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Question 1.
Which response does the Content Router offer to the requesting client?
A. Hop count to the mirrored site.
B. The network load at the mirrored site.
C. An HTTP 202 redirect to the closest serving content engine.
D. The amount of time the request took to get to the CRA.
E. The name of the Authoritative Server (AS) for the domain.
Answer: C
Explanation:
On page 1-8 of the Cisco Content Services Switch Content Load-Balancing Configuration Guide, Software Version 7.40 it states when it becomes necessary to move a client to a new service“The CSS sends a 302 redirect to the client’s browser to tell the browser to reconnect using the same DNS name”
Question 2.
Which command is required to enable a service on a Content Service Module (CSM)?
A. start
B. enable
C. active
D. in service
E. No command is required.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Router(config-module-csm)# inservice Enables the server.
Question 3.
Why is the three-way handshake mechanism required for TCP session establishment?
A. It keeps both sides of a connection from timing out.
B. It ensures that both ends of a connection are synchronously established.
C. There is less chance of interference and the session getting dropped.
D. It ensures the connection is established between the correct stations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
TCP Connection Establishment
To use reliable transport services, TCP hosts must establish a connection-oriented session with one another.
Connection establishment is performed by using a "three-way handshake" mechanism.
A three-way handshake synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers. This mechanism also guarantees that both sides are ready to transmit data and know that the other side is ready to transmit as well. This is necessary so that packets are not transmitted or retransmitted during session establishment or after session termination.
Each host randomly chooses a sequence number used to track bytes within the stream it is sending and receiving. Then, the three-way handshake proceeds in the following manner: The first host (Host A) initiates a connection by sending a packet with the initial sequence number (X) and SYN bit set to indicate a connection request. The second host (Host B) receives the SYN, records the sequence number X, and replies by acknowledging the SYN (with an ACK = X + 1).
Host B includes its own initial sequence number (SEQ = Y). An ACK = 20 means the host has received bytes 0 through 19 and expects byte 20 next. This technique is called forward acknowledgment. Host A then acknowledges all bytes Host B sent with a forward acknowledgment indicating the next byte Host A expects to receive (ACK = Y + 1). Data transfer then can begin.
Question 4.
What are the parameters required for configuring a service for SLL termination?
(Choose three)
A. Keepalive type ssl
B. Type
C. Ip address
D. Slot
E. Max-connections
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
Configuring a Service for SSL Termination
An SSL proxy list may belong to multiple SSL services (one SSL proxy list per service), and an SSL service may belong to multiple content rules. You can apply the services to content rules that allow the CSS to direct SSL requests for content.
Note:
The CSS supports one active SSL service for each SSL module in the CSS (one SSL service per slot).
You can configure more than one SSL service for a slot but only a single SSL service can be active at a time.
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Question 1. Which of the following LAN connection technologies has a full duplex speed of 200Mbps and uses a CAT5e cable? A. 1000Base-X B. 100Base-FX C. 1000Base-TX D. 100Base-T Answer: D Question 2. A technician must enable which of the following services to prevent broadcast storms? A. DHCP B. Port mirroring C. Spanning tree D. Bonding Answer: C Question 3. One end of a CAT5 cable is punched down following the 568B standard. The other end should be terminated using which standard to make a straight-through cable? A. 568B B. RJ-45 C. 568A D. RJ-11 Answer: A Question 4. Which of the following IPv4 address pairs would be able to share files on a network using a hub? A. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16 B. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/24 C. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16 D. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16 Answer: D Question 5. Which of the following networks has the LEAST likelihood of collisions? A. Ring B. Mesh C. Star D. Bus Answer: A Question 6. A technician is configuring a router for a SOHO network. The technician has changed the IP address scheme on the router and disabled DHCP service before the wireless was configured. After the router updates the information, the PC can no longer connect to the router. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to reestablish the connection while maintaining the routers current configuration state? A. Restart the PC so it obtains a new IP address from the router. B. Restart the router so that the PC obtains a new IP address. C. Assign a static IP address on the PC that matches the router. D. Use APIPA to connect the PC to the router. Answer: C Question 7. Which of the following is the number of bits used for IPv6? A. 128 B. 32 C. 64 D. 256 Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following network components would be used to create VLANs? A. Routers B. Gateways C. Switches D. Bridges Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following protocols is the MOST susceptible to a packet sniffer? A. SFTP B. SSH C. HTTPS D. SNMPv2 Answer: D Question 10. Which of the following WAN technologies uses fiber as a transmission medium? A. T1 B. ADSL C. E1 D. SONET Answer: D
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Question 1.
Physical files contain two components, one of which is data.
Which of the following is the other?
A. Journal
B. Catalog
C. Primary key
D. File description
Answer: D
Question 2.
The development staff has asked the system administrator to create an Encoded Vector Index (EVI) over several database tables.
Which of the following will create the EVI?
A. CREATE INDEX index_name ENCODED VECTOR ON TABLE_NAME
B. CRTLF FILE(index_name) SRCFILE(SRCLIB/SRCFILE) OPTION(*EVI)
C. CRTEVI FILE(index_name) SRCFILE(SRCLIB/SRCFILE) OPTION(*ASC)
D. In Operations Navigator, Database, Index, use the create index wizard.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following will ensure that parent/foreign key relationships are maintained?
A. Database view
B. Database index
C. Commitment control
D. Referential constraint
Answer: D
Question 4.
During a disaster test, the restore job log shows several logical files that did not restore. A display of the SAVE 21 tape shows the logical files are on the tape.
Why did the logical files not restore during the RESTORE 21?
A. The owner's user profile was not restored to the system first.
B. The option for restoring the files to a different system was not selected.
C. The operating system version is not the same as the version on the system from which they
were saved.
D. The logical files are in a library that was restored before the library containing the physical
files.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of unique primary keys?
A. They will not allow null values.
B. They consist of only one column.
C. They are mandatory for all physical files.
D. They must consist of column(s) in the lowest ordinal position(s).
Answer: A
Question 6.
An application has been developed that will update several files during the completion of a single transaction. If the entire transaction does not complete successfully, all changes made during the transaction need to be removed.
Which of the following will automate the process?
A. SQL package
B. Commitment control
C. Database journaling
D. Referential constraint
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following command lists provides the most complete backup of the system?
A. SAVSYS, SAVLIB(*NONSYS), SAVDLO, SAV
B. SAVLIB(*IBM), SAVLIB(*ALLUSR), SAVDLO, SAV
C. SAVLIB(*IBM), SAVLIB(*ALLUSR), SAVSECDTA, SAVCFG, SAVDLO
D. SAVSYS, SAVSECDTA, SAVCFG, SAVLIB(*IBM), SAVLIB(*ALLUSR)
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the effect of specifying the MBROPT(*MATCH) parameter on the restore object command?
A. All members are restored if all of the member names match the saved member names.
B. Only the member names matching the pattern on the member parameter will be restored.
C. All members from the save media will be restored if one of the member names matches a member in the file.
D. Members on the save media that match a member in the file will be restored. Members on the save media that do not match a member in the file will not be restored.
Answer: A
Question 9.
When using either the Backup menu or iSeries Navigator, which of the following can be saved with a backup list?
A. User libraries, IBM product libraries, folders, and directories
B. IBM libraries, Operating system, security objects, and configuration objects
C. User libraries, directories, folders, security objects, and configuration objects
D. User libraries, IBM product libraries, Operating system, directories, and configuration objects
Answer: C
Question 10.
As part of an overall backup and recovery strategy, a system administrator is using journaling on the database.
Under these conditions, which of the following will be saved using the default parameters of the save changed objects (SAVCHGOBJ) command?
A. All objects changed since the last full save.
B. All objects changed since the last SAVCHGOBJ command.
C. All objects changed since the last full save, except for journaled objects.
D. All objects changed since the last SAVCHGOBJ command, except for journaled objects.
Answer: C
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Question 1. Which command will upgrade UniData from a previous release without performing a new install? A. updatesys B. udtupdate C. udtinstall D. ud61.install Answer: A Question 2. Which command is used to place an existing trigger routine name in the file header of an existing file? A. CREATE.TRIGGER B. TRIGGER.CREATE C. TRIGGER.ENABLE D. CREATE.FILE.TRIGGER Answer: A Question 3. Dynamic hashed files make it possible to A. eliminate the possibility of corruption B. eliminate the need for any maintenance on the file C. eliminate level 2 overflow since blocks split at 80% full D. create logical files that circumvents a system file limit Answer: D Question 4. What method can a UNIX administrator use to avoid providing the entire path when using the 'ECL LOGTO' command? A. Put an entry in udtconfig. B. Create an entry for the account in UD.ACCOUNTS. C. Create an entry in the VOC that points to the directory. D. Create a symbolic link in $UDTHOME that points to the account's directory. Answer: D Question 5. In which file would the data records of a dynamic hashed file named WORKSITES be stored? A. In a part file called idx001 B. In a part file called dat001 or over001 C. In an OS file (not an OS directory) named WORKSITES D. In a part file called RECORDS in the WORKSITES OS directory Answer: B Question 6. Which option describes the information found in an entry of the UniData part table 'parttbl'? A. Size of each 'part file' B. The amount of reserved space on each file system C. The split and merge percentages for this part file D. Maximum number of 'part files' a dynamic file can expand to Answer: B Question 7. Which 'udtconfig' parameter contains the size of a shared memory segment to store globally cataloged programs? A. SHM_PGM_SIZE B. SHM_MAX_SIZE C. SBCS_SHM_TBL D. SBCS_SHM_SIZE Answer: D Question 8. On UniData for UNIX, installation script answers are kept in which file? A. install.scr B. install.hist C. install.param D. install.config Answer: C Question 9. Which tool provides detailed file statistics about all records in a file? A. guide B. showud C. verify2 D. GROUP.STAT Answer: A Question 10. Administrators will inspect and possibly adjust which two related parameters (kernel and udtconfig) in response to the error 'Error on creating a shared memory segment (size=xxx), errno=xxx'? A. UNIX kernel shmem and UniData SHMEM B. UNIX kernel SEMMNU and UniData SEMMNU C. UNIX kernel shmmax and UniData SHM_MAX_SIZE D. UNIX kernel SHM_PG_SIZE and UniData SHM_GN_TBLS Answer: C
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Question 1.
Given the following code:
EXEC SQL EXECUTE IMMEDIATE :sqlstmt
Which of the following values must sqlstmt contain so that all rows are deleted from the STAFF table?
A. DROP TABLE staff
B. DELETE FROM staff
C. DROP * FROM staff
D. DELETE * FROM staff
Answer: B
Question 2.
Given the code:
EXEC SQL DECLARE cursor1 CURSOR FOR
SELECT name,age,b_date FROM person;
EXEC SQL OPEN cursor1;
Under which of the following situations will the above cursor be implicitly closed?
A. When a CLOSE statement is issued
B. When a COMMIT statement is issued
C. When there are no rows in the result set
D. When all rows are FETCHed from the result set
Answer: B
Question 3.
To prepare an embedded SQL program for use with a host-language compiler, which of the following database components is required?
A. Binder
B. Precompiler
C. Stored Procedure Builder
D. Application Development Center
Answer: B
Question 4.
An ODBC/CLI application has the following pseudocode:
SQLAllocHandle( SQL_HANDLE_DBC, hEnv, &hDbc )
SQLConnect( hDbc, "CERTDB", SQL_NTS, "user1", SQL_NTS, "passwd", SQL_NTS )
SQLAllocHandle( SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hDbc, &hStmt )
SQLExecDirect( hStmt, "SET CURRENT SQLID db2cert", SQL_NTS )
Assuming all of the above calls execute successfully, which of the following fully qualified SQL statements is equivalent to:
SQLExecDirect( hStmt, "SELECT * FROM user1.table1 t1, table2 t2 WHERE t1.col1=t2.col2", SQL_NTS )
A. SQLExecDirect( hStmt, "SELECT * FROM user1.table1 t1, table2 t2 WHERE t1.col1=t2.col2", SQL_NTS )
B. SQLExecDirect( hStmt, "SELECT * FROM user1.table1 t1, user1.table2 t2 WHERE
t1.col1=t2.col2", SQL_NTS )
C. SQLExecDirect( hStmt, "SELECT * FROM user1.table1 t1, db2cert.table2 t2 WHERE t1.col1=t2.col2", SQL_NTS )
D. SQLExecDirect( hStmt, "SELECT * FROM db2cert.table1 t1, db2cert.table2 t2 WHERE t1.col1=t2.col2", SQL_NTS )
Answer: C
Question 5.
Given the EMPLOYEE table definition:
CREATE TABLE employee (
workdept CHAR(30),
salary INTEGER
)
Which of the following is a correct usage of parameter markers in a JDBC program?
A. String sql =
"UPDATE employee SET salary=salary*?WHERE workdept=?";
statement stmt=con.createStatement(sql);
B. String sql =
"UPDATE employee SET salary=salary*?WHERE workdept=?";
statement stmt=con.createStatement(sql);
C. String sql =
"UPDATE employee SET salary=salary*?WHERE workdept=?";
statement stmt=con.createStatement(sql);
D. String sql =
"UPDATE employee SET salary=salary*?WHERE workdept=?";
statement stmt=con.createStatement(sql);
Answer: C
Question 6.
Given the following code:
BEGIN ATOMIC
UPDATE country SET cities=:count WHERE CURRENT OF C1;
INSERT INTO country VALUES(:co11,:co12,:co13);
INSERT INTO country VALUES(:co14,:co15,:co16);
INSERT INTO country VALUES(:co17,:co18,:co19);
INSERT INTO country VALUES(:co110,:co111,:co112);
COMMIT;
END
Given that all statements succeed except the following:
INSERT INTO country VALUES(:co17,:co18,:co19);
How many rows will be affected in table COUNTRY?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Question 7.
The following commands are issued against a data source containing table user2.org:
CREATE ALIAS user1.org FOR sample.org
CREATE TABLE org.sample ( c CHAR(1))
CREATE ALIAS sample.org FOR user2.org
CREATE ALIAS user2.sample FOR sample.org
Given the user SAMPLE issues the following statement:
SELECT * FROM sample
For which of the following database objects will access be attempted?
A. user2.org
B. org.sample
C. sample.org
D. sample.sample
Answer: D
Question 8.
The following commands are issued against a data source:
CREATE TABLE userid.org ( i INT)
CREATE ALIAS user1.org FOR userid.org
CREATE TABLE org.sample ( c CHAR(1))
CREATE ALIAS sample.org FOR userid.org
CREATE ALIAS userid.sample FOR sample.org
When issued by USER1, which of the following statements will have a different result set than this SELECT statement?
SELECT * FROM org
A. SELECT * FROM org.sample
B. SELECT * FROM sample.org
C. SELECT * FROM userid.org
D. SELECT * FROM userid.sample
Answer: A
Question 9.
An application uses embedded dynamic SQL to connect to a remote DB2 server and inserts data into the CUST.ORDERS table on that remote DB2 server. To enable access of the remote DB2 server, Administrator FOO needs to create a package with default options such that BAR is the only non-administrative user that can use this package on the remote DB2 server.
Which statement describes the privileges that must be granted and/or revoked by FOO to accomplish this?
A. BAR requires EXECUTE privilege on the package and UPDATE privilege on CUST.ORDERS, and the EXECUTE privilege for the package must be revoked from PUBLIC.
B. BAR requires EXECUTE privilege on the package and INSERT privilege on CUST.ORDERS, and the EXECUTE privilege for the package must be revoked from PUBLIC.
C. BAR requires EXECUTE privilege on the package and INSERT privilege on CUST.ORDERS, and the REFERENCES privilege for the package must be revoked from PUBLIC.
D. BAR requires EXECUTE privilege on the package and UPDATE privilege on CUST.ORDERS, and the REFERENCES privilege for the package must be revoked from PUBLIC.
Answer: B
Question 10.
User FOO must create and own an SQL stored procedure, CUST.CALC1, that returns a calculation using static SQL. Both user FOO and user BAR need to call this stored procedure from each of their applications.
Assuming FOO has the necessary privileges to perform the calculation, which two of the following statements describe the MINIMUM privileges that must be explicitly granted for users BAR and FOO?
A. BAR needs EXECUTE privilege on the CALC1 package
B. BAR needs EXECUTE privilege on the CALC1 procedure
C. FOO needs EXECUTE privilege on the CALC1 procedure
D. FOO and BAR need EXECUTE privilege on the CALL statement
E. FOO needs the privilege to create the procedure in the CUST schema
Answer: B, E
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Question 1. What is the most effective way to construct and organize the resource pools? A. define several pools all managed by the same group of managers B. define the resource pool construct to reflect the practical concerns of the organization (geographical, organizational or virtual) to reflect the customers cross-functional requirements C. create a single resource pool managed by several managers D. create resource pool placeholders ad-hoc since resources can only be added to pools Answer: B Question 2. For a given portfolio of projects, RPM allows creation of different scenarios with different conditions for a scenario analysis (What-If). What is the main purpose of this scenario analysis? A. to calculate new start and finish dates for remaining assignments based on resource availability, project priority and scenario start dates and assess the impact on the overall schedule, cost and resource utilization B. to calculate effort for each project to assess if there are enough resources available to accomplish scenario finish dates C. to calculate new start and finish dates across projects, proposals, and deliverables to assess resource availability and profit performance over time D. to calculate effort for each project to compare with their profiles and assess the resource allocations and schedule feasibility Answer: A Question 3. What happens when a new scope element is created and this element type has an associated default workflow? A. If the user does not have security permissions to start a workflow, an error message appears. B. The default workflow process starts automatically. C. The default workflow process starts automatically and no other workflow can be started for this element. D. Only the default workflow is available to be started. Answer: B Question 4. As the deployment manager you are preparing to set up the resource pool structure. Before you set up the structure, what should you do to reduce the effort necessary to add resources to the pools? A. construct a pool description form to facilitate resource data entry B. define all the possible languages used to describe resources as well their international readiness C. configure the default security groups and system-wide layouts D. request the password list for each resource Answer: C Question 5. How are Project and Resource Managers roles considered in the Fast Track and Standard deployment offerings? A. They do not differ and are treated the same in both types of offerings. B. Both roles are considered separately in Fast Track and Standard offerings. C. Standard deployment combines both roles whereas Fast Track considers them separately. D. Fast Track combines both roles whereas Standard deployment considers them separately. Answer: D Question 6. Assuming the use of Time & Expense licenses, how would you enable team members to access attached documents in their assigned tasks? A. You include a Documents portlet in Tasks Description view layout, accessible from Timesheet view. B. A Time & Expense license does not allow document access. C. You grant them Can View Documents permission. D. Through a workflow, you include the resources as workflow participants, in a role that can access documents. Answer: B Question 7. Why is a user with appropriate security rights and layouts unable to access the Portfolio Viewer from the Work Management view? A. There is no direct access to the Portfolio Viewer from Work Management. The user should go to My Portal to access it. B. The root portfolio folder cannot be used to launch the Portfolio Viewer. C. The user has not installed the correct version of RPM client. D. Projects and proposals under the selected portfolio do not have information to display in the Portfolio Viewer. Answer: B Question 8. During project execution, a resource changed the value of EETC. For this value to be considered for percentage complete calculations, the _____. A. resource must submit the timesheet B. Project Manager must approve the EETC C. timesheet must be approved D. Project Manager must view the revised EETC Answer: B Question 9. A particular workflow includes two voting steps. When can the workflow initiator close the workflow? A. when at least the first voting step has a response B. when all of the voting steps have a response from all participants C. anytime, regardless of the state of any of voting steps D. when none of the voting steps have a response Answer: C Question 10. What is the best way to formalize a monthly approval process of project status? A. create a mail group inside RPM with the approvers and send notification to them at the end of each month asking for a response about project status B. create a task in your WBS called Status Review Meeting, assign required resources and set the contour so the task will occur monthly C. create a workflow process under the Project Element, including a voting step with a layout to review and responses to approve the status, and schedule this workflow to run monthly D. create a formal document and attach it to the project at the end of each status meeting, with comments and relevant meeting information Answer: C
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Question 1. Which of the following is considered to be a test? A. A script that has only clicks on menu items in the application-under-test and produces an HTML log B. A script that only places an order and has a verification point to check the order total C. A script that only enters data in the application-under-test and runs successfully D. A script that has only user actions recorded in the application-under-test and produces a TestManager log E. A script that contains only navigation actions with the application-under-test and captures actual results Answer: B Question 2. What does the recording monitor display? A. Messages used during playback B. Messages for actions that are not recorded C. Text written by the user during recording D. Messages for each click on the application E. Messages for stopping and starting recording F. Messages that are written to the TestManager log Answer: D, E Question 3. When would playback preferences be changed? (Select all that apply.) A. When there is a difference in the application performance between the recording environment and the playback environment. B. When a script is not playing back as expected and you want to increase time delays to make the playback easier to watch. C. When the recording process must be stabilized. D. When you want to optimize the XDE Tester datastore and associate it with a project. Answer: A,B Question 4. You are going to repeat a test. How can you avoid overwriting your log results from a previous test? (Select all that apply.) A. Specify a unique log name at the start of a run. B. Rename the log file before the next run is started. C. Use the name that is displayed in the Select Log dialog. D. Save the script and copy it to another datastore. E. Log results are automatically saved in read-only mode. Answer: A,B Question 5. Which of the following should you use in conjunction with data-driven testing? A. vpObject B. vpProperties C. vpDatapool D. vpDynamic E. vpData F. vpManual Answer: F Question 6. What does XDE Tester use to recognize objects during playback? (Select all that apply.) A. Recognition thresholds B. Recognition helper class C. Recognition recording preferences D. Recognition logs E. Recognition weights Answer: A,E Question 7. Which of the following are buttons on the Recording Monitor toolbar? (Select all that apply.) A. Pause/Resume Recording B. Open File C. Save As D. Display Help E. Stop Recording F. Display Log Answer: A,C,D,E Question 8. What does the HTML log indicate about a test run? (Select all that apply.) A. How much of the script played back B. The pass/fail status of verification points C. Which TestManager test case failed D. The amount of time it took to develop the test E. Which defects were previously reported Answer: A,B Question 9. Why would you use regular expressions? A. To create an external data file for a data-driven test B. To make the tests pass within "closeness" boundaries C. To make the tests log an object recognition failure D. To make the tests pass every time for all boundaries E. To create maintainable code in the application-under-test F. To create status reports on generic test objects Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following are true about the Verification Point Comparator? (Select all that apply.) A. Can be used to update only the actual results. B. Examines only the actual results. C. Can be used to update the actual and expected results. D. Examines only the expected results. E. Examines the actual and expected results. F. Can be used to update only the expected results Answer: E,F
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Question 1. What question will help prevent defining a use case that is too small? A. What common behavior does this use case have with other use cases? B. What steps will an actor perform in this use case? C. What goal does an actor achieve with this use case? D. How does this use case fit into the overall structure of the system? Answer: C Question 2. Given: A developer is creating a use-case model for telephone installations. One of the sub-flows in the "Manage Installer's Schedule" use case displays an installer's schedule for a whole day. The client for whom the system is being built wants to add a new feature that allows a dispatcher to optionally display mileage between phone installation locations. Instead of modifying the "Manage Installer's Schedule" use case, the developer decides to create a new use case called "Display Mileage." What relationship should be created between the "Display Mileage" use case and the "Manage Installer's Schedule" use case? A. Include B. Generalization C. Modify D. Extend Answer: D Question 3. What are the advantages of the use-case approach over traditional development approaches? A. Use cases give context to requirements B. Use cases identify all stakeholders C. Use cases visualize constraints D. Use cases represent the user's perspective Answer: A,D Question 4. What question helps identify the actors in software requirements? A. Who will be using the system? B. Who will be paying for the system? C. What subsystems will be in the system? D. Who will be designing the system? Answer: A Question 5. Which statements are TRUE regarding a use case? (Select all that apply.) A. A use case is an isolated part that provides a piece of functionality for the system to be built. B. A use case describes actions the system takes to deliver something of value to the actor. C. A use case contains functional software requirements. D. A use case models a dialog between the system and its surroundings. Answer: B,C,D Question 6. What does a supplementary specification include? A. <> and < > relationships associated with a particular use case B. Use-case diagram for the entire system C. Non-functional requirements associated with a particular use case D. Non-functional requirements associated with the entire system Answer: D Question 7. Refer to the exhibit below. What are the three types of relationships in this use case? A. X includes, Y generalization, Z extends B. X extends, Y generalization, Z includes C. X extends, Y includes, Z generalization D. X generalization, Y includes, Z extends Answer: A Question 8. Given: Consider the following set of initial user requests from a telephone company about a new customer service system: * The telephone company customer service system shall be able to record and answer questions about telephone installations. * When a customer requests a new telephone, the service representative shall record the customer's name, address, assigned phone installer, and a projected time of the installation. * After installation is complete, start time and duration of installation are recorded. * Start time shall include the year, month, day, hour, and minute. What is the most appropriate name for one of the use cases in this software system? A. Schedule phone installation B. Update phone installation database C. Phone installation D. Record start time Answer: A Question 9. What is an actor? A. Role a person or thing plays when interacting with the system B. Anyone who will purchase the system C. Anyone who has a vested interest in the outcome of the system D. Role a tester plays when testing the system Answer: A Question 10. What does a post-condition describe? A. One way that a use case can end B. State of the system after the use case ends C. Last non-functional requirement D. Last step in the basic flow of events Answer: B
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Question 1.
What is true of iterations?
A. A lifecycle phase may contain many iterations.
B. Iterations may contain many phases.
C. A major milestone marks the end of every iteration.
D. You establish plans for each phase, but not for iterations.
E. A construction iteration cannot include any activities from the Requirements workflow.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Stereotypes in the UML support generalization among model elements.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is a derived attribute?
A. An attribute whose value may be calculated based on the value of other attributes within the
class.
B. The value of an attribute for a particular object.
C. An attribute that is retrieved from a database.
D. An attribute that is inherited from a superclass.
E. An attribute with a fixed value.
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is an abstract class?
A. A superclass for which no direct instances may be created.
B. A class that logically exists beyond the scope of the program that created it.
C. A class that manages the interface communications within a system or among different
systems.
D. A class whose instances are collections of other objects.
E. A class that serves as a template for other classes.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What characterizes a model?
A. It is the same thing as a diagram.
B. It is a complete description of a system from a particular perspective.
C. It is rarely needed if an iterative lifecycle is used.
D. It is not applicable to software development.
Answer: B
Question 6.
What phrase defines an association class?
A. Is primarily a construct used during detailed design.
B. Specifies that a class has attributes and operations.
C. Is represented with a second association line next to the original.
D. Should not be represented on class diagrams during analysis.
E. Specifies that in a many-to-many association, each link has attributes and possibly operations.
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which of the following is not part of a use-case realization? (Select all that apply.)
A. Sequence diagrams
B. Use cases
C. Collaboration diagrams
D. Class diagrams
Answer: A,C,D
Question 8.
Which of the following are characteristics of a supplier object in a client-supplier relationship? (Select all that apply.)
A. You can reuse it independent of its existing clients.
B. It is an instance of a subclass.
C. It provides a service or handles a message.
D. It invokes a service or sends a message.
Answer: A,C
Question 9.
What is a container class?
A. A class whose instances are collections of other objects.
B. A class for which you may create no instances.
C. A class that logically exists beyond the scope of the program that created it.
D. A class that serves as a template for other classes.
E. A class that manages the interface communications within a system or among different
systems.
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is a scenario? (Select all that apply.)
A. A series of use cases that describe the functional requirements for the system.
B. An instance of a use case.
C. Something that has state, behavior, and identity.
D. A set of time-ordered steps or statements expressed in natural language.
Answer: B,D
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Question 1. What are characteristics of B-Series Fabric Manager? (Select three.) A. in-band management B. out-of-band management C. separate software package D. multiple B-Series switch management E. embedded in the Brocade switch firmware F. management platform for M-Series and B-Series switches Answer: B, C, D Question 2. What is the effect of the HP Cluster Extension? A. support for greater distances between cluster nodes B. usability of the fiber channel interconnect for the heartbeat C. cluster awareness for HP StorageWorks Continuous Access (CA) D. cluster management integration in Replication Solutions Manager (RSM) Answer: C Question 3. Which FCIP device supports HP B-Series and M-Series, but not C-Series fibre channel switches for heterogeneous SAN extension? A. SAN Valley SL1000 IP-SAN Gateway B. HP StorageWorks Multiprotocol Router C. HP StorageWorks SR2122-2 IP Storage Router D. Cisco MDS 14/2-Port Multiprotocol Services Module Answer: A Question 4. Which PID formats use the same PIDs for a port? A. native and core B. VC encoded and native C. core and extended edge D. native and extended edge Answer: D Question 5. Where do you install the HP Cluster Extension (CLX)? A. on the switch as a license B. on all servers in the cluster C. on one cluster server at each site D. on the same server as Command View Answer: B Question 6. A customer has asked you to implement VSANs in a C-Series fibre channel switch fabric. What is a unique feature of VSANs? A. It allows you to apply different fabric settings in one switch. B. It allows you to connect different vendor switches to one infrastructure. C. It allows you to configure more than one management IP address per switch. D. It allows you to minimize oversubscription on connected ISLs through path load balancing. Answer: A Question 7. Which fabric migration path is shown in the exhibit? A. meshed to tree B. cascaded to tree C. cascaded to meshed D. meshed to cascaded Answer: B Question 8. You are implementing an extended SAN infrastructure between two data centers which are 9km apart. HP StorageWorks Edge Switch 2/24 is used in this environment. Which ports could be used to connect the ISL between this data centers? A. All ports support links for this distance by default. B. You must enable the extended ISL ports individually. C. The first four ports can connect a long-distance ISL. D. Long-distance ISL ports must be unlocked by a license. Answer: C Question 9. What are typical consequences of insufficient knowledge transfer to the customer for their SAN environment? (Select two.) A. unused bandwidth B. wasted disk space C. management errors D. event misinterpretation E. unnecessary FC data traffic Answer: C, D Question 10. During the SAN architecture process, the SAN architect must explain to the stakeholders how the new infrastructure will be realized. Which information should this explanation contain? A. options that can be installed at a later time B. current SAN components that will be utilized C. details about storage and SAN management D. overview of HP multivendor support services Answer: B
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