|
Question 1.
Which of the following is provided by the Cisco CallManager Express? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A head-end Enterprises PBX voice solution in IOS.
B. An enterprise class traditional PBX system.
C. Integrated Call Processing in IOS providing Key System and Hybrid Feature Set functionality
for < 120 station market.
D. A cost effective IP telephony solution for a small business supported across all Cisco (two)
E. All of the above.
Answer: C, D
|
Question 1.
A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B
Question 2.
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determinewhether to
conduct an assessment.
Answer: D
Question 4.
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L.
Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
Question 5.
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions.
What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
|
Question 1. A QoS STA is permitted to send which frame types of a Hybrid Coordinator? A. QoS Data + CF-ACK + CF-Poll B. Data + CF - Poll C. QoS Null D. PS-Poll E. CF-End + CF -Ack Answer: C, D Question 2. WMM-PS trigger frames can be what type of IEEE 802.11 frames? A. Reassociation B. PS-Poll C. QoS Data D. QoS + CF-Poll E. QoS Null F. CTS Answer: C, E Question 3. Given: ITCertKeys.com has an IEEE 802.11 WLAN secured by strong authentication (PEAP-EAP-MSCHAPv2) and encryption (CCMP/AES). They wish to implement wVoIP phones but have notices that the phones they have selected only supports WPA-Personal using TKIP/RC4. How can ITCertKeys.com maintain their current level of data security while allowing the wVoIP phones network access? A. Enable application layer encryption for the voice protocol and implement a wireless intrusion prevention system (WIPS) on the wVoIP network segment B. Use a secure DHCP server that can restrict access to layer 3 addresses based on user authentication C. Use MAC filtering to the network segment where the wVoIP phones will be used D. Use a separate SSID for the wVoIP phones and map this new SSID to a separate VLAN on the wired infrastructure E. Using RBAC, allow only the appropriate voice protocol (SIP, H.323 etc) to a specific destination address on the network segment where the wVoIP phones will be used Answer: D, E Question 4: On an Enterprise IEEE 802.11 WLAN supporting both voice and data, why is WPA2-Personal security often preferred over WPA2-Enterprise Security for voice-enabled devices? A. WPA2-Personal imposes less encryption overhead than WPA2-Enterprise, resulting in better performance B. WPA2-Personal is more easily configured on the voice-enabled client devices than WPA2-Enterprise C. WPA2-Personal supports IEEE 802.11 fast/secure roaming between access points, whereas WPA2-Enterpise deployments may not D. Voice-enabled devices uses application layer (L7) security mechanism, minimizing the need for scalable data link (L2) security E. WPA2-Enterprise voice-enabled devices consume battery life at rate of almost double that of WAP2-Personal Answer: C Question 5. Given: An ingress frame arrives on the Ethernet port of an autonomous AP marked with an IEEE 802.1D user priority value: Which IEEE 802.1D user priority values (by name) will assure the data payload carried by the Ethernet frame gets assigned to the highest priority WMM queue? A. Voice B. Network Control C. Best Effort D. Controlled Load E. Video Answer: A, B Question 6. A QoS STA obtains a TXOP for an access category (AC) after what two parameters are met? A. After a Block ACK Response B. After a scheduled service period ends C. The medium is idle at the AIFS[AC] slot boundary D. After a Target Beacon Transmission Time (TBTT) E. The backoff time for that AC has expired Answer: C, E Question 7. Given: An EDCA QoS BSS is operating as a Robust Security Network (RSN). Two QoS STAs in the QoS BSS are using a Direct Link to communicate. When the RTS/CTS threshold is exceeded for a frame to be transmitted between the two QoS STAs, what is the frame exchange sequence, including interframe spaces? A. AIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK B. AIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-DIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK C. DIFS-RTS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK D. RIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK E. DIFS-RTS-SIFS-ACK-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-ACK-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK Answer: A Question 8. All successful frame transmissions within an EDCA TXOP are separated by what IEEE 802.11 entity? A. TBTT B. ACK C. SIFS D. AIFS E. PIFS F. CAP Answer: C Question 9. Given: ITCertKeys.com has recently installed its first access point. The access point is an ERP unit and both ERP and HR-DSSS client stations will be used on the wireless network simultaneously. The network administrator has appropriately configured the access point and all of the company's HR-DSSS wireless client stations to use short preambles for CCK transmissions. A visitor begins using a Personal Data Assistant (PDA) with an integrated HR-DSSS radio configured for use of long preambles on ABC's wireless network Which statement describes what the network administrator will se with a wireless protocol analyzer? A. Once the visitor's PDA is associated to the access point, all HR-DSSS stations associated to the access point will being using long preambles B. The visitor's PDA will communicate with the access point using long preambles and the access point will communicate with all other client stations using short preambles C. The visitor's PDA will not be able to associate to the wireless network and it will cause significant interference for other wireless stations D. The visitor's PDA will associate to the access point using MMPDUs with long preambles but then begin sending Data frames using short preambles since data frames can't use long preambles Answer: A Question 10. Given: Shown are frames captured from an IEEE 80.1X/LEAP authentication. This WLAN is a Robust Security network (RSN) using the CCMP cipher suite. Exhibit: Using the information given in the screenshot, calculate how long it takes for only the frames that are part of the 4-Way handshake to complete. A. 210.443 ms B. 243.743 ms C. 3.018 ms D. 5.820 ms E. 237.753 ms Answer: D
|
Question 1. Which of the following commands will display a list of installed AIX software on a server? A. installp B. lpstat C. lppchk D. lslpp Answer: D Question 2. There is a database running in an AIX partition on a p570 server. The database administer wants a script run to cleanly shut down the database before the operating system is shut down. As system administrator, which of the following would meet the database administrator requirement? A. Use the chitab command to change the Action field of the appropriate /etc/inittab entry from espawn to nce B. Create a script to shut down the database in the /etc/rc.d/rc2.d directory C. Create a DLPAR script on the HMC that issues an operating system command to run the database shut down script whenever a hutdown LPAR command is run on the HMC D. Create an /etc/rc.shutdown file containing instructions to shut down the database Answer: D Question 3. A System p administrator is doing an AIX 5.3 New and Complete Overwrite installation on a system with a 64-bit processor using the default settings. Which of the following options will be the resulting installed environment? A. Both the 32-bit and 64-bit kernel will be installed and the 64-bit kernel will be enabled B. Only the 32-bit kernel will be installed and enabled C. Only the 64-bit kernel will be installed and enabled D. Both the 32-bit and 64-bit kernel will be installed and the 32-bit kernel will be enabled Answer: D Question 4. An administrator wants to copy the contents of /apps to tape. Which of the following would accomplish this? A. cpio -itv < /dev/rmt0 B. tar -xvf /dev/rmt0 /apps C. find /apps -print | backup -i -v -f /dev/rmt0 D. find /apps -print | tar -tvf /dev/rmt0 Answer: C Question 5. How would an administrator reboot a system into maintenance mode? A. init 0 B. reboot -m C. bosboot -ad D. shutdown -Fm Answer: D Question 6. A user is having unrecognizable characters appear on their IBM 3153 terminal when using the ksh shell. The administrator examines the user's .profile in their home directory and it contains this related section of code. A. 'TERM=ibm3151' should read 'TERM=ibm3153' B. 'set TERM' should be changed to 'export TERM' C. 'set TERM' should appear before the 'TERM=ibm3151' D. 'set TERM' should read 'set $TERM' Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following is an advantage of DLPAR? A. Real mode address memory requirements have been increased for contiguous blocks of physical memory for large-memory partitions therefore improving performance for large applications. B. Since at least 1 Gig of memory is required most applications will run better. C. DLPAR provides the ability to add/remove processing capacity to an LPAR without disrupting applications. D. After reallocating resources DLPAR partitions reboot faster making the changes to those partitions readily available. Answer: C Question 8. During reboot, the system hangs with LED 0581 that indicates "Configuring TCP/IP." Which of the following recovery procedures should be taken? A. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and check the /etc/inittab for corruption. B. Boot in maintenance mode after verifying the network connection, access the rootvg and check the /etc/rc.net file. C. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and rebuild the boot image using the bosboot command. D. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and run /etc/tcp.clean. Answer: B Question 9. Which command is used to wait for a process to exit and display the status? A. pwait B. procwait C. pstat D. ps Answer: B Question 10. A System p administrator needs to verify that the symbolic links associated with a fileset are correct as indicated in the Software Vital Product Data (SWVPD) database. Which command will provide this information? A. instfix -l B. lslpp -h C. installp -v D. lppchk -l Answer: D
|
Question 1. ITCertKeys.com uses a centralized call processing model to connect their saw mills in Albany and Columbus. Each mill is configured as a separate Location in Cisco Unified CallManager at HQ. Each Location has been configured with 256 Kbps of voice bandwidth. How many G.729 calls can be placed between Locations simultaneously? A. 23 B. 5 C. 16 D. 10 E. 8 Answer: D Question 2. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A manager at HQ is holding a conference call with three of his staff members that are located at BR. The HQ region uses the G.711 codec, the BR region uses the G.711 codec, and the IP WAN region uses the G.729 codec. The MRGL associated with the manager has only the software conference bridge listed. What will happen when the three staff members join the conference? A. The staff members will not be able to join the conference until all the software conferencing resources are consumed and the conference uses the hardware conferencing resources at BR. B. The staff members will join only after the manager has set the conference call up using the hardware conferencing resources. C. The staff members will all join the conference normally. D. The staff members will be prevented from joining because the software conference bridge only supports the G.711 codec and the staff members will be using the G.729 codec. Answer: D Question 3. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com needs to have the receptionist at extension 5000 handle all callers who exit their auto attendant by pressing "0". After changing the Operator parameter from 5500 to 5000, callers are still sent to extension 5500 when they press "0" in the auto attendant. What needs to be done to correct this issue? A. Dial peer 1 needs to be restarted using the shutdown and no shutdown commands. B. The application needs to be edited to point to the correct operator. C. The aa application needs to be reloaded in order to recognize the parameter changes. D. The gateway needs to be reloaded for application changes to take effect. E. The Operator parameter should be configured under dial peer 1 using the param command. Answer: C Question 4. DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A branch site with an H.323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site. You want to initiate SRST and get back the operation to normal. Select the appropriate steps in the correct order. Use only steps that apply. Answer: Question 5. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly? A. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command. B. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp farm profile. C. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number. D. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command. E. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command. Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message "Not Enough Bandwidth" on their phone and hears a fast busy tone. Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.) A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings. B. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR Settings. C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings. D. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings. E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR Settings. F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings. Answer: D, E Question 7. How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished? A. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway. C. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway. D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Answer: C Question 8. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from the San Jose site to the RTP site, the Physical Location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group remains the same. After roaming to RTP, the user called a colleague in RTP and conferenced in a phone in his home location (San Jose). Which statement about the MRGL for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone is true? A. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since his Device Mobility Group (DMG) remained the same. B. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_MRGL since his Device Mobility Group remained the same. C. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_ MRGL regardless of Device Mobility Group. D. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since he is conferencing a user at his home location. Answer: C Question 9. As the Administrator for an IT company that's using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you've been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country's numbering plan. Which scenario will accomplish your goal? A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile. B. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group. C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use the local PSTN gateway for each country. D. Implement Mobile Connect. E. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group. Answer: E Question 10. A remote site MGCP gateway will be used to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost. Which three steps are required to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.) A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN. B. COR needs to be configured to allow outbound calls. C. The default service must be enabled globally. D. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured. E. The default service must be configured on an inbound POTS dial peer. F. VoIP dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the PSTN to the IP phones. Answer: A, C, D
|
Question 1. Navisphere CLI is typically installed with what other software package? A. Navisphere Manager B. Host Agent C. AccessLogix D. PowerPath Answer: B Question 2. Which two statements about Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose two.) A. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources via IP / Ethernet networking. B. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources across a high speed, low latency, Fibre Channel network. C. SANs provide block level I/O access to storage resources. D. SANs provide file level I/O access to storage resources. Answer: B, C Question 3. Which three statements are correct about zoning with Brocade switches? (Choose three.) A. Zoning configuration information is stored on the hosts. B. Zone aliases are not required to define a zone. C. A zone can be included in more than one zone configuration. D. Each zone must be given a unique name. E. Each device can be included in only one zone. Answer: B, C, D Question 4. Which term is another name for hard zoning in Fibre Channel switches? A. soft zoning B. WWN zoning C. port zoning D. switch zoning Answer: C Question 5. Where is the Host Agent privileged user list stored? A. on the Storage Area Network (SAN) for central access B. in an administrative share on the host server for host-to-host replication C. both locally and remotely on the SAN D. each Host Agent maintains its own local copy Answer: D Question 6. Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy? A. admhost B. naviadm C. admcopy D. admsnap Answer: A Question 7. Which three statements about a GigaBit Interface Converter (GBIC) are true? (Choose three.) A. Single-mode optical can be used for long wavelength transmissions. B. A GBIC can convert the SCSI protocol intoFibre Channel. C. Multi-mode optical can be used for short wavelength transmissions. D. Small form pluggable LC transceivers build upon the GBIC standard. E. A GBIC terminates aFibre loop. Answer: A, C, D Question 8. Which two components of a CX700 array do the standby power supplies connect to? (Choose two.) A. The left and right power distribution units (PDUs) B. Storage Processor Enclosure (SPE) C. the first Disk Array Enclosure (DAE2-OS) D. Disk Processor Enclosure (DPE) Answer: B, C Question 9. Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.) A. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs. B. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN. C. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create. D. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files. E. Snapshots may be created using theadmhost CLI utility. Answer: A, B, C Question 10. What are four characteristics of World Wide Names (WWNs)? (Choose four.) A. WWNs consist of a 128-bit value comprising a 64-bit node name and a 64-bit port name. B. WWNs can be used in an IP NIC. C. WWNs are used to route SAN data and provide zoning and failover functionality. D. Each device has a pre-defined, unique address. E. More than one WWN can exist in a single host if the host contains multiple Host Bus Adapters (HBAs). Answer: A, C, D, E
|
Question 1. A company is deciding whether or not to monitor employees' e-mail. What type of ethical issue is involved? A. Accuracy B. Property C. Privacy D. Accessibility Answer: C Question 2. Collaborative filtering software is: A. Software that keeps track of users' movements to interpret their interests. B. Best for most endeavors. C. Illegal, but popular. D. Software that is user-controlled. Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following is not a form of push technology? A. Self-service delivery B. Direct delivery C. Search engine optimization D. Mediated delivery Answer: C Question 4. The most common online shopper is: A. 55 or older. B. 35 to 54 years old. C. 20 to 35 years old. D. Under 20 years old. Answer: B Question 5. When a Web user "clicks through" from one site to a second site, buys a product on the second site, and then the second site pays a commission to the first site for the referral, we call this process: A. Link referral. B. Banner commissioning. C. Affiliate marketing. D. Co-advertising. Answer: A Question 6. Notational money is: A. A financial transaction made without the use of paper documents. B. An electronic medium for making payments. C. Value stored and exchanged by formal authorization. D. A marker representing value. Answer: C Question 7. In which one of the following ways do Online Auction Sites like Ebay make money? A. By taking a percentage of each transaction B. By providing escrow services C. By charging for shipping and handling D. By providing payment services via Credit Card Answer: A Question 8. Jackie has an e-card that she waives at the turnstile to enter the subway. What type of smart card is she using? A. Credit card B. Contactless card C. Contact card D. Purchase card Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is an example of a general purpose pure-play e-tailer? A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online. B. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold. C. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product. D. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold. Answer: A Question 10. Collaborative filtering software is: A. Best for most endeavors. B. Software that is user-controlled. C. Software that keeps track of users' movements to interpret their interests. D. Illegal, but popular. Answer: C
|
Question 1. How many cache groups can be used in Transparent Cache Switching: A. 5 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2 Answer: B Question 2. Session Capacity Threshold defines: A. The percent of remaining sessions available on the ServerIron B. The total number of sessions used on the ServerIron C. The total number of sessions that are configured on the real servers D. The total session capacity of the ServerIron Answer: A Question 3. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server C. The application cannot be found D. The VIP is bound to the real server E. The application needs to be bound to the real server Answer: D Question 4. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application cannot be found C. The application needs to be bound to the real server D. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server E. The VIP is bound to the real server Answer: E Question 5. Filters on the ServerIron configured for Server Load Balancing are: A. Set to drop any connections specified by the filter B. Applied to packets directed to the VIP C. Used to redirect packets to the Internet D. Set to drop traffic to or from specified ports Answer: B Question 6. When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers A. False B. True Answer: A Question 7. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server? Choices: 1) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP b. Source translate the clients IP address 2) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged 3) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged b. Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address 4) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 Answer: B Question 8. Configuring a remote server as primary will include it: A. As the primary remote backup server B. As the primary backup server C. In the VIP balancing with the local servers D. As the server to access when all the locals have failed Answer: C Question 9. What ServerIron CLI command enables FWLB for TCP. A. ip policy 1 fw tcp 0 global B. ip policy 1 fw tcp 1 global C. ip policy 1 fw udp 1 global D. server fw-port 5 Answer: A Question 10. When configuring Hot Standby Redundancy, the configuration from one ServerIron can be copied to another ServerIron exactly except for: A. The management address and the MAC address B. The MAC address C. The sync-link address D. The management address Answer: D
|
Question 1. To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply on the MSA2000? A. virtual disk B. array C. physical disk D. volume Answer: D Question 2. You recently upgraded to CommandView EVA v7 and changed the password to pa$$word01. You can no longer manage the EVA5000. What is a possible cause? A. The password contains unsupported characters. B. The password contains fewer than 12 characters. C. The password requires at least one uppercase character. D. The password contains more than 8 characters. Answer: D Question 3. What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains preallocated reserve space for snapshot data? A. snap pool B. master volume C. target volume D. rollback pool Answer: A Question 4. What is the EVAperf default setting for collecting data? A. every second B. every 5 seconds C. every 15 seconds D. every 10 seconds Answer: D Question 5. After a power outage, the MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online? A. Refresh Disk Blocks B. Dequarantine Virtual Disk C. ReInitialize Disk Blocks D. Trust Virtual Disk Answer: D Question 6. What is the minimum version of CommandView to enable all the features of controller firmware XCS 6.10? A. CommandView EVA 6.02 B. CommandView EVA 7.0 C. CommandView EVA 6.1 D. CommandView EVA 6.0 Answer: B Question 7. What is the maximum size LUN that can be created on the EVA4400 at initial release? A. 2TB B. 16TB C. 1TB D. 32TB Answer: A Question 8. DRAG DROP Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution Answer: Explanation: Question 9. You are installing an MSA2012fc storage solution at a customer site. The manual addition of a global spare disk fails. What is the most probable reason for the failure? A. No virtual disk exists on the system. B. Global spares must be added in pairs. C. Global spare disks must reside in the same enclosure as thevdisks. D. Unassigned disks are automatically used as global spares. Answer: A Question 10. Which items can be part of a disk group on an HP StorageWorks EVA for a successful online disk drive code load? (Select two.) A. unprotected RSS B. Vraid0 LUN C. Vraid5 LUN D. reconstructing disk group E. Vraid1 LUN Answer: C, E Question 11. Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now separately available on CD? A. EmulexEZpilot B. McData HAFM C. Cisco Fabric Manager D. Brocade Fabric Watch Answer: C
|
Question 1. The business value of data can change over time. Which concept is helpful to revalue such data? A. long-term data replication B. data revision tracking C. one-button data restoration D. policy-based data movement Answer: D Question 2. You work as a network engineer. You study the exhibit carefully. You are extending a SAN fabric at customer site using Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) devices. How many hops does a data packet perform when using this interconnect? Exhibit: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A Question 3. What is a key influence in HP Storage Essentials SRM Standard Edition purchasing decisions? A. simplicity of handling provisioning tasks B. simplified XP storage management C. storage reporting for UNIX, Windows, and Linux hosts D. simplified EVA storage management Answer: D Question 4. HP Data Protector Software and Veritas NetBackup are installed on the same host. What is the result of a CIM discovery? A. No backup applications will be discovered. B. Both applications will be discovered and can work in parallel. C. OnlyVeritas NetBackup will be discovered by default. D. Only HP Data Protector will be discovered by default. Answer: B Question 5. What are HP Storage Essentials SRM Standard Edition plug-ins? (Select two.) A. Provisioning Manager B. Policy Viewer C. Database Viewer D. Global Reporter Viewer E. File System Viewer Answer: C, E Question 6. What must you ensure when starting the CIM Extension manually in Linux operating systems? A. Any discovery processes must be stopped. B. You must be logged in with root privileges. C. All other CIM daemons must be stopped. D. The HP Storage Essentials SRM must be set up to run in auto mode. Answer: B Question 7. How many global spares can you designate for an MSA2012fc storage system? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 Answer: A Question 8. What is the first step in HP ILM methodology assessment? A. Perform a complete data backup. B. Determine archival needs as specified by government-enforced policy. C. Classify important data. D. Determine existing storage volume and estimate future growth Answer: C Question 9. For which type of storage I/O does HP recommend using a separate Ethernet network? A. HPStorageWorks Continuous Access mirrored I/O B. data migration C. ad hoc I/O data updates D. HPStorageWorks Business Copy snapshot Answer: A Question 10. In an HP StorageWorks EVA, when is a log disk considered full? (Select two.) A. when it reaches 2TB of Vraid1 B. when it reaches 1TB of Vraid1 C. when no free space remains on theVdisk in DR group D. when the disk group triggers occupancy alarm E. when there is no free space in the disk group Answer: A, E
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.