Designate a performer to an item type attribute that returns a role name B. Assign a role to notification activity and do not include it in the workflow process as a node C. Create a role lookup type and assign it to a notification activity D. Directly designate a role to a perform Answer: A, D Question 9. In programming your procedures, you need to communicate state changes to the Workflow Engine. Which three WF_ENGINE API's can you to do that? (Choose three.) A. WF_ENGINE.TransmitWarning B. WF_ENGINE.TransmitError C. WF_ENGINE.BeginActivity D. WF_ENGINE.CompleteActivity E. WF_ENGINE.AbortProcess Answer: C, D, E Question 10. What are the similarities between the item type attribute and the function activity attribute in a workflow process? (Choose all that apply.) A. Both can be written at run time B. Both can be read at run time C. The internal name of an attribute cannot contain ';' (colon) D. Both are global to process Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Which four statements describe the role of Back-to-Back Orders? (Choose Four.)
A. Links sales orders and purchase orders
B. Flow of reservation supply from requisition to PO to inventory
C. Auto Creates requisitions
D. Supplier ships directly to customer
E. Pegs supply to demand
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 2.
Which two statements are true about freight and special charges modifiers? (Choose two.)
A. All freight and special charges are passed to receivables for invoicing
B. Using freight and special charges modifiers, you can apply different freight
C. Freight and special charges can't be manually overridden
D. Only shipping execution can capture freight costs and apply charges
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
James wants to add a new recipient to the Approvals list for seeded Negotiation Flow with Approvals.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The seeded workflow list of approvers can't be modified
B. He should open the seeded workflow and add the new name there
C. He can't modify the seeded list, so he should create a new workflow
D. He should select Setup>Transaction Types, query the appropriate Transaction Type and the
click the Approvals button. Finally, he should add the recipient to the list of Approves for the
appropriate list name
E. He should select Setup> Transaction Types> Approvals and add the recipient to the list of
Approves for the appropriate list name
Answer: D, E
Question 4.
Which two statements are true about one-step shipping? (Choose two.)
A. One-step shipping must be used with quick ship shipping transactions
B. One-step shipping is the process of ensuring lot controls are shipped appropriately
C. Ship confirm rules must be set up in order to use one-step shipping
D. One-step shipping is the process of picking, optionally packing and ship confirming delivery
lines in one step
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
Certpaper.com is a retail company and all its customer orders that are shipped have a pre defined freight charge for each line item on the order. The company wants to apply the freight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order amount.
What should ABC do?
A. They can't do this; freight charges can be applied only during the ship confirm process
B. A Freight and Special Charges modifier can't be defined to apply the freight charge at the time
of the sales order
C. Automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line
D. Define the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at the time of
the sales order
E. Manual Freight and Special Charges modifiers to apply at each sales order line
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is true about the Ship From Stock fulfillment model?
A. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity
B. Every order must be reserved
C. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order
D. Every order can be pick released almost immediately after booking
Answer: D
Question 7.
Certpaper.com. runs on the PTO fulfillment model. All the rule-based business rules for configuration the model are incorporated using OracleConfigurator, which makes it intuitive for sales representatives to configure the PTO model.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. After selecting all the options, PTO Model needs to be processed to get the configured part
B. Routing needs to be defined for the PTO model
C. Ship confirm the option items, not the PTO model and option class
D. Process the configured item to generate the work order
E. Based on the setup, either ship model complete or individual options
Answer: C, E
Question 8.
Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose three.)
A. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the freight
cost
B. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier and internal
organizations
C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization
D. You can't associate the General Ledger account with each freight to collect associated costs
E. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments
Answer: A, B, C
Question 9.
Mary wants to perform the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been booked.
Which three options are valid approaches for her to use? (Choose three.)
A. Run the Auto Allocate process
B. Execute online from the release sales order window
C. Run a concurrent program from the release sales order window
D. Use the standard Report submission process
E. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process
Answer: B, C, D
Question 10.
A user has been tasked with ensuring that Credit Checking is done at the time of Sales Order Booking for ABC Corp. Though she believes she set up everything correctly, no credit checks seem to be occurring.
Which three elements should be check? (Choose three.)
A. Is Credit Checking enabled for the payment terms applied to ABC Corp?
B. Is the Credit check box selected in the standard customer setup for ABC Corp?
C. Is credit check selected at booking on the Order Transaction Type setup used for ABC Corps
orders?
D. Is the credit check hold check box selected in the profile class accounts window for ABC
Corp?
E. Is credit check selected at shipping on the order transaction type setup used for ABC Corps
orders?
Answer: A, B, C
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Question 1.
When a supplier site is defined as a purchasing site, on which four documents would it be available, in the supplier List of values? (Choose Four.)
A. Quotation
B. Request for Quotation
C. Payment
D. Invoice
E. Requisition
F. Purchase order
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 2.
If the PO: Allow Buyer override in AutoCreate Find profile option is set to No, what would happen if the buyer, Pat Stock, uses the AutoCreate form?
A. Pat would be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers but not view unassigned
requisitions
B. Pat would not be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers, but would be able to view
unassigned requisitions
C. Pay would be able to view all requisitions in the AutoCreate form, but would be prevented from
placing requisitions on aPO if they reference another buyer
D. Pat would be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers and unassigned requisitions
E. Pat would not be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers or unassigned requisitions
Answer: E
Question 3.
Which four are the setup steps for an approval hierarchy? ( Choose Four.)
A. Have a supervisor entered in the employee record
B. Assign a job to the employee
C. Enter a buyer
D. Create an employee
E. Tie the employee to the login name
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question 4.
In which four Oracle Applications can a supplier once defined, be used? (Choose Four.)
A. Property Manager
B. Payables
C. General Ledger
D. Order Management
E. Purchasing
F. Assets
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 5.
Which two should be completed before purchasing is closed for a period? ( Choose two.)
A. Approve all purchasing requisitions for the current period
B. Open the new purchasing period
C. Complete all inventory and expense receipts for the current period
D. Complete and approve all the purchase orders for the current period
E. Pay all invoices for the current period including those that have not been received
F. Resolve all unordered receipts
Answer: C, F
Question 6.
Which accounts can you set in Receiving Options?
A. Clearing Account
B. Receiving Inventory Account and Clearing Account
C. Receiving Inventory Account
D. Receiving Inventory Account and Purchase Price Variance Account
E. Purchase Price Variance Account
Answer: B
Question 7.
O n a requisition created in the professional forms environment (not iProcurement), which four sources can influence the Need by Date for each line? ( Choose Four.)
A. iProcurement Preference: Need by Date Offset
B. Item Lead Time (Min/Max Planning)
C. Profile:PO: Default Need-by Time
D. Preferences
E. Sales Order Need By Date (Drop Shipments)
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 8.
Your Client finds that some suppliers often under-ship certain low value items. For example, if they create a purchase order for 1000 paper clips, they would often receive only 995 paper clips. Because the quantity outstanding is small, the supplier would simply never ship the remaining five paper clips. Your client wants to make sure that these purchase orders do not remain open if at least 99% of the quantity ordered has been received and invoiced.
Which Item attribute settings are needed to meet this requirement?
A. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance = 1
B. Receipt close tolerance = 99 and invoice close tolerance = 1
C. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance = 99
D. Receipt close tolerance = 99 and invoice close tolerance = 99
E. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance can be set to any value
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which three profile options are required for the setup of sourcing rules? (Choose three.)
A. PO: Allow auto-generate sourcing Rules
B. MRP: Sourcing Rule Category Set
C. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
D. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
Client wants to bypass the ASL and default sourcing information from a quotation or blanket agreement.
Which profile option would have to be enabled?
A. PO: DefaultPO Promise Date from Need By Date
B. PO: Override Approved Supplier List Status
C. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents
E. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
Answer: E
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Question 1.
Certpaper.com prepared a manual invoice in Receivables for the sale of an inventory item. While performing an analysis in general ledger, Certpaper.com notices that the accounting for the sale in correct and show a debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Sales account. However, there is no entry coming from inventory, to show the decrease in the Inventory account and the increase to Cost of Goods Sold.
Which option best explains the missing entry?
A. The Ship Confirm process has not been run from Order Management
B. The final Post to General Ledger process has not been run from Receivables
C. During the entry of the manual invoice, the Accounts Receivable clerk did not click the
Complete button
D. Oracle receivables does not relieve inventory. You must use Order Management if you are
invoicing an item that needs to relieve inventory
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which four statements are true abut imported invoice lines? (Choose four.)
A. You use the interface Lines from to view invoice lines that failed AutoInvoice validation
B. You use the Transactions form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
C. You use the interface Errors form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
D. You use the interface lines form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
E. The RA_INTERFACE_LINES_ALL table contains invoices that failed AutoInvoie validation
F. The RA_CUSTOMER_TRANSACTION_ALL table contains invoices that failed AutoInvoice
validation
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 3.
Certpaper.com is implementing the Oracle Accounts receivable (AR). Certpaper.com needs a solution that provides the option of transferring a high volume of customer receipts from the bank into the Oracle AR system. In its legacy system, receipts are handled by two separate people and it wants to keep the jobs this way. Rosemary is responsible for entering the receipts and uploading them to the AR system and reporting the total collections for the day. Ben is responsible for posting and applying the receipts after performing due diligence in identifying and classifying receipts that do not have any customer information or receipts that do not have details such as specific invoice numbers against which the receipt is to be applied or receipts which have been received as an ad-hoc payment from a particular customer.
Ben does not want Certpaper.coms account balance to be affected immediately when the receipts are transferred and uploaded to the receivables system. Before the receipts are posted and applied to each individual customers accounts, he needs to check whether the receipts have been assigned with the appropriate invoice number for accurate application and whether the rest of the receipt information is correct. It is only after performing this checking process that he finally posts the receipts through a mass update in the present legacy system.
What is the most appropriate receipt creation method to implement in Oracle Receivables?
A. Cash Receipts
B. Manual Receipts
C. Automatic Receipts
D. Quick Cash Receipts
E. Miscellaneous Receipts
Answer: D
Question 4.
Cash Management maintains a Reconciled or Unreconciled status for each bank statement line. This status is displayed in Cash Management windows and reports. However, this status does not indicate the status of the system transaction. In addition to the status of the bank statement line. Cash Management also displays the status of the system transaction, which is assigned by source application.
Which four statues are in the list of Receipt Status from Receivables? (Choose four.)
A. Reversed
B. Voided
C. Confirmed
D. Reconciled
E. Approved
F. Cleared
Answer: A, C, E, F
Question 5.
Certpaper Enterprises, a customer, has informed you that it will pay for invoices of both its affiliates, Certpaper Services and Certpaper Supplies. Both these affiliates are also customers. You are told that only Certpaper Services is allowed to pay for invoices of Certpaper Enterprises. Certpaper Supplies is not.
Which option defines the Party Paying Relationship that will work?
A. Define Pay Below Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises, Certpaper Services and
Certpaper Supplies with Certpaper Enterprises being the parent
B. Define Pay Within Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Services and
Pay Below Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Supplies
C. Define a Relationship types of Pay within and Pay below. Use pay within for Certpaper
Enterprises and Certpaper services and Pay below for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper
Supplies
D. Define Relationship Type A for Pay within and Type B for Pay below. Use Relationship Type A
for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Services and Relationship Type B for Certpaper
Enterprises and Certpaper Supplies
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which four parameters are used by AutoInvoice to derive the General Ledger (GL) date for a transaction? (Choose four.)
A. Due date
B. Ship Date
C. Accounting Rule
D. Sales Order Date
E. Default date parameter in the AutoInvoice submission form
F. The latest accounting rule start date if the invoice uses Bill in Advance as the invoicing rule
G. The earliest accounting rule start date if the invoice uses Bill in Arrears as the invoicing rule
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 7.
Certpaper.com is implementing Oracle Accounts Receivable interface with an external non Oracle legacy billion system. The client wants Oracle Accounts receivable to generate accounting entries, instead of sending accounting data through the interface.
Which setup items are NOT used by Oracle Accounts Receivable to generate General Ledger (GL) code combinations? (Choose two.)
A. Customer Site
B. AutoAccounting
C. Transaction Type
D. Accounting Rules
E. Transaction Source
F. Standard Memo Line
Answer: D, E
Question 8.
Certpaper.com has some customers that have gone through mergers and acquisitions. These customers have requested that their accounts be kept separate, but in some cases they will pay each other's invoices. You are able to confirm that
A will pay for B's invoice but not the other way round (B will not pay for A's Invoice)
D will pay for invoices of C and E, whereas only E will pay for D's invoices. A is not related to C,D and E. The system option of Allow Payament of Unrelated Transaction is deselected.
Which three customer account relationships would work for applying payment to an invoice? (Choose three.)
A. Nonreciprocal relationship between C and E
B. Reciprocal relationship between A and B
C. Nonreciprocal relationship between D and C
D. Reciprocal relationship between C and E
E. Nonreciprocal relationship between A and D
F. Nonreciprocal relationship between A and B
G. Nonreciprocal relationship between D and E
H. Reciprocal relationship between D and E
Answer: C, F, H
Question 9.
Certpaper.com enables you to customize the content and format of bills viewed by customers.
Which four actions can you perform? (Choose Four.)
A. Use Applications Desktop Integrator (ADI) to publish bills
B. Design the layout and content of a bill
C. Incorporate attachments on online bills
D. Display information on bills that is not stored in Oracle Receivables
E. Assign bill formats to specific customers or to user-defined customer categories
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 10.
Which statement is true about entering invoices in batches?
A. A salesperson can be entered at the batch level
B. A maximum of 999 invoices can be included in a batch
C. A batch can contain invoices with different currencies
D. The batch source must be the same for all invoices in the batch
E. The payment terms must be the same for all invoices in the batch
F. Invoices can be entered in batches but must be printed individually
Answer: C
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Question 1.
You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You discover that some mailboxes have been infected by malware. However there are no malware infection notifications in the Forefront Protection for Exchange Server Console. You need to immediately check specific mailboxes to see if they are infected by the malware.
What should you do?
A. You should run a Forefront Client Security scan on the client computers.
B. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform a real-time scan of the
mailboxes.
C. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform an on-demand scan of the
mailboxes.
D. You should install Microsoft Security Essentials on client computers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.
How would you configure FPE to enable spam filtering?
A. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSEScheduledScan cmdlet.
B. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run Set-FseSpamFiltering the cmdlet.
C. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FseSpamContentCheck cmdlet.
D. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSERealtimeScan cmdlet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails. The subject line in each of the emails is: “Free access to our new online tournament!” You note that the sender email address is spoofed to appear to be from a different domain for each email.
How can you block this spam attack in future?
A. You should configure an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.
B. You should configure a file filtering custom filter in FPE.
C. You should configure a keyword filtering custom filter in FPE.
D. You should configure a sender-domain custom filter in FPE.
E. You should configure a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. Four servers running Windows 2008 Server host the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.
Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You need to configure email scanning in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010.
How should you configure FPE to scan all emails sent from within the ABC.com domain to email recipients in the ABC.com domain?
A. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.
B. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
C. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.
D. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
E. You should configure FPE to perform Outbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The network environment is secured using Microsoft Forefront. A server named ABC-ShPoint1 runs Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010. The SharePoint system is protected by Forefront Protection 2010 for SharePoint (FPSP).
How can you configure the environment to ensure that scanning is performed on all documents that pass through the SharePoint Portal?
A. By logging into the SharePoint portal and configuring the scanning for uploaded and
downloaded documents.
B. By logging into the SharePoint Central Administration website and configuring the scanning for
uploaded and downloaded documents.
C. By logging into the Forefront Protection for SharePoint console and configuring the scanning
for uploaded and downloaded documents.
D. By logging into IIS Manager on the SharePoint Web Server and configuring the scanning for
uploaded and downloaded documents.
E. By logging into the Security Centre on the SharePoint Database Server and configuring the
scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.
How can you block a future spam attack based on repeated words in the body of the email?
A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.
B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.
C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.
D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.
E. by configuring a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails. You examine the email headers and discover a common source IP address.
How can you block a future spam attack based on the IP address?
A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.
B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.
C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.
D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.
E. by configuring a connection filter in FPE.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 8.
You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You need to ensure the maximum security when users access their emails on the Exchange servers. You want to ensure that emails are scanned for as much malware as possible.
Which two of the following actions should you perform? (Choose two).
A. You should enable on-demand scanning.
B. You should enable real-time scanning.
C. You should select the option to scan message body.
D. You should select the option to scan after engine update.
E. You should increase the scanning timeout value.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. A new scan engine definition is released for Exchange Server 2010.
How can you immediately apply new definitions in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server?
A. by running the Set-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.
B. by running the Start-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.
C. by running the Get-FseSignatureOptions PowerShell cmdlet.
D. by running the Set-FseEngineManagement PowerShell cmdlet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.
Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers. Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You receive reports from users saying that they receive undeliverable mail bounce messages for emails that they did not send. You suspect that the sender field has been forged in the failed messages.
How can you ensure that users do not receive undeliverable mail messages for emails that they did not send?
A. You should configure a sender filter on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.
B. You should configure a backscatter filter on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
C. You should disable Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages on ABC-Edge1 and
ABCEdge2.
D. You should configure a separate Exchange mailbox to receive all Delivery Status Notifications
(DSN) messages.
Answer: B
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. You are in the process of configuring a Project Server 2010 environment. You have configured two servers. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 R2. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010.
How can you configure the Project Server 2010 environment to allow Project Web App (PWA) to build OLAP cubes?
A. You need to install the SQL Server 2008 Native Client and Analysis Management Objects on
ABC- SPS1.
B. You need to install the SQL Server 2008 Native Client and Analysis Management Objects on
ABC-SQL1.
C. You need to install SQL Server Analysis Services on ABC- SPS1.
D. You need to configure a trusted data connection library in the Excel Services settings on
ABCSPS1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include maintaining the Project Server 2010 environment. The SQL Server 2008 R2 installation on a server named ABC-SQL1 includes the Analysis and Reporting Services. SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010 are installed on a server named ABC-SPS1. You have been asked by the project manager to enable Project Server reporting.
Which services should you initialize to enable Project Server reporting?
A. You should start the Excel Services Web Service then the Security Token Service.
B. You should start the SQL Server Browser Service the Security Token Service.
C. You should start the Excel Services Web Service then the Secure Store Service.
D. You should start the Security Token Service then the Secure Store Service.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. You are in the process of configuring a Project Server 2010 environment. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 R2. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1. The next step is to install Project Server 2010 on ABC-SPS1. You run the Project Server 2010 installer on ABC-SPS1 but the installation does not complete. You receive an error message on ABC-SPS1 informing you that the server does not meet the minimum software prerequisites.
What is the easiest way to ensure that all the missing software prerequisites are installed?
A. You should install the latest Windows service pack on ABC-SPS1.
B. You should run Windows Update on ABC-SPS1.
C. You should run the SharePoint 2010 Products Preparation Tool on ABC-SPS1.
D. You should select the Complete Installation option in the Project Server 2010 setup.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. You are in the process of configuring a Project Server 2010 environment. You have configured two servers. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 and a Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010. You need to configure Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Analysis Services to build Project Server 2010 cubes. You log in using the Farm Administrator account and verify that the account has administrative permissions for the Analysis Services on ABC-SQL1.
What should you do next?
A. You should uABCrade Microsoft SQL Server 2008 on ABC-SQL1 to Microsoft SQL Server
2008 R2.
B. You should assign the Farm Administrator account the Sysadmin role on ABC-SQL1.
C. You should add the Farm Administrator account to the local Administrators group on
ABCSPS1.
D. You should delete the Farm Administrator account from OLAP group on ABC-SQL1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. You have been asked to configure a new Project Server 2010 environment. The Project Server 2010 environment will run on multiple virtual servers on the company’s Microsoft HyperV platform.
Which server should you configure first?
A. You should install and configure SQL Server first.
B. You should install and configure Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 first.
C. You should uninstall SharePoint Server 2008 first.
D. You should install and configure Project Server 2007 first.
E. You should install and configure a WINS Server first.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. You are in the process of configuring a Project Server 2010 environment. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010. The database will run on a separate server named ABC-SQL1 running SQL Server 2008.
How should you configure the database to support remote users?
A. You should the SQL Server 2008 Native Client on ABC-SQL1.
B. You should configure ABC-SQL1 to accept desktop remote connections.
C. You should create an exception in Windows Firewall on ABC-SQL1.
D. You should install SQL Server Management Studio (SMSS) on ABC-SPS1.
E. You should configure ABC-SQL1 to accept remote connections using TCP/IP.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include maintaining the Project Server 2010 environment. You have recently installed the Project Server 2010 environment with the default settings. The Project Server 2010 environment consists of the following two servers. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 R2. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010. You have been asked to configure a copy of the current environment in a new Project Web App (PWA) instance to be used for testing and training.
What is the easiest way to achieve this goal?
A. You should install a second instance of SQL Server on the ABC-SQL1.
B. You should run SharePoint Central Administration on ABC-SPS1 and configure the names of
the databases to be used using the Project Server service application.
C. You should run SharePoint Central Administration on ABC-SPS1 to configure a new ABC
collection then install the Project Server service application and run the default database
names.
D. You should start the SharePoint 2010 Management Shell on ABC-SPS1 and run the Get-
SPSite -ContentDatabase command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include maintaining the Project Server 2010 environment. The Project Server 2010 environment consists of the following two servers. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 R2. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010. You want to install some Windows Updates on ABC-SPS1. You want to ensure that no data is lost during the update. You also want to disable users’ ability to modify data during the uABCrade to ensure data integrity is maintained.
What should you do before installing the updates?
A. You should use the SQL Server Management Studio to detach the database on ABC-SQL1.
B. You should run the Net Stop W3SVC command on ABC-SPS1.
C. You should run SharePoint Central Administration on ABC-SPS1 and select the Quiesce Farm
option.
D. You should stop the Project Server Queue Service on ABC-SPS1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include maintaining the Project Server 2010 environment. The Project Server 2010 environment consists of the following two servers. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 R2. A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010. You are configuring a new laptop for a user named Mia Hamm. Mia will be working on an existing project. You install Project Professional 2010 and configure Mia’s user permissions on ABC-SPS1 to allow her to edit projects using Project Professional.
What should you do to enable Mia to open the project?
A. You should run Project Professional on Mia’s laptop, select the Open Project option and enter
the URL for ABC-SPS1.
B. You should run Project Professional on Mia’s laptop and configure the account settings for
ABC-SPS1.
C. You should run Project Server on ABC-SPS1 and open the project.
D. You should create an account for Mia using SharePoint Central Administration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at ABC.com. You are in the process of configuring a Project Server 2010 environment. The network includes the following two Exchange servers:
ABC-Exch1 runs Exchange Server 2007 R2 and is configured to run the Client Access Server role.
ABC-Exch2 runs Exchange Server 2007 R2 and is configured to run the Mailbox Server role.
You need to configure Project Server 2010 to integrate with the ABC.com Exchange environment.
You have configured the following two servers:
ABC-SQL1 runs SQL Server 2008 R2.
ABC-SPS1 runs SharePoint Server 2010 and Project Server 2010.
You plan to enable task synchronization in Project Web App (PWA).
What should you do first?
A. You should create a user account for ABC-Exch1 in Project Web App (PWA).
B. You should create a user account for ABC-Exch2 in Project Web App (PWA).
C. You should add the computer account for ABC-SPS1 to the Exchange Domain Servers group
in Active Directory.
D. You should add the Farm Administrator’s user account to the local Administrators group on
ABC-Exch1.
E. You should add the Farm Administrator’s user account to the local Administrators group on
ABC-Exch2.
Answer: A
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage a project. You notice that a section of the project is located in the wrong phase. The section includes a summary task that contains eight subtasks and two milestones. You need to move the section complete with the summary tasks and milestones to a different project phase. You want the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering to be updated to match the destination phase.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should select the summary task and select Change Working Time on the Project ribbon.
B. You should select the summary task and modify the start and finish dates.
C. You should open the properties of the summary task, select the Advanced tab and configure
the WBS code.
D. You should select the section including the summary task and milestones and click the Move
task option.
E. You should select the summary task and drag it to the correct phase.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You have several tasks in your project schedule. The tasks are a mix of active and inactive tasks that are automatically or manually scheduled. Some tasks are summary tasks that include subtasks. The tasks are listed using different text colors and fonts including bold, underline and strikethrough fonts. A new member of the project team uses Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007. He asks you to save the project as a Project 2007 project until his version of Project is upgraded to 2010. As a result of some features of the task list not being compatible with Project 2007, you would like to complete the task without creating any new milestones.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should alter all the tasks to be Manually Scheduled tasks.
B. You should alter all the tasks to be Auto Scheduled tasks.
C. You should alter the font of all tasks listed with a strikethrough font.
D. You should alter the font of all tasks listed with a bold font.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage multiple projects. Some resources are shared and work is distributed between the projects. You have received instructions to modify the workload for some of the shared resources.
Which two of the following actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. You should consider inserting the existing project schedules into a blank project as
subprojects.
B. You should consider select the Links Between Projects option.
C. You should consider opening each existing project schedule and select the shared resource
pool.
D. You should consider enabling the Load Summary Resource Assignments option.
E. You should consider selecting the Level Resource function and select the required resources.
F. You should consider selecting the Level All function.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
Question 4.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You are working on a Software System Development project. You have a task named Business Requirements Definition that is scheduled to be completed by 20th July. The constraint type for all tasks listed in the project schedule is configured as “As Soon As Possible”. The project team members inform you that the Business Requirements Definition task will be completed by 15th July. You want the default Gantt chart to show 20th July as the completion date instead of 15th July.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. Open the task information window and enter 20th July in the Constraint date field.
B. Open the task information window and enter 20th July in the Deadline date field.
C. Open the task information window and select the Fixed Units option in the Task Type field.
D. Open the task information window and enter 20th July in the Finish date field.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage a new project. The project will be divided into five major phases. The time that each phase will take is still being calculated but the entire project needs to be completed within 6 months.
How should you configure the project to indicate that the entire duration will be 180 days?
A. You should configure five summary tasks each with a duration of 36 days.
B. You should set the Status Date to 180 days into the future.
C. You should enter the project timescale in the project calendar.
D. You should create a single summary task with the manually scheduled option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage a new project. The resources in the project work from 6pm to 10pm four days a week from Monday through Thursday. You have been instructed to create a new default calendar for the project so that the working hours of the part-time resources are reflected.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should modify the Standard calendar then select the Update Project option.
B. You should navigate to the Change Working Time window and click Create New Calendar.
Then change the calendar type in the Project Options dialog box.
C. You should change the calendar type to part-time in the Project Options dialog box.
D. You should navigate to the Change Working Time window and change the calendar type to
part-time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 7.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You are configuring the tasks for a new project. You notice that the default constraint type for tasks that you create is set to As Soon As Possible. You are required to make sure that the default constraint type for new tasks is changed to As Late As Possible
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should configure the Schedule From option in the Project Information window to Project
Finish Date.
B. You should configure the Schedule From option in the Project Information window to Project
Start Date.
C. You should check the New Tasks are effort driven check box in the Project Options.
D. You should select all tasks then click the Update Project option.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Project Professional 2010 to manage a project.
Task1 is represented by the following icon in the default Gantt Chart view:
Task2 is represented by the following icon in the default Gantt Chart view:
What would you need to change to configure Task2 to be the same type as Task1?
A. You would need to configure Task2 to be automatically scheduled.
B. You would need to configure Task2 to be manually scheduled.
C. You would need to configure Task2 as critical.
D. You would need to configure Task2 as a milestone.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 9.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You are calculating the timescales for a new project using the bottom-up scheduling method. You have created three tasks named Drawings, Prototype and Review. You want to group the Drawings, Prototype and Review tasks into a project phase named Design.
How would you group the three tasks?
A. By selecting the three tasks and clicking the Outdent Task option.
B. By selecting the row above the three tasks and entering a new Summary Task.
C. By selecting the three tasks and clicking the Indent Task option.
D. By selecting the three tasks and selecting the Insert Summary Task option.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010.
How can you display a task that lists the project name, total project duration and start and finish dates by default in the project schedule?
A. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Critical Tasks checkbox.
B. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Summary Tasks checkbox.
C. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Project Summary Task checkbox.
D. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Outline Number checkbox.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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