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Taking the 50-677 test next week can someone please send me a dump at sherry_bajwa125@yahoo.com
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Question 1.
Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access control model?
A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
D. The user requiring access to the resource.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?
A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and
software
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to network resources?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
Question 4.
You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration, what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?
A. Halon
B. CO
C. Water
D. Foam
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Given: John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques. Question:
Which threat is being addressed?
A. Viruses
B. Adware
C. Spam
D. Spyware
Answer: C
Question 7.
Most current encryption schemes are based on
A. digital rights management
B. time stamps
C. randomizing
D. algorithms
Answer: D
Question 8.
Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?
A. Spoofing
B. DNS poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Kiting
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?
A. Public key
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Hash
Answer: D
Question 10.
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates.
The public key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?
A. Symmetric
B. Quantum
C. Asymmetric
D. Elliptical curve
Answer: C
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Question 1.
After IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager is configured on an AIX platform, what is the default location for the audit trail files?
A. /var/audit
B. /var/log/audit
C. /var/log/eprise
D. /var/audit/eprise
Answer: C
Question 2.
What is the purpose of scoping?
A. to regulate access to GEM databases
B. to regulate access to policies in the policy explorer
C. to regulate access to information generated in reports
D. to regulate access to the Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Web portal
Answer: C
Question 3.
What is the advantage of collect-time data processing for a GEM database?
A. Chunks are mapped as soon as they are collected.
B. Chunks are mapped and loaded as soon as they are collected.
C. Reports are readily available in iView as soon as the chunks are collected.
D. Processing of chunks is performed at collection time to prevent loss of information when the IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager server is accidentally rebooted.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which components are installed by default for a Standard server?
A. Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager server, Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Management Console, and Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Consolidation
B. Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager server, Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Web
Applications, and Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Management Console
C. Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager server, Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Web
Applications, Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Management Console, and Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Actuator
D. Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager server, Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Web Applications, Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Management Console, and Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager Consolidation
Answer: B
Question 5.
From which two Tivoli products can IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager v8.0 retrieve information using User Information Source? (Choose two.)
A. Tivoli Identity Manager
B. Tivoli Access Manager
C. Tivoli Directory Integrator
D. Tivoli Security Operations Manager
E. Tivoli Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
A customer wants to use several groups from an Active Directory User Information Source to define the policy.
How can this goal be accomplished?
A. Drag Active Directory Groups from the View Automatic Policy.
B. Collect the grouping information from the Active Directory using W7 Log and use them in the policy.
C. Copy and paste the name of the Groups from the Domain Controller Users and Group Management view.
D. Import the Active Directory group names into the Grouping Wizard by using an LDAP data interchange format (LDIF) file.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager component provides the capability to report against the ISO 17799 standard?
A. Audit policy
B. Log Manager
C. Compliance module
D. Management Console
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the procedure to verify that the diagnostics file has been successfully generated?
A. Run the Diagnostics under the Administrator account.
B. The only method is to check whether the Diagnostics Application ended without reporting any message.
C. Check whether a fresh copy of Diagnostics file with the correct file extension has been created in the destination folder.
D. Check whether the Diagnostics Application has provided a dialog message reporting that the diagnostics file was successfully generated.
Answer: C
Question 9.
What does the error retention property in the z/OS event source define?
A. sets of error files maintained in each *.err directory
B. sets of error files maintained in each *.etc directory
C. sets of log files maintained in each *.props directory
D. sets of log files maintained in each *.property directory
Answer: C
Question 10.
What are two advantages of using Secure Shell (SSH) remote collection? (Choose two.)
A. Can have an SSH Collection user as a non-root account
B. Can be used to collect logs remotely from any event source
C. Uses secure user name-password authentication during collection
D. Reduces maintenance costs in terms of agent installation and upgrade
E. Requires less number of ports to be opened on the firewall when compared to IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager-point of presence communication port requirements
Answer: A, D
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Question 1. A customer wants to establish an off-site tape rotation. Part of this process would be the check-in and check-out of tapes from the library. In addition, when a tape remains off-site for some time, data on it can become expired, thus having unused space on it. As a result of this, off-site tape reclamation is planned to be used in order to optimize tape utilization. Which two statements are true about off-site reclamation? (Choose two.) A. The server obtains valid files only from an on-site volume of a copy storage pool or active-data pool. B. When an off-site volume is reclaimed, the files on the volume are rewritten to another read/write volume. C. The server obtains valid files only from another on-site volume of a copy storage pool, which has the same data on it. D. The server obtains valid files from a primary storage pool or, if necessary, from an on-site volume of a copy storage pool or active-data pool. E. The default value of the reclamation parameter in an off-site storage pool is the same as for a primary sequential storage pool (for example, 60). Answer: B, D Question 2. Which three options may be changed with the setopt command? (Choose three.) A. Shredding B. Logpoolsize C. Bufpoolsize D. Commtimeout E. Commmethod F. Dbpageshadow Answer: A, C, D Question 3. What is the maximum number of days that archived files can be kept by IBM Tivoli Storage Manager? A. 365 B. 99999 C. 30000 D. no limit Answer: D Question 4. As an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator, you configure a Disaster Recovery Plan using the Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) function of TSM. You have a recovery situation that involves an environment with different hardware than your production environment. Which action needs to be taken to perform the TSM database recovery? A. modify the restore machine instructions stanza of the recovery plan file to use a manual library at the recovery location B. modify the device configuration file stanza of the recovery plan to allow use of the hardware found at the recovery location C. modify the machine general instructions stanza of the recovery plan file to allow use of the hardware at the recovery location D. modify the machine recovery instructions stanza of the recovery plan file to allow use of the hardware at the recovery location Answer: B Question 5. Which command specifies the time period, in days, between automatic license audits performed by IBM Tivoli Storage Manager? A. Audit License B. Query License C. set licenseauditperiod D. set licenseauditrefresh Answer: C Question 6. Given a file d:\obj\printf.obj and assuming that d: is defined as a domain, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) client is configured with the following include-exclude statements: exclude d:\...\*.obj include d:\dir1\...\*.obj exclude d:\dir2\junk\*.obj Which statement is true? A. After checking the first rule, TSM client skips all further rule processing. B. The file is not backed up, since the rule (exclude d:\...\*.obj) is evaluated last. C. The file is not backed up, since the first rule (exclude d:\...\*.obj) is evaluated first. D. The client does not perform any backup for d:\obj, since there is no explicit rule selecting that directory. Answer: B Question 7. A Tivoli Storage Manager server has been defined with a primary disk pool with cache enabled, a tape pool as the next primary pool and a tape copy pool. All processes to back up storage pools and migrations are completing successfully. A client issues a restore to a file that is located in cache in the disk pool, but that volume has been taken offline. What is the status of the client restore? A. Restore fails with media unavailable. B. Restore is processed from the tape pool. C. Restore fails and server issues request to audit volume. D. Restore prompts the administrator to return the copy pool tape from off-site storage. Answer: B Question 8. What is the minimum size that can be specified for Tivoli Storage Manager server activity log retention? A. 1 MB B. 10 MB C. 100 MB D. 256 MB Answer: A Question 9. What does the tsmdlst command do? A. lists tape device addresses and names B. lists IBM Tivoli Storage Manager defined drives C. lists the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager device driver D. displays IBM Tivoli Storage Manager library status Answer: A Question 10. What does a valid Windows client or server option file include? A. SNMP AND SHAREDMEMORY parameters B. commmethod tcpip and commmethod namedpipes C. only one commmethod statement for better performance D. any commmethod supported by the server, except zOS MIDDAW support Answer: B
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Question 1. Which User Preference requires the Webtop User to be provided with Netcool GUI Foundation read/write privileges? A. Edit Journals B. Allow Event Selection C. Edit Filter Builder Access D. Edit Refresh Rate Configuration Answer: A Question 2. How is a new Entity Group created within IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0? A. using the Entity Group Editor select Add New Group B. using the Entity Group Editor ? Create ? Entity Group C. using a drop down within the Entity Editor ? Add Entity Group D. using a drop down within the Entity Editor ? Add Entity screen select Add New Group from the Group menu Answer: D Question 3. What user authorization is required to delete a user within IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0 (Webtop)? A. ObjectServer SuperUser B. ObjectServer Administrator C. Webtop User with the Security Administrator role D. Webtop User with ObjectServer Administrator role Answer: C Question 4. A user is experiencing slow response from their Active Event List (AEL). What are three things you can do to determine the cause of the users IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0 (Webtop) performance issues? (Choose three.) A. check the available licenses B. upgrade the Java version on the Webtop Server C. make sure you have the latest version of native desktop D. check the number of events returned for each Active Event List (AEL) E. try connecting to Webtop from different workstations to see if it is a workstation issue F. do a count on the number of rows in the status, journal and details table in the ObjectServer Answer: D, E, F Question 5. A customer wants a web page within IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0 (Webtop) that provides internal links to various help topics. The page would be accessible using links in certain pages in Webtop, or by adding the word "MyHelp" after the hostname and port specification in the URL (for example, http://server:8080/webtop/MyHelp). The customer already has the page designed and built (called index.html), and just needs your help putting in the right place. What is the first step you should take to accomplish this using Webtop's Page Manager? A. upload the customer file to the server using the Add File to Dir button B. create a subdirectory under the Custom directory using the New Dir button C. create a directory called MyHelp under the webroot (/ in gui) directory using the New Dir button D. create a directory called MyHelp under the webroot (/ in gui) directory using the Create New Subdirectory button Answer: C Question 6. In order to provide Groups for use within Webtop, the Group creator needs to be which type of user? A. Webtop Administrator B. Netcool GUI Foundation Administrator C. Netcool Security Manager Administrator D. Webtop User with NGF read/write privileges Answer: B Question 7. You have configured and started IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0. It is not connecting to the ObjectServer. What should you try? A. check the webtop.log B. alter system shutdown C. select count(*) from alerts.status D. telnet to one of the network devices to see if it has the community string is set to public Answer: A Question 8. Which directory should you backup if you want to store copies of pages IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0 serves to connected clients? A. $NCHOME/webtop/webapps/ B. $NCHOME/guifoundation/pages/webtop C. $NCHOME/guifoundation/webtop/pages D. $NCHOME/guifoundation/webapps/webtop Answer: D Question 9. Security requirements for a customer IBM Tivoli Netcool/Webtop V2.0 (Webtop) deployment require all clients to access the ObjectServer using SSL communications. Which three actions must be taken to ensure SSL communications? (Choose three.) A. import the signed certificate into a local keystore B. use the keytool utility to create a digital certificate C. connect to Webtop using http::8443 D. make the certificate available from a public web server E. define the SSL port information in $NCHOME/guifoundation/conf/server.xml F. define the SSL port information in $NCHOME/guifoundation/config/server.init Answer: A, B, E Question 10. The customer requires a view that includes the following information based on the default ObjectServer: Where the event originated Details of the type of failure Whether the event was a problem or resolution When the event was updated by any source The view should be sorted by descending severity and then the most recent occurrence. Which fields and sort criteria will meet the customers needs? A. Fields: NodeAlias, AlertKey, Type, StateChange. Sort: Severity(desc), LastOccurrence(desc) B. Fields: Node, AlertGroup, AlertKey, Type, StateChange. Sort: Severity(desc), LastOccurrence(desc) C. Fields: Node, Summary, Type, StateChange, LastOccurrence. Sort: Severity(asc), LastOccurrence(asc) D. Fields: NodeAlias, AlertGroup, AlertKey, Type, LastOccurrence Sort: Severity(desc), FirstOccurrence(asc) Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A
Question 2.
VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C
Question 3.
fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer.
What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D
Question 5.
You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E
Question 9.
The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's troubleshooting guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A
Question 10.
NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it
access to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C
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Question 1. To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary? A. Multiple MDS Container machines B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS D. Multiple MDS Manager machines E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window Answer: A Question 2. The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs? A. MDS-level High Availability is configured. B. CMA-level High Availability is configured. C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways. D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View. E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager. Answer: E Question 3. Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific Customer? A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway. B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for each configured Security Gateway. C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system. D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its list of log servers. E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create the CLM object, and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers. Answer: D Question 4 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP: If the Administrator intended to install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration? A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule. B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS. C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs. D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to each other. E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall. Answer: A Question 5. What is the function of a CLM? A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines. B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways. C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability. D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack. E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways. Answer: E Question 6. A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies. What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment? A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC Security Administrator and the Provider-1 / MSP Administrator. B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC Security Administrator. C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the Provider-1 / MSP Administrator. D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC Security Administrator. E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the Provider-1 / MSP Administrator. Answer: D Question 7. The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed, enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts? A. SVRSetup B. sysconfig C. cpconfig D. SetupUtil E. EVRSetup Answer: A Question 8. After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires? A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1 B. SetPNPDisable lic C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0 D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0 E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1 Answer: E Question 9. Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption? A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used. B. IKE with pre-shared secret C. 256-bit SSL encryption D. 128-bit SSL encryption E. RSA encryption Answer: D Question 10. All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed by an MDS Manager running with only the trial license? A. 500 B. 1 C. 200 D. 5 E. 100 Answer: C
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Question 1. Which of the following can function as a Management Server for a VSX Gateway? A. Check Point Integrity B. SiteManager-1 NGX: Multi-Domain Server C. Security Management Portal D. VPN-1/FireWall-1 Small Office E. Provider-1 NGX: Multi-Domain Server Answer: E Question 2. You are configuring source-based routing in a VSX Gateway deployment with both External and Internal Virtual Routers. Which of the following functions cannot be configured for the Virtual Systems? A. Virtual System clustering B. Anti-spoofing measures C. Network Address Translation D. Remote access VPNs E. Intranet VPNs Answer: B Question 3. During MDS installation, you must configure at least one VSX Administrator. After creating the Administrator, you are prompted to perform which task? A. Grant VSX-specific privileges to the Administrator B. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific Virtual System C. Add the Administrator to a group D. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific interface on the VSX Gateway E. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific CMA Answer: C Question 4. In a VSX Gateway cluster, which of the following objects are available by default as installation targets for the Management Virtual System? A. Individual Management Virtual Systems (MVS) for each cluster member B. MVS cluster object C. Individual External Virtual Routers for each cluster member D. Virtual Switch cluster object E. Individual Virtual Switch Members Answer: B Question 5. Which of the following MDS types allows you to create and manage a VSX Gateway? A. MDS CLM B. MDS Manager station C. MDS VSX Integrator D. MDS MLM E. MDS Manager + Container station Answer: E Question 6. What are the two levels of VSX Gateway clustering? A. INSPECT and database level B. Database and VSX Gateway levels C. Virtual device and database levels D. INSPECT and configuration levels E. Virtual device and VSX Gateway levels Answer: E Question 7. When deploying a VSX Gateway managed by a SmartCenter Server, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. VSX Administrators can configure different domains for each Virtual System. B. Multiple Administrators can simultaneously connect to the same database, to manage multiple Customers. C. All Customer objects, rules, and users are shared in a single database. D. Each Virtual System has its own unique Certificate Authority. E. VSX superuser Administrators can configure granular permissions for each Customer Administrator. Answer: C Question 8. What is the difference between Single-Context and Multi-Context processes? A. Single-Context processes are implemented in standard firewall deployments, while only Multi- Context processes are implemented in VSX Gateway deployments. B. Single-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in an HA configuration, while Multi-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in a Load Sharing environment. C. Single-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share, while Multi- Context processes are unique to each Virtual System. D. Single-Context processes are implemented in a single VSX Gateway environment, while Multi-Context processes are only implemented in VSX Gateway High Availability (HA). E. Single-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System on a Gateway, while Multi- Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share. Answer: E Question 9. A Warp Link is a virtual point-to-point connection between a: A. Virtual Router and Virtual System. B. Virtual Router and Virtual Switch. C. Virtual System and the management interface. D. Virtual Router and a physical interface. E. Virtual System and another Virtual System. Answer: A Question 10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the default Security Policy of the External Virtual Router? A. The External Virtual Router automatically performs Hide NAT behind its external interface for all Virtual Systems connected to it. B. The default Policy of the External Virtual Router denies all traffic going to or coming from it. C. The default policy of the External Virtual Router cannot be changed. D. All traffic coming from networks protected by a VSX Gateway is accepted. All other traffic is dropped. E. The External Virtual Router always enforces the same Policy as the Management Virtual System. Answer: B
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Question 1. Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user name from a form to a view, by clicking a button on the form. He knows he wants to define a Wiring property called ReceiveUserName that will be used when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens the Property Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as? A. Type B. Action C. Event D. Property Answer: B Question 2. Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, and Inventory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among the different pieces of the new application. How does this communication work? A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite Application Editor is used to define Actions and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options. B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite Application Editor is launched from Domino Designer to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and their parameters. C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. The Property Broker Editor is launched directly from Domino Designer (or can be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and configure Actions and their parameters. D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designer must first be used to define the Wiring Properties. Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using the Composite Application Editor or from within Domino Designer. Answer: C Question 3. Myrtle is modifying the design of a View in a Notes database, so it can update a published Property that the other components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that updates a Property? A. In a view action B. In the OnSelect event of the view C. In the QueryModeChange event of the view D. In the Initialize subroutine of the Global section of the view Answer: B Question 4. Beatrice created a new Composite Application database in the Notes 8 client, but when she opens it up she sees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content." What does she have to do next? A. Click the menu option "View - Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application definition. B. Click the menu option "Actions - Edit Application" to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the Composite Application definition. C. Double-click the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the Composite Application definition. D. Right-click the grey page to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application definition. Answer: B Question 5. When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants to have a Notes view that publishes a UserName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he do this? A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together. B. He creates one Composite Application that wires the two views together, and then a second Composite Application that incorporates the first one, with the first view wired to the form. C. Because each component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first view publish the user name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form. D. Because he can publish a property only to a single component, he has to make his first view publish two properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of the properties is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form. Answer: A Question 6. Scott has just created a new NSF-based Composite Application. He has added two components to his application and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does he need to do if he now wants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface? A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. The database launch properties must first be set to "Launch as Composite Application". B. Nothing. The CAE is opened from within the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is automatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface. C. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first need to open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set the Wiring Properties. D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSF-based applications. Double-click on the Composite Application's icon on the Workspace to open it in the user interface. Answer: B Question 7. Barry has just closed the Property Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to the name of the Wiring Property. What should Barry do to ensure that his changes are saved within his Domino application? A. Click the "Refresh" button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays. B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application. C. Click the "Merge WSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that then displays. D. Open the Wiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. The changes will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed. Answer: A Question 8. Samir wants to design and deploy a Composite Application that consists of components from two Lotus Notes databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the Composite Application definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate. Can he do this? A. No, a Composite Application definition must be hosted on a WebSphere Portal server. B. No, a Composite Application definition must reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the "Blank Composite Application" template. C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "New Composite Application" button in the Composite Applications - Application section of the Database design and begin writing the definition. D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor and save the resulting XML file. Then he can create a new definition in the Composite Applications - Application section of the Database design and import the XML. Answer: D Question 9. Nina has been asked to add several views to the Sales.nsf database, many of which are to include multiple sorted columns and multiple user-sortable columns. How can she help minimize the impact to the server from these new views? A. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of the database properties. B. Open each view that includes sorted or user-sortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Index option from the Advanced tab of the view properties. C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each sorted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option. D. Open each view that includes a user-sortable column. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each user-sortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option. Answer: D Question 10. The new Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify the height and width of the thumbnail image, along with what other attribute? A. File type B. Color depth C. Image resolution D. Attachment name Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which two statements regarding Single Instance Store (SIS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Single Instance Store Item Type and child attribute must be referenced in the
CommonStore Server configuration file.
B. CommonStore uses two Item Types to store information for Single Instance Store, one for the document itself and one for the SIS hash key.
C. Once Single Instance Store is configured, CommonStore stores just one copy of each archived document, no matter how it is archived.
D. The Single Instance Store Child attribute may be shared among Item Types on the same library server.
E. Once you have enabled Single Instance Store for an Item Type, you may not turn it off.
Answer: A, E
Question 2.
It is common for various groups within the same orgainzation to have different requirements. These differences can greatly increase the complexity and cost of delivering the required CommonStore solutions. It is advisable to significantly reduce the number of separate policies by using a modular approach with a limited number of variations.
How should you determine the two requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a top-down approach to fulfill major requirements and then review and fulfill minor requirements.
B. Place all of the requirements in a pile and randomly make a selection.
C. Prioritize the requirements basic on the delivery cost.
D. Ask the customer to prioritize the requirements.
E. Implement major requirements only.
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
If your company policy requires that the Content Manager password be changed every 90 days, which action must the CommonStore administrator perform after changing the password?
A. Run CSX Task -p to store the new Content Manager password.
B. Run ArchPro -p to store the new Content Manager password.
C. Use notepad to update the Archint.ini file with the new Content Manager password.
D. Use notepad to update the archint.cfg file with the Content Manager password.
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the CommonStore for Lotus Domino configuration, where is the name of the Content Manager Item Type stored?
A. CSLD configuration database
B. archint.ini
C. archpro.ini
D. archint.cfg
Answer: B
Question 5.
When increasing the number of task workers, which agent on the ArchPro server should be increased to match the same value?
A. CMAGENTS
B. CSLDAGENT
C. CSAGENTS
D. CSXAGENTS
Answer: A
Question 6.
You have a CommonStore policy that archives all e-mail older than 30 days, but the retrievals on the system are very high. It is decided that 30 days is too soon and that all future e-mail should remain on the system 60 days before being archived.
What are the correct steps to change this?
A. Change the Archive Task in the configuration database/folder.
B. Add a new logical archive to ArchPro and archive all new mail to this logical archive.
C. Update the Archiving Policy and restart ArchPro.
D. Update the Archiving Policy and restart the Archival Task.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Your company policy is to delete all stubs in employee mailboxes after two years. The actual emails will remain in the repository for an additional year.
How will the user be able to search for these older e-mails?
A. There is no way to see older e-mails.
B. This type of search is in the existing e-mail client.
C. It will require a small modification to your existing e-mail client.
D. Use the Tivoli Storage Manager client.
Answer: C
Question 8.
A new desktop application is installed on all desktops in your company. It creates files with the extension *.new that will most likely be e-mailed among employees. Your CommonStore system is set up for attachment archiving.
What should you do?
A. Add a new MIME type in CM and a new Content type mapping in CommonStore.
B. Add a new Item Type in CM and a new entry in archint.ini.
C. Add a new archiving policy in CommonStore.
D. Modify the document mapping settings in CommonStore.
Answer: A
Question 9.
How do the CommonStore Server and the CommonStore Tasks communicate with each other?
A. The CommonStore Server accesses the CommonStore Tasks based on the directory named in the "Transfer Path" parameter.
B. The CommonStore Server accesses the CommonStore Tasks based on the task host name and TCPIP port number.
C. The CommonStore Tasks accesses the CommonStore Server based on the directory named in the "Transfer Path" parameter.
D. The CommonStore Tasks accesses the CommonStore Server based on the server host name and TCPIP port number.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Under which scenario will e-mail messages meet the minimum qualifications for CommonStore Single Instance Storing?
A. E-mail messages that have already been archived into any of the CommonStore supported archive repositories with an archiving type of Entire and which have not been processed by an external application for digital signatures.
B. E-mail messages that have already been archived into any of the CommonStore supported archive repositories with any archiving type, which have not been modified, and which have not been processed by an external application for digital signatures.
C. E-mail messages that have already been archived into any of the CommonStore supported archive repositories with an archiving type of Entire, which have not been modified, and which have not been processed by an external application for digital signatures.
D. E-mail messages that have already been archived into an IBM Content Manager archive with an archiving type of Entire, which have not been modified, and which have not been processed by an external application for digital signatures.
Answer: D
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