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Braindumps for "190-621" Exam

newly update questions from itcertkeys

 

Question 1.
Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one of the following describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?

A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The
administrator can specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary
directories. This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary
directories. This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.

Answer: D

Question 2.
Koki added a second LAN protocol to a Domino SERVER. However, the new protocol did not work. To troubleshoot the problem, which one of the following port definitions must Koki specify?

A. Port and Notes Network name
B. I/O and IRQ of the interface card
C. Port name prefixes "LAN" or "COM"
D. Slot number of the additional interface card

Answer: D

Question 3.
Which one of the following does topology mapping display?

A. The number of users hitting the Domino servers
B. The location of users hitting the Domino servers
C. A single domain's messaging or replication topology
D. Multiple domain's messaging or replication topologies

Answer: C

Question 4.
Which one of the following statements best describes the use of extended ACL?

A. It only applies to groups.
B. It overrides database ACL settings.
C. It fine tunes database ACL settings.
D. It allows fine tune access to database from web client

Answer: C

Question 5.
Cheng noticed that documents deleted from APP1.NSF keep reappearing after replication has taken place.

Which one of the following explains why this is happening?

A. The deletion stubs are replicated on a daily basis.
B. The purge interval is more frequent than the replication schedule.
C. The replication schedule is more frequent than the purge interval.
D. The document is deleted in only one replica and not in another replica.

Answer: B

Question 6.
A discussion database has been deployed on ITCertKeys 1 and ITCertKeys 2. ITCertKeys 1 should receive everything other than ACL changes and design changes when the server replicates with ITCertKeys 2.

Which one of the following access levels should ITCertKeys 2 be assigned in ITCertKeys 1's replica of the database?

A. Editor with the option to create shared views disabled.
B. Manager with the option to Create shared views displayed.
C. Designer with the option to Create private views disabled.
D. Manager with the No ACL option selected

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "E20-533" Exam

Passed today with 958

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Braindumps for "JN0-140" Exam

Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-AC) 140 Exam

 Question 1.
Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.)

A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.

Answer: B, C

Question 2.
Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check server connectivity?

A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which statement is correct about defining an Intranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client?

A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy.
B. You must know the exact model number of the Intranet Enforcer.
C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy.
D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Intranet Enforcer will belong.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Intranet Controller?

A. VLAN ID
B. Hostname
C. Domain name
D. Administrative timeout

Answer: C

Question 5.
What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy?

A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server
B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies
C. to allow or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network
D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Intranet 
    Controller

Answer: B

Question 6.
What is true about the operation of the Intranet Enforcer?

A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It allows access based on auth table entries.
C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.

Answer: B

Question 7.
On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Intranet Controller overwrite when the user accesses the Intranet Controller? (Choose three.)

A. SSID
B. login name
C. MAC address
D. wired adapters
E. encryption method

Answer: A, D, E

Question 8.
What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints?

A. Intranet Enforcer firmware
B. Intranet Controller rollback software
C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP)
D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP)

Answer: D

Question 9.
Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.)

A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement.
B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query.
C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter.
D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries.
E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link.

Answer: A, B, E

Question 10.
A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and must choose a deployment method that everyone can use. 

Which deployment method allows for multiple platforms?

A. IPsec enforcement
B. 802.1X enforcement
C. Source IP enforcement
D. Odyssey Access Client

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "FN0-405" Exam

Foundry Networks Certifed Network Professional

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 
Which bridge or bridges in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge?

A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2

Answer:  A, B

Question 2.
Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors?

A. route-reflector group
B. Community group
C. Confederation group
D. Peer group

Answer:  D

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 
Which port or ports in the exhibit will be blocked?

A. R&D e3
B. R&D e1
C. R&D 20
D. HR e10
E. HR e11
F. HR e20
G. Distribution_2 e10
H. Distribution_2 e1

Answer:  C,H

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 
Which bridge in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge?

A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2

Answer:  D

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 
Which port or ports the exhibit will be blocked?

A. R&D e3
B. R&D e1
C. HR e10
D. HR e11
E. Distribution_2 e10
F. Distribution_2 e1

Answer:  A, D

Question 6.
Router ITCertKeys A has three iBGP peers: Router ITCertKeys 1 Router ITCertKeys 2 and Router ITCertKeys 3. Routers ITCertKeys 1, ITCertKeys 2, and ITCertKeys 3 are advertising the same destination networks. Router ITCertKeys 1 announces routes with the default local preference. Router ITCertKeys 2 announces the same routes with a local preference of 200. Router ITCertKeys 3 announces the same routes with a local preference of 1. 

Which path does Router ITCertKeys A take?

A. Router ITCertKeys 1
B. Router ITCertKeys 2
C. Router ITCertKeys 3
D. not applicable, because local preference only applies to ebgp peers
E. not applicable, because local preference only applies to local router

Answer:  C

Question 7.
A change in a route state, from up to down or down to up is called?

A. route dampen
B. port flap
C. route flap
D. port dampen

Answer:  C

Question 8.
What cli command shows the flap dampening statistics?

A. show ip bgp summary
B. show ip bgp neighbor  flap-summary
C. show ip bgp neighbor  flap-statistics
D. show ip bgp neighbor  route-flap

Answer:  C

Question 9.
What is the BGP4 state called when the router is waiting to start the BGP4 process?

A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle
E. Confirm
F. Established

Answer:  D

Question 10.
Exhibit:
 
What does the * in the status field of network 204.17.220.0/24 indicate?

A. This is the best route to use
B. This route is currently dampened and is unusable
C. Has a history of flapping and is unreachable now
D. Has a history of flapping but is currently usable

Answer:  D

Question 11.
Which of the following are advantages of Peer Groups? Choose all that apply.

A. Allows resetting neighbor sessions on a Peer Group basis
B. Simplifies neighbor configuration
C. Route updates from one EBGP neighbor in a peer group can be passed to other EBGP 
    neighbors in the same peer group
D. Conserves memory

Answer:  A, B, D



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Braindumps for "642-544" Exam

Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response

 Question 1.
The definitions on the left to the appropriate terms on the right
 
Answer:
 

Question 2.
What will happen if you try to run a Cisco Security MARS query that will take a long time to complete?

A. After submitting the query, the Cisco Security MARS GUI screen will be locked up until the 
    query is completed.
B. The query will be automatically saved as a rule.
C. The query will be automatically saved as a report.
D. You will be prompted to "Submit Batch" to run the query in batch mode.

Answer:  D

Question 3.
The Cisco Security MARS appliance supports which protocol for data archiving and restoring?

A. NFS
B. TFTP
C. FTP
D. Secure FTP
E. SSH

Answer:  A

Question 4.
What is a benefit of using the dollar variable (as in $TARGET01) when creating queries in Cisco Security MARS?

A. The dollar variable enables multiple queries to reference the same common 5-tuple information 
    using a variable.
B. The dollar variable ensures that the probes and attacks that are reported are happening to the 
    same host.
C. The dollar variable allows matching of any unknown reporting device.
D. The dollar variable allows matching of any event type groups.
E. The dollar variable enables the same query to be applied to different reports.
F. The dollar variable enables the same query to be applied to different cases.

Answer:  B

Question 5.
A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. 

Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?

A. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol
B. use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
C. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
D. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways

Answer:  B

Question 6.
What are three ways to add devices to the Cisco Security MARS appliance? (Choose three.)

A. import the devices from CiscoWorks
B. import the devices from Cisco Security Manager
C. load the devices from seed files
D. use SNMP auto discovery
E. use CDP to automatically discover the neighboring devices
F. manually add the devices, one at a time

Answer:  C, D, F

Question 7.
Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely, or by just logging them to the database?

A. creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
B. creating drop rules
C. inactivating the rules
D. inactivating the events
E. deleting the false-positive events from the Incidents page
F. deleting the false-positive events from the Event Management page

Answer:  Pending

Question 8.
Which three statements are true about Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.)

A. There are three types of rules.
B. Rules can be saved as reports.
C. Rules can be deleted.
D. Rules trigger incidents.
E. Rules can be defined using a seed file.
F. Rules can be created using a query.

Answer:  B

Question 9.
Which of the following alert actions can be transmitted to a user as notification that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired, and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)

A. Distributed Threat Mitigation
B. Short Message Service
C. SNMP trap
D. XML notification
E. syslog
F. OPSEC-LEA (clear and encrypted)

Answer:  A, D, F

Question 10.
To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS server to publish logs to the Cisco Security MARS, which log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS server?

A. pnLog agent
B. Cisco Security MARS agent
C. SNARE
D. None. Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device.

Answer:  B, D



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Braindumps for "156-215" Exam

Check Point Security Administration NGX

 Question 1.
Which VPN-1 NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy?

A. Policy Package management
B. cpinfo
C. cpconfig
D. Database Revision Control
E. upgrade_export/import

Answer:  D

Question 2.
In SmartView Tracker, you see an entry for an outbound connection showing address translation. But when setting SmartView Tracker to show all entries for that connection, only outbound entries show. 

What is the possible cause for this?

A. The entry is for a Manual Dynamic NAT connection, from a specific host infected by a worm.
B. The entry is for a Manual Static NAT connection, where inbound traffic is managed by a 
    separate rule.
C. The entry is for a Static NAT connection, from a specific host that has been infected by a 
    worm.
D. The entry is for a Dynamic NAT connection from a specific host.

Answer:  B

Question 3.
Which of the following commands is used to restore VPN-1 NGX configuration information?

A. gunzip
B. cpconfig
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cpinfo
E. upgrade_import

Answer:  E

Question 4.
Which OPSEC server is used to prevent users from accessing certain Web sites?

A. CVP
B. DEFENDER
C. URI
D. FTP
E. UFP

Answer:  E

Question 5.
Your organization ITCertKeys.com's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway. 

How would you request and apply the license?

A. Request a central license, using the remote Security Gateway's IP address. Apply he license 
    locally with the fwputlic command.
B. Request a central license, using the SmartCenter Server's IP address. Apply the license locally 
    on the remote Gateway with the fwputlic command.
C. Request a central license, using your SmartCenter Server's IP address. Attach the license to 
    the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
D. Request a central license, using the remote Gateway's IP address. Attach the license to the 
    remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
E. Request local licenses for all Gateways separately. Apply the license locally on the remote 
    Gateways with the fwputlic command.

Answer:  C

Question 6.
How do you create more granular control over commands, such as CWD and FIND, in FTP data connections?

A. Use Global Properties > Security Server settings.
B. Use the gateway object's Security Server settings.
C. Use the Service field of the Rule Base.
D. Use an FTP resource object.
E. Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.

Answer:  E

Question 7.
Which of the following is the final step in a VPN-1 NGX backup?

A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command.
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location.
C. Copy the conf directory to another location.
D. Run the upgrade_export command.
E. Run the cpstop command.

Answer:  B

Question 8.
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on SmartDashboard, for use with an LDAP server:

A. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and 
    create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application.
B. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and 
    create an LDAP resource object.
C. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server, and 
    configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.
E. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP 
    Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.

Answer:  C
340, Check Point Security Administration NGX I Student Handbook

Question 9.
You want to create an IKE VPN between two VPN-1 NGX Security Gateways, to protect two networks. The network behind one Gateway is 10.15.0.0/16, and network 192.168.9.0/24 is behind the peer's Gateway. 

Which type of address translation should you use, to ensure the two networks access each other through the VPN tunnel?

A. Hide NAT
B. None
C. Dynamic NAT
D. Static NAT
E. Manual NAT

Answer:  B

Question 10.
Yoav is a Security Administrator preparing to implement a VPN solution for his multisite organization. 

To comply with industry regulations, Yoav's VPN solution must meet the following requirement:
* Portability: Standard
* Key management: Automatic, external PKI
* Session keys: Changed at configured times during a connection's lifetime
* Key length: No less that 128-bit
* Data integrity: Secure against inversion and brute-force attacks

What is the most appropriate setting Yoav should choose?

A. IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and DES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash
B. IKE VPNs: SHA1 encryption for IKE Phase 1, and MD5 encryption for Phase 2; AES hash
C. IKE VPNs: CAST encryption for IKE Phase 1, and SHA1 encryption for Phase 2; DES hash
D. IKE VPNs: DES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and 3DES encryption for Phase 2; MD5 hash
E. IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and AES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash

Answer:  E


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Braindumps for "9L0-616" Exam

Xsan Administration v10.4 Exam

 Question 1.
Which method of increasing the storage capacity of a SAN does NOT require that a volume be unmounted and stopped?

A. add LUNs
B. add volumes
C. add storage pools
D. reduce block allocation size

Answer:  B

Question 2.
You want to use different block allocation sizes for two applications. To do so, you must set up a ________ for each application.

A. LUN
B. volume
C. storage pool
D. metadata controller

Answer:  B

Question 3.
You try to save a file from an Xsan client to an Xsan volume, but receive an alert message that indicates error -1425 has occurred. 

What is the MOST LIKELY cause?

A. The Xsan volume is busy.
B. Saving the file would cause you to exceed your hard quota.
C. Another user is saving changes simultaneously to the same file on the Xsan volume.
D. You are trying to save the file to a folder or volume where you do not have write permissions.

Answer:  B

Question 4.
Xsan is a ________ file system.

A. local
B. cluster
C. network
D. distributed

Answer:  B

Question 5.
You are creating an Xsan volume in Xsan Admin. Below is a list of steps required to accomplish this task. 

In what order should you perform these steps?

A. label LUNs
B. create LUNs
C. create volumes
D. create storage pools
E. add LUNs to storage pools

A. BACDE
B. BADEC
C. CBADE
D. CDBAE

Answer:  A

Question 6.
In Xsan, you can set up an affinity between a folder and a ________.

A. volume
B. hard disk
C. storage pool
D. metadata controller

Answer:  C

Question 7.
Fibre Channel switched fabrics use ____-bit addresses.

A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Answer:  C

Question 8.
Which command-line utility can you use to return a LUN to a state in which Disk Utility can initialize it?

A. cvfsck
B. cvmkfs
C. cvlabel
D. cvadmin
E. cvupdatefs

Answer:  C

Question 9.
You try to set up an access control list (ACL) for several folders on your Xsan volume, but you are unable to do so. 

What is MOST LIKELY preventing you from completing this task?

A. ACLs have not been enabled for your Xsan volume.
B. Your client is not bound to the Open Directory master.
C. Your controller is not bound to the Open Directory master.
D. Your Xsan volume has not been mounted on the primary metadata controller.

Answer:  A

Question 10.
Setting up a separate storage pool to store both metadata and journal data can ________.

A. complicate user quota configuration
B. improve I/O throughput for user data
C. increase free disk space on the primary metadata controller
D. cause data loss due to multiple files having the same address

Answer:  B


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Braindumps for "9L0-615" Exam

Network Account Management v10.1 Exam

 Question 1.
Which comparison of Mac OS X Server and Windows user account password policy enforcement is TRUE?

A. Mac OS X Server does not let you set inactivity limits on user account passwords, but 
    Windows does.
B. Both Mac OS X Server and Windows allow you to enforce a minimum length for user account 
    passwords.
C. Neither Mac OS X Server nor Windows has a graphical user interface for entering user 
    account password policies.
D. Both Mac OS X Server and Windows require that user account passwords be different from 
    account names.
E. Mac OS X Serverlets you require that account passwords be different from account names, 
    but Windows does not.

Answer:  A

Question 2.
How do you configure an Apple Remote Desktop admin computer to use a remote Task Server?

A. Run the cfgtaskserver command line utility with the Task Server's IP address as its parameter.
B. Open Remote Desktop and select your Task Server from the list that appears in the Task 
    Server window.
C. Open Remote Desktop on the Task Server, and type the host name or lP address of the ARD 
    admin computer.
D. Open Remote Desktop and select "Use remote Task Server" in the Task Server preferences 
    pane of Remote Desktop, then enter the host name or IP address of your Task Server.

Answer:  D

Question 3.
In Workgroup Manager, which managed preference pane lets you configure proxy server settings for accounts?

A. Sharing
B. Internet
C. Network
D. Applications
E. System Preferences

Answer:  C

Question 4.
What is the maximum number of computers that can appear in the All Computers list in Remote Desktop?

A. 1,000
B. 10,000
C. There is no defined upper limit.
D. The upper limit depends on your user license.

Answer:  D

Question 5.
In Workgroup Manager, which management frequency cannot be used to manage the System Preferences for accounts?

A. Never
B. Once
C. Often
D. Always

Answer:  B

Question 6.
Which Login preference can you set in Workgroup Manager for computer lists, but not for users or for groups?

A. Enable Fast User Switching
B. Open Specified Items at Login
C. Add Network Home Share Point
D. Hide Opened Login Items after Login

Answer:  A

Question 7.
How must you authenticate if you want to create a managed network view?

A. You must authenticate in the managed domain as a domain administrator.
B. You must authenticate with the Apple Remote Desktop password on your server computer.
C. You must authenticate as an administrator on the Mac OS X Server computer that manages 
    your domain.
D. No special authentication is required; anyone can use Network preferences to create a 
    network view named 'Managed" which will be managed automatically by the Mac OS X Server 
    computer that manages your domain.

Answer:  A

Question 8.
You want your Mac OS X Server to provide SMB service. 

What directory service role should it be configured to use?

A. The Mac OS X Servers role must be Domain Member.
B. The Mac OS x Server's role must be Standalone Server.
C. The Mac OS X Server's role must be Backup Domain Controller.
D. The Mac OS X Server's role must be Primary Domain Controller.
E. The Mac OS X Server can use any directory service role available.

Answer:  E

Question 9
Which statement best describes how you configure managed Applications preferences in
Workgroup Manager?

A. You create a list of users who can open any application on the local drive.
B. You create a list of users who can open specified applications when logged into their mobile 
    account.
C. You select an account, then create a list of applications that can or cannot be opened by that 
    account.
D. You create a list of approved or unapproved applications, then apply the list to selected user 
    accounts.

Answer:  C

Question 10.
You can generate client computer reports on your Apple Remote Desktop admin computer, but not using your remote ARD Task Server. 

What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. SSH is disabled on client computers.
B. The Mac OS X firewall is blocking port 22.
C. The Mac OS X firewall is blocking port 3283.
D. The network DNS is improperly configured.

Answer:  C



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Braindumps for "9L0-614" Exam

Mac OS X Server Command and Line Install and Configuration v10.4

 Question 1.
A new Xserve is booted from the Mac OS X Server v10.4 installation disc. 

Which password will let you connect to the Xserve remotely?

A. the sequence of characters, "PASSWORD"
B. the first eight characters of the Xserve serial number
C. the first eight characters of the Xserve Ethernet MAC address
D. the first eight characters of the Mac OS X Server software serial number

Answer:  B

Question 2.
Which command-line tool can help you identify the configuration file that is written to when you change an option from the graphical interface?

A. ps
B. otool
C. tcpdump
D. fs_usage
E. netstat -a

Answer:  D

Question 3.
Certain tools must be used to configure a Mac OS X Server computer from the command line. Other tools are optional. 

Which tool below is optional when configuring Mac OS X Server from the command line?

A. ifconfig
B. serversetup
C. networksetup

Answer:  A

Question 4.
You want to enable secure connections to your AFP service. 

Which command can you use to do so?

A. sudo serveradmin settings afp:SSHTunnel = yes
B. sudo serveradmin command afp:setSSHTunnel:yes
C. sudo networksetup -CreateBond afp:SSHTunnel
D. sudo networksetup settings -setappletalk "Built-in Ethernet" = SSH

Answer:  A

Question 5.
Where are records for share points stored?

A. in /etc/afpd.conf
B. in /etc/aftovertcp.cfg
C. in the local NetInfo database
D. in the LDAP database of the Open Directory Master

Answer:  C

Question 6.
Server Admin typically sends commands to servermgrd using ________.

A. SSH
B. SNMP
C. XML over HTTPS
D. an Apple-proprietary data stream over HTTP

Answer:  C

Question 7.
Which statement is true of Server Admin's default SSL configuration?

A. Each server has a unique, self-signed certificate.
B. SSL is disabled because no valid certificates are pre-installed.
C. Each server has a unique certificate signed by Apple's Certificate Authority.
D. All servers use the identical, pre-installed certificate signed by Apple's Certificate Authority.

Answer:  A

Question 8.
You are using the command-line installer to install PretendCoTools.pkg. You want to install it on a non-boot volume mounted on a server. 

Which command will help you determine whether the package supports installation on that volume?

A. hdiutil verify PretendCoTools.pkg
B. installer-volinfo -pkg PretendCoTools.pkg
C. lsbom PretendCoTools.pkg/Contents/Archive.bom
D. cat PretendCoTools.pkg/contents/Resources/preflight

Answer:  B

Question 9.
You want to use the built-in software RAID in Mac Os X Server to create a RAID 1 set across two disks in an Xserve. 

Which command will accomplish this goal?

A. megaraid create R1 -drive 0 1 -stripesize 64
B. diskutil createRAID mirror RAID_Volume HFS+ disk0 disk1
C. diskutil createRAID stripe RAID_Volume HFS+ disk0 disk1
D. diskutil createRAID stripe-distributed-parity RAID_Volume HFS+ disk0 disk1

Answer:  B

Question 10.
You want to update the software on a headless Xserve over an SSH connection to the server, but one of the component installers has a graphical element that displays a splash screen. 

How can you prevent the installer from launching this graphical element?

A. Run softwareupdate with the -headless option.
B. Set the environment variable COMMAND_LINE_INSTALL to 1.
C. Use SystemStarter to start the HeadlessStartup startup item.
D. Download the updates with softwareupdate -d, then install them with installer -noGUI.

Answer:  B



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Braindumps for "9L0-613" Exam

Podcast and Streamed Intemet Media Administration Exam

 Question 1.
Which file format and audio codec should you use when creating enhanced audio podcasts?

A. M4A and AAC
B. WAV and MP3
C. WAV and MP3 VBR
D. M4A and Protected AAC

Answer:  A

Question 2.
Podcast aggregators are applications that search, format, and display podcasts, based on subscriptions to ________.

A. metadata
B. RSS feeds
C. entries from the iTunes Music Store
D. HTML files associated with podcasts

Answer:  B

Question 3.
Weblogs can be published and syndicated using which THREE protocols? (Choose THREE.)

A. RSS
B. RTP
C. RSS2
D. RTSP
E. Atom
F. PCAST

Answer:  A, C, E

Question 4.
Which application can be used to create a live stream that anyone with an Internet connection can access?

A. QuickTime Pro
B. QuickTime Player
C. QuickTime Broadcaster
D. QuickTime Streaming Server

Answer:  C

Question 5.
What feature of the Weblog Server is defined below? An electronic link between two entries that lets a weblog author (or blogger) respond or refer to another blogger's entry by using an entry on his or her own weblog.

A. GUID URL
B. trackback URL
C. syndication URL
D. default domain URL

Answer:  B

Question 6.
You have created a podcast and want users to access it via iTunes or their iPod. 

Which of the following hosting options will NOT help you achieve your goal?

A. iWeb and .Mac
B. Web Server in Mac OS X Server
C. Weblog Server in Mac OS X Server
D. QuickTime Streaming Server in Mac OS X Server

Answer:  D

Question 7.
Where are QuickTime Streaming Server user accounts stored by default?

A. /var/db/netinfo/local.nidb
B. /Library/QuickTimeStreaming/Config/qtusers
C. /System/Library/QuickTimeStreaming/Config/qtusers
D. /Library/Application Support/Apple/QuickTime/Streaming/Users/qtusers

Answer:  B

Question 8.
You want to post a podcast to your new weblog server. You have logged in, configured your first weblog category, and clicked New Entry to create your first weblog entry. 

Which of these steps should you perform NEXT?

A. Click Advanced to add your podcast file.
B. Test your podcast subscription from iTunes.
C. Test your podcast weblog entry from a web browser.
D. Click New Episode to add the first podcast episode to your weblog.

Answer:  A

Question 9.
What is an advantage of streaming media via HTTP?

A. Streaming media via HTTP allows you to multicast live streams.
B. Streaming media via HTTP ensures that all movie packets are delivered and that dropped 
    packets are retransmitted.
C. Streams delivered via HTTP allow users to skip to any point in a movie on the server without 
    downloading the intervening material.
D. Streams delivered via HTTP allow long movies and continuous transmissions to be viewed 
    without having to store more than a few seconds of data locally.

Answer:  B

Question 10.
Which TWO are valid iPod video formats? (Choose TWO.)

A. H.264 (768 kbps, 320x240, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz)
B. .MOV (2.5 Mbps, 640x480, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz)
C. MPEG-2 (768 kbps, 320x240, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz)
D. MPEG-3 (2.5 Mbps, 480x480, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz)
E. MPEG-4 (2.5 Mbps, 480x480, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz)

Answer:  A, E 


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