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Please upload some important questions, advance thanks..
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Latest dump needed thanks buddy for help me
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Question 1.
Which of the following areas of Software Configuration Management are primarily addressed by Rational ClearQuest?
A. Configuration control and process management
B. Version and configuration control
C. Process management and problem tracking
D. Version control and process management
Answer: C
Question 2.
What are the seven attributes that a good SCM system should possess?
A. Safety, stability, control, audit ability, reproducibility, and traceability. scalability
B. Safety, serviceability, control, audit ability, reproducibility, traceability, maintainability
C. Safety, stability, reusability, audit ability, reproducibility, traceability, maintainability
D. Safety, stability, convenience, audit ability, reproducibility, traceability, scalability
Answer: A
Question 3.
The Software Configuration Management market currently comprises four Solution Segments.
Which one of the following is not one of these segments?
A. Application life-cycle management
B. Process-centric software configuration management
C. Software integration testing management
D. Version control
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which one of the following terms refers to the ability to answer who, what, when, and where questions about a specific version or configuration of the software release at any time?
A. Traceability
B. Stability
C. Control
D. Audit ability
Answer: D
Question 5.
To use IBM Rational ClearCase, what additional software products are required?
A. Rational Software Development Platform
B. None
C. Rational Team Unifying Platform
D. Rational ClearQuest
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which one of the following statements best describes the benefits of UCM?
A. UCM is not available as part of the ClearCase product line
B. UCM enables structured parallel development with consistent policies and practices, and can
be implemented in ClearCase with or without ClearQuest
C. UCM enables structured synchronous development with consistent policies and practices, and
can be implemented in ClearCase along with ClearQuest
D. UCM enables structured parallel development with consistent policies and practices, and must
be implemented in ClearCase along with ClearQuest
Answer: B
Question 7.
Rational ClearQuest Web provides different types of charts to help you analyze your data.
Which of the following is not a chart type supported by Rational ClearQuest Web?
A. Distribution chart
B. Trend chart
C. Scalar chart
D. Aging chart
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which one of the choices below represents a client/server administrative application used to create and modify schemas, and create and upgrade user databases in Rational ClearQuest?
A. ClearQuest Admin Console
B. ClearQuest Designer
C. ClearQuest Schema Builder
D. ClearQuest Data Designer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Rational ClearQuest enables better insight, predictability, and control of the software development process.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Rational ClearQuest?
A. Defect and Change Tracking
B. Build Auditing
C. Facilitating communication across the Enterprise
D. Managing issues throughout the project
Answer: B
Question 10.
An activity that moves a change request from one state to another, resulting in a state transition, is called what?
A. Significant event
B. Event modifier
C. Action
D. State changer
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which tool can NOT be used to connect Domino with other systems such as DBMS, the platform file system, Enterprise Resource Planning systems, and Transaction Processing systems?
A. Lotus Enterprise Integrator for Domino
B. Domino Enterprise Connection Services
C. Lotus Connector LotusScript Extensions
D. Lotus Connector Java extensions
Answer: D
Question 2.
Why do replication or save conflicts occur?
A. There are too many replicas on various servers
B. The replication interval is too long
C. Users simultaneously edit the same document in different copies of a database
D. Users had modified the same document in two different replicas between replication sessions
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Domino clustering?
A. Less hardware cost
B. Workload balancing
C. High availability
D. Scalability
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which of the following can be used to troubleshoot Domino server performance issues?
A. Desktop policy
B. Server policy
C. DESKTOP.DSK
D. Server Health Monitor
Answer: D
Question 5.
What are the benefits of using Domino with DB2?
A. Domino with DB2 supports Domino security
B. Expands availability of Domino data to non-Domino environments using a standards-based
RDBMS
C. Administrator can fully monitor and manage DB2 from the Lotus Notes Administrator client
D. Administrator can fully monitor and manage the Domino database from the DB2 client
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of the following tools and methods can be used to upgrade Lotus Notes 6 client to Lotus Notes 7 client?
A. Setup policy upgrade
B. Desktop policy upgrade
C. Smart upgrade
D. Master policy upgrade
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which Lotus Domino tool can register users in both Active Directory and in Domino concurrently?
A. Active Directory Domino Migrating Tool
B. Active Directory synchronization (ADSync)
C. Domino Replication
D. Domino Administration Process
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following Domino 7 tools can gather and analyze the Domino activity data?
A. Domino Domain Monitoring
B. Activity Trends
C. Server Health Monitor
D. Event Handler
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which operating systems are supported by Domino 7?
A. IBM AIX
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
C. Sun Solaris
D. Microsoft Windows Server
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 10.
Who are roaming users in Domino?
A. Users who access a Domino server from different locations using Notes clients pre-configured
with the users data
B. Users who access a Domino server using Internet Explorer
C. Users who access a Domino server using a notebook computer
D. Users who access a Domino server from more than one Notes client by getting the customized
settings and PIM data from the Domino server
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of the following are valid reasons for choosing e-forms products that use open forms technology?
A. Open forms technology is free and can be used to produce a less expensive e-forms product
B. Choosing open forms technology allows easy integration with third party applications
C. Proprietary products cause businesses to become locked in to a single vendor
D. Open forms technology is more reliable because it is developed by many different people
rather than just one vendor
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
What is the menu ufv_settings option used for?
A. To add menu options to the main menu of the Workplace Forms Viewer
B. To define new menu or toolbar options
C. To create a menu within a form
D. To hide or disable toolbar buttons
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is the function of the scope identifier?
A. To identity the form
B. To identity which form a page belongs to
C. To uniquely identify elements in a form
D. To provide a means of determining which fields are displayed in a form
Answer: C
Question 4.
When using absolute positioning, what reference point is used to determine the position of an item on a form?
A. The position of the previous item in the form
B. The position of an anchor item in the form
C. The top right corner of the form
D. The top left corner of the form
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following are parts of the basic architecture of the Webform Server?
A. PortIet
B. Translator
C. Log Server
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question 6.
What is the purpose of the omit filter?
A. To guarantee that the form is secure with the exception of the selected items
B. To ensure that all form elements are signed
C. To specify the form elements that you do not want to sign
D. To specify the form elements that need to be signed
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which format provides a formula to determine the content of an element?
A. Computes
B. Arrays
C. Argument
D. Script
Answer: A
Question 8.
How do digital signatures ensure that a form has not been changed?
A. A timestamp is used to ensure that the file has not changed since the form was last edited
B. The contents of the document are used to generate a unique number representing the
document
C. The XFDL code is used to generate a hash value that identities the document and the signer
D. The signers name and e-mail address are affixed to the document to ensure that the signer
has not changed the form since it was completed
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following filters are the most secure?
A. Signature filters
B. Omit filters
C. Keep filters
D. Custom filters
Answer: B
Question 10.
In addition to alphanumeric characters, what characters are permitted in a scope identifier?
A. The underscore (_)
B. The hyphen (-)
C. The ampersand (&)
D. The period (.)
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Within the Integrated Solutions Console, what feature can be used to easily access pages that are frequently accessed?
A. Bookmarks
B. The browsers Favorites functionality
C. Customized views
D. Marked pages
Answer: A
Question 2.
What are the major categories of IBM Tivoli Storage Manager scheduling?
A. Workplace scheduling
B. Trigger scheduling
C. Client scheduling
D. Administrative scheduling
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 3.
Which of the following are options for interacting with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. Archive Manager
B. Integrated Solutions Console Administration Center
C. Administrative command line
D. SQL queries
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 4.
Which of the following are valid storage pools?
A. Four 4-mm digital tape devices
B. Two IBM 3590 tape devices
C. Two hard disks, and one GB of CPU RAM
D. Two optical disk devices
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 5.
Which of the following are true of backups in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. The backed up data is stored in a storage pool, and the meta information about the data is
stored in the TSM database
B. Backup operations create an additional copy of a data object to be used for recovery
C. You can select the backup that data is to be restored from
D. Backup operations create a single copy of an object that is kept for a specific period of time
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 6.
What helps control the amount of free space within a storage pool?
A. Migration
B. Importing
C. Declaration
D. Defining
Answer: A
Question 7.
In which cases might the command-line interface be used instead of the GUI for administration?
A. When the GUI cannot be accessed
B. When automating a process by using a batch file
C. When the task to be carried out is a client task
D. When a user does not have access rights to the GUI
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 8.
Which of the following are true of the Backup-Archive Client?
A. Primarily designed for users to perform their own backups and archives
B. The GUI is the same on Windows and UNIX systems
C. A version of the client can be run from a Web browser
D. Only system administrators can access the client
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 9.
What is a collection of storage volumes called within Tivoil Storage Manager?
A. Storage pool
B. Copy group
C. Archive copy group
D. Spool
Answer: A
Question 10.
What limits for expiration can be placed on a copy group?
A. Number of days to wait before backing up data from the client file system
B. Maximum number of back-up versions to retain for files that are currently on the client file
system
C. Maximum number of back-up versions that have been deleted from the client file system
D. Number of days to retain a back-up version after that version becomes inactive
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Question 1.
On an NIS client, the following is a portion of the output of cat /etc/passwd:
+Joe::::::::
+Sam::::::::
+:*::::::::/bin/false
Which of the following is true for all users other than Joe and Sam?
A. They have full access.
B. They are denied access.
C. They are granted limited access.
D. They gain access after being prompted for a shell.
Answer: B
Explanation:
login denied users are displayed with + symbol at the starting of line.
Question 2.
How can a user view an X Window from a remote system on their local system?
A. from the local system:
export DISPLAY=local:0.0
B. from the remote system:
export DISPLAY=local:0.0
C. from the local system:
export DISPLAY=remote:0.0
D. from the remote system:
export DISPLAY=remote:0.0
Answer: D
Explanation:
First Local host should give the permission to display the X Terminal on local host using xhost command. Then user can export the display from remote host.
See the example
Suppose you want to run application on ITCertKeys B from ITCertKeys A. ITCertKeys B in GUI Terminal:# xhost +192.168.0.1
ITCertKeys A in GUI Terminal:# export DISPLAY=192.168.0.2:0 # xterm &
Now Terminal of ITCertKeys A will display on ITCertKeys B
Question 3.
Which of the following commands can be used to confirm that the FTP server is listening?
A. netstat -a ftp
B. netstat | grep ftp
C. netstat -u | grep ftp
D. netstat -a | grep ftp
Answer: D
Explanation:
netstat is the multipurpose command, it can list active network connections, routing tables, interface statistics and other vital network information. Syntax: netstat [options]
Options are
-a à List listening and connected sockets
-t à List TCP connection
-u à List UDP Connection
-p à Show PID and name of the program.
Question 4.
When a RAID 5 array is configured with a hot-spare disk under Linux, which of the following is the minimum number of drives required?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 5 is the most common type of RAID. By distributing parity information across some or all of an array's member disk drives, RAID 5 eliminates the write bottleneck of using one parity disk. The minimum requirements for RAID 5 is 3 disks. According to questions, 3 disks for RAID Level 5 and one spare disk so total 4.
Question 5.
A system administrator wants to see if an RPM package is installed on a user workstation.
Which of the following commands should be used?
A. rpm -query
B. rpmfind
C. rpm -qa | grep
D. find -name rpm | grep
Answer: C
Explanation:
RPM format packages can manage using rpm command. to query the package either installed or not,
rpm -q packagename
To list all installed package:
rpm -qa packagename
Question 6.
Which of the following can be used to determine who has scheduled a job?
A. who
B. whodo
C. at -d
D. at -l
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following encryption schemes is the LEAST secure?
A. DES
B. MD5
C. AES
D. Blowfish
Answer: A
The Data Encryption Standard, a block cipher with 64-bit blocks and a 56-bit key Like MD4, it produces a 128-bit hash. For details see RFC 1321
AES ciphers use a 128-bit block and 128, 192 or 256-bit keys
A block cipher using 64-bit blocks and keys of up to 448 bits
Question 8.
A Linux machine has a local address of 192.168.1.1 with subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. All services are currently denied.
Which of the following lines should be appended to hosts.allow file to permit access to the Web service on the local subnet.
A. httpd: 192.168.1.0/24
B. ALL: 192.168.1.255/24
C. ALL except httpd: 192.168.1.1/24
D. 192.168.1.255/255.255.255.0:httpd
Answer: A
Explanation:
The /etc/hosts.allow and /etc/hosts.deny each have two or more colon-separated fields. The first filed specifies the comma separated list of executable name . The second field contains a comma-separated list of client specifications, using IP address or host name or network name.
httpd: 192.168.1.0/24 à specified the network
vsftpd: .example.com à specified the domain.
Question 9.
A Linux administrator is about to install a Linux server. The server has 256MB of RAM.
Which of the following sizes of the swap partition is generally recommended?
A. 128MB
B. 256MB
C. 512MB
D. 1024MB
Answer: C
Explanation:
Swap space in Linux is used when the amount of physical memory (RAM) is full. If the system needs more memory resources and the RAM is full, inactive pages in memory are moved to the swap space. While swap space can help machines with a small amount of RAM, it should not be considered a replacement for more RAM. Swap space is located on hard drives, which have a slower access time than physical memory. Swap space can be a dedicated swap partition (recommended), a swap file, or a combination of swap partitions and swap files. The size of your swap should be equal to twice your computer's physical RAM for up to 2 GB of physical RAM. For physical RAM above 2 GB, the size of your swap should be equal to the amount of physical RAM above 2 GB. The size of your swap should never less than 32 MB. Using this basic formula, a system with 2 GB of physical RAM would have 4 GB of swap, while one with 3 GB of physical RAM would have 5 GB of swap.
Question 10.
Which driver, if any, is required to support L3 cache on the system processor?
A. msr.o
B. mtrr.o
C. cache.o
D. No driver is required.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To Support L3 cache on the system processor, no any driver is required.
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Question 1.
A trainer who speaks only English will teach a course to a group of non-native English speakers who are visiting from a country where English is not the primary language.
In this situation, the trainer should do each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Modify instructional strategies to accommodate the learners' language skills.
B. Select words at an appropriate vocabulary level for the learning group.
C. Confirm that the learners understand the technical jargon used.
D. Repeat the same statement a number of times.
Answer: D
Question 2.
For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the instructor will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL:To create applicable, real-life scenarios that relate to the day's curriculum ACTION:After a brief topical introduction, the instructor breaks the class into small groups to brainstorm scenarios. The instructor moves from group to group, giving direction and input.
A. LIKELY, because small groups will make the learners better understand the topic being
discussed
B. UNLIKELY, because small groups tend to get off task and off topic
C. UNLIKELY, because the instructor is keeping learners from generating their own ideas
D. LIKELY, because the learners are engaged personally and the instructor is guiding the
discussions
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way of teaching a complex concept?
A. Advanced theories relating to the concept that will be new and unusual to the learners.
B. Employing activities that facilities discussion as an aid in clarifying the concept.
C. Presenting the concept in a formal lecture and having the learners take notes.
D. Introducing the concept in a take-home reading assignment that is accompanied by factual
questions about the reading.
Answer: B
Question 4.
For this question, determine whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the instructor will achieve the goal.
Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL: To evaluate the effectiveness of an instructor's presentation techniques delivered to a group of participants.
ACTION: Place a video camera in the classroom to record the instruction given during class time. Review the videotape at the conclusion of the class and self-critique of the techniques observed.
A. UNLIKELY, because the true measure of effectiveness is reflected in the tests, quizzes, and
projects of the learners.
B. LIKELY, because watching the videotape can help assess the use of gestures, posture, and
movement.
C. UNLIKELY, because it is difficult for an instructor to fairly judge classroom performance
personally.
D. LIKELY, because the videotape will show if the learners were paying attention to the instructor.
Answer: A
Question 5.
For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the instructor will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL: To cover material while addressing the aural, visual, and kinesthetic learners ACTION: The instructor presents important points through lecture and presentation slides followed by hands-on exercises.
A. LIKELY, because the instructor identifies with different learning styles
B. UNLIKELY, because multiple methods will simply confuse the learners
C. LIKELY, because the instructor is presenting information in a variety of ways
D. UNLIKELY, because the information is being repeated in too many ways
Answer: C
Question 6.
An instructor uses a course design that has worked successfully in the past. This time, it has only limited success.
Which of the following is a likely explanation for the limited success?
A. An increase in the cost of the course for the learners
B. Instructor presentation skills
C. Learner characteristics and prerequisite knowledge
D. Time of day that course was offered
Answer: C
Question 7.
For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the best statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL: To use an effective opening that will raise the participants' level of comfort and interest in an introductory computer course for support staff.
ACTION: Begin the session by relating a story about an ineffective presentation the instructor once made to a group of marketing managers.
A. LIKELY, because beginning the session with a personal story about a previous failure will earn
learner respect.
B. UNLIKELY, because this anecdote does not attempt to engage learner interest in the course.
C. UNLIKELY, because this group of learners did not personally known the marketing managers
mentioned in the story.
D. LIKELY, because personal anecdotes relax the audience.
Answer: B
Question 8.
An instructor has just finished the lesson on a topic that is essential to understanding the next topic of the course. Most of the learners are looking at the instructor with blank expressions. When the instructor asks questions to see if the learners understand the concept, most learners look away.
Which of the following is the BEST next step for the instructor to take, given the learners' reactions?
A. Continue with the next phase of the lesson and refer back periodically to the concept.
B. Give the learners a short study break to review any notes they might have taken during the
presentation.
C. Review the main points of the concept and use examples that aid in stimulating discussion.
D. Hand out a set of written questions designed to evaluate individual comprehension of the
concept.
Answer: C
Question 9.
A learner has asked a question about a very obscure and minor point.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response for an instructor to make in this situation?
A. Redirect the question to the other learners.
B. Ask the learner to save the question for later.
C. Rephrase the question to verify that other learners understand it.
D. Give a brief response to the learner's question.
Answer: B
Question 10.
An instructor has completed the teaching of an important concept of a course.
In order to evaluate the learners' understanding, which of the following is the approach that is MOST appropriate?
A. Organizing the class into small groups and moving from group to group to monitor group
discussions
B. Administering a quick quiz that requires the learners to state the concept that was taught
C. Posing questions systematicallythat require application of the concept
D. Continuing discussion of the topic by asking questions of learners who rarely participate
Answer: C
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Question 1. What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'? A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker. B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker. C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target. D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid. Answer: C Explanation: The ethical hacker uses the same techniques and skills as a cracker and the motive is to find the security breaches before a cracker does. There is nothing that says that a cracker does not get paid for the work he does, a ethical hacker has the owners authorization and will get paid even if he does not succeed to penetrate the target. Question 2. What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean? A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons. B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons. C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes. D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes. Answer: C Explanation: Ethical hacking is only about defending your self or your employer against malicious persons by using the same techniques and skills. Question 3. Who is an Ethical Hacker? A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes Answer: C Explanation: The Ethical hacker is a security professional who applies his hacking skills for defensive purposes. Question 4. What is "Hacktivism"? A. Hacking for a cause B. Hacking ruthlessly C. An association which groups activists D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The term was coined by author/critic Jason Logan Bill Sack in an article about media artist Shu Lea Cheang. Acts of hacktivism are carried out in the belief that proper use of code will have leveraged effects similar to regular activism or civil disobedience. Question 5. Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply) A. CHAT rooms B. WHOIS database C. News groups D. Web sites E. Search engines F. Organization's own web site Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F Explanation: A Security tester should search for information everywhere that he/she can access. You never know where you find that small piece of information that could penetrate a strong defense. Question 6. What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two. A. DoS B. Passive C. Sniffing D. Active E. Cracking Answer: B, D Explanation: Passive and active attacks are the two basic types of attacks. Question 7. You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is outdated? A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy. B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website. C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer. D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information. Answer: B Explanation: The Internet Archive (IA) is a non-profit organization dedicated to maintaining an archive of Web and multimedia resources. Located at the Presidio in San Francisco, California, this archive includes "snapshots of the World Wide Web" (archived copies of pages, taken at various points in time), software, movies, books, and audio recordings (including recordings of live concerts from bands that allow it). This site is found at www.archive.org. Question 8. User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving e-mail scams and mail fraud? A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act Answer: B Explanation: http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode18/usc_sec_18_00001030----000-.html Question 9. Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting? A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded. B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets. C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database. D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine. Answer: C Explanation: Passive footprinting is a method in which the attacker never makes contact with the target systems. Scanning the range of IP addresses found in the target DNS is considered making contact to the systems behind the IP addresses that is targeted by the scan. Question 10. Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic? A. Network aliasing B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) D. Port scanning Answer: B Explanation: This reference is close to the one listed DNS poisoning is the correct answer. This is how DNS DOS attack can occur. If the actual DNS records are unattainable to the attacker for him to alter in this fashion, which they should be, the attacker can insert this data into the cache of there server instead of replacing the actual records, which is referred to as cache poisoning.
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Question 1.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Kara Lang uses a Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS273. Kara Lang uses Microsoft Outlook 2002 to send e-mail messages. Kara Lang wants ITCertKeys-WS273 to be configured to view Microsoft Outlook shortcuts on the left side of the Microsoft Outlook window when ever she is busy with e-mail messages.
Which option should be used on the View menu of Microsoft Outlook?
A. Kara Lang should use the Outlook Bar option.
B. Kara Lang should use the Folder List option.
C. Kara Lang should use the Preview Pane option.
D. Kara Lang should use the Auto Preview option.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Outlook Bar option in the View menu will display Outlook shortcuts on the left side when creating an e-mail message.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Folder List option controls whether the Folder List is displayed in Outlook.
C: The Preview Pane option shows the content of the e-mail messages that will appear at the bottom of the Outlook screen.
D: The Auto Preview option controls what kind of view you want, maybe a small preview of each e-mail message.
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. Ally Wagner is the CEO of ITCertKeys.com and uses a client computer named ITCertKeys-WS272. You have been instructed to add a new personal folder to Microsoft Outlook 2002 for Ally Wagner.
What should you do?
A. In Outlook 2002, select Toolbars from the View menu. Then click the New button.
B. In Outlook 2002, select Data File Management from the File menu. On the Outlook
Data Files dialog box, click the Close button.
C. In Outlook 2002, select Data File Management from the File menu. On the Outlook
Data Files dialog box, click the Add button. Then click the OK button twice.
D. In Outlook 2002, select Data File Management from the File menu. Then click the Open Folder
button. In the Open Outlook Data File window, click the Outlook data file and then click OK
twice.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If Ally Wagner click File, click New, click Outlook data file and then click the OK button twice; it will create a new Outlook personal folder file.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Click View and then click Outlook Bar in the View menu; will not create a new Outlook personal folder file.
B: Click File and click Data File Management and then click the Close button, will not create a new Outlook personal folder file.
D: Click File, click Open, click Outlook data file and then click the file in the Open Outlook Data File window and click OK twice; will not create a new Outlook personal folder file.
Question 3.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. Andy Reid is the manager of the Finance department at ITCertKeys.com. Andy Reid needs to send a confidential report to members of the board. Andy Reid attempts to encrypt the message to ensure that no unauthorized recipients can read the e-mail. He encrypts a test message and sends it to his secretary. However, the secretary reports that the message was not encrypted. Andy Reid contacts you for assistance. He wants to ensure that he can send encrypted e-mail messages.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Andy Reid to obtain a digital ID from the Exchange Server.
B. Instruct Andy Reid to use NTFS file encryption.
C. Instruct Andy Reid to obtain an encrypted e-mail message from the Exchange Server.
D. Instruct Andy Reid to obtain an encryption algorithm from the Exchange Server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
For Andy Reid to send encrypted e-mail messages, he should get a digital ID from the Exchange server.
Incorrect Answers:
B: NTFS file encryption can be used to encrypt files on an NTFS partition. It cannot be used to encrypt email messages.
C: Obtaining an encrypted e-mail message will not allow Andy Reid to encrypt his own messages.
D: Andy Reid does not need an encryption algorithm to send encrypted messages.
Question 4.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth uses a client computer named ITCertKeys-WS270. Andy Booth uses Microsoft Outlook 2003 to send e-mail messages to users on the ITCertKeys.com network. Some of the messages Andy Booth sends contain critical information. Andy Booth wants to ensure that only authorized recipients can read his e-mail messages. He also wants the recipients of his e-mail messages to be warned if the message was tampered with enroute to the recipient's inbox.
What should Andy Booth do?
A. He should create a rule in Microsoft Outlook.
B. He should compress and then encrypt his e-mail messages.
C. He should use Antivirus software to scan all outgoing e-mail messages.
D. He should encrypt and digitally sign his e-mail messages.
E. He should use a firewall.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Andy Booth should use encryption and digital signatures. Encryption is used to encrypt the messages and the digital signatures are used to allow the receiver to read the content.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Rules are applied to incoming e-mail messages. They are not used to secure outgoing messages.
B: A file cannot be compressed and encrypted at the same time.
C: Scanning outgoing e-mail messages for virus does not ensure that only authorized users can read the e-mail.
E: Firewall provides packet-filtering for traffic entering a network. It does not secure e-mail messages.
Question 5.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Mia Hamm is a member of the Research department. One morning Mia Hamm complains that the dictionary does not contain several industry-specific words that are used in her Microsoft Word document. Mia Hamm wants Microsoft Word to automatically recognize these words when they are spelled correctly, rather than highlighting them as misspelled words.
What should you do to ensure that Word does not highlight these industry-specific words are misspelled?
A. Right-click the Spelling & Grammar Status icon at the bottom of the Word window.
Select Options from the context menu. Then click the Check Document button.
B. Create a text file that contains the desired words. Open the Options dialog box. Then specify
the text file's location in the Tools path on the File Location tab.
C. Open the Options dialog box. Ensure that the Suggest from the main dictionary only check box
is selected on the Spelling & Grammar tab.
D. Open the Options dialog box. Create a custom dictionary. Then right-click the desired words in
a document and select Add to Dictionary from the context menu.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question tests your knowledge of how Word handles words not found in its main dictionary. There is no way to know this other than to do it. The answer listed is the correct way to do this. Microsoft creates a custom.dic file for you when Word is installed. This is the custom dictionary file.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There is no such icon as "Spelling and Grammar Status." Even if there were, clicking Check Document will only compare the words in the document against the main dictionary file. Since the custom words did not appear in the main dictionary, they will still show up as misspelled.
B: There is no way to specify a custom dictionary from the File Location tab. This tab is for items such as save location, template location, etc. Below is the File Location tab for Office 2003, but office XP is exactly the same:
C: Ensuring that the Check from main dictionary only checkbox is checked is the exact opposite of what needs to be done. If this box is checked, Word will never check for any documents outside of the main dictionary, and the industry specific words will always be marked as incorrect even if a custom dictionary is specified.
Question 6.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Kara Lang is a member of the Research department. Kara Lang complains that when she scrolls through a Microsoft Word document that contains graphics, the graphics display becomes corrupted.
What should you do first to ensure that the graphics do not appear corrupted when Kara Lang scrolls through Word documents?
A. Create a new user profile.
B. Reduce the Display settings to 256 colors.
C. Adjust the mouse pointer acceleration to a lower setting.
D. Adjust the hardware accelerator of the video adapter to a lower setting.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The settings are configured to rely too much on the processor on the graphics card which seems to be a little too weak for the current settings. Adjust graphics hardware acceleration by clicking Start, point to Settings, and then click Control Panel. Double-click Display. On the Settings tab, click Advanced. Click the Troubleshoot tab. Move the Hardware Acceleration slider two notches to the left of Full (the Disable all cursor and advanced drawing accelerations setting). Click OK, and then click OK again.
Question 7.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Sales department. Rory Allen complains that Office applications display animated characters when he accesses Help. Rory Allen wants Office to permanently stop displaying the Help character.
What should you instruct Rory Allen do to configure Office so that the character is no longer displayed?
A. Right-click the character and select Hide.
B. Delete the Microsoft Agent DLL file located in the Windows System32 folder.
C. Select Hide the Office Assistant from the Help menu in each Office application.
D. Right-click the character and select Options from the context menu. Then clear the Use the
Office Assistant check box.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Office Assistant is a feature included in Microsoft Office starting with Microsoft Office 97, and has been dubbed "Clippy" or "Clippit" after its default animated paperclip representation. However, Clippit is actually the default assistant's official name. Right-clicking on the character and selecting Hide will only remove the assistant temporarily. Manually removing .dll files from the system is never a good way to solve a problem as this could cause more problems. Selecting Hide the Office Assistant from the Help menu is the same action as right-clicking on the assistant and selecting Hide. Clearing the Use the Office Assistant from the Options menu when right-clicking the assistant is the correct way to permanently remove the Office Assistant.
Question 8.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth is a member of the Research and Development department. One morning Andy Booth complains that he receives a document containing mechanical drawings for a new design, but the document will not open on his computer.
What should you do to ensure that Andy Booth can open the document?
A. Open the document by using the Windows Photo and Fax Viewer.
B. Open a new Microsoft Paint document. Drag the file into the paint document.
C. Open a new Microsoft Word document. Drag the file into the new Word document.
D. Download and install the Microsoft Visio Viewer from the Microsoft Office Download Center
Web Site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
.vsd files are created in Microsoft Visio. Microsoft offers free of charge a Microsoft Visio Viewer that allows anyone to view Visio drawings and diagrams inside their Microsoft Internet Explorer version 5.0 or later Web browser.
Question 9.
HOTSPOT
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Desktop Support team which you are part of. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Ally Wagner has contacted you. Ally Wagner has upgraded her computer from Microsoft Windows 98 to Microsoft Windows XP Professional. Ally Wagner has now a problem; she cannot run the accounting application that she used before the upgrade. You tell Ally Wagner to run the application in Windows 98 mode, but she does not know how to implement the change.
In the exhibit, what should Ally Wagner do?
Answer:
Explanation:
On the application Property dialog box, the Compatibility tab is used to select the operating mode.
Question 10.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Desktop Support team which you are part of. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Kara Lang has contacted you. Kara Lang has upgraded her second computer from Microsoft Windows 98 to Microsoft Windows XP Home. She needs to use a financial application that does not run on Windows XP Home. On her other computer she used to configure the application to run on Windows XP in Windows 98 mode. Kara Lang cannot remember how to invoke the necessary tool.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Kara Lang to open Component Services.
B. Instruct Kara Lang to open Computer Management.
C. Instruct Kara Lang to open the executable's Properties dialog box.
D. Instruct Kara Lang to open the Upgrade Advisor.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The executable's Properties dialog box will allow Kara Lang to choose the operating system for the financing application to run.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Component Services will allow the user to configure software component, not application compatibility settings.
B: The Computer Management will allow the user to configure device drivers, format hard drives etc.
D: The Upgrade Advisor is run before an upgrade.
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