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appear the exam next weak, some new questions required...please help..
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Question 1. To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply on the MSA2000? A. virtual disk B. array C. physical disk D. volume Answer: D Question 2. You recently upgraded to CommandView EVA v7 and changed the password to pa$$word01. You can no longer manage the EVA5000. What is a possible cause? A. The password contains unsupported characters. B. The password contains fewer than 12 characters. C. The password requires at least one uppercase character. D. The password contains more than 8 characters. Answer: D Question 3. What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains preallocated reserve space for snapshot data? A. snap pool B. master volume C. target volume D. rollback pool Answer: A Question 4. What is the EVAperf default setting for collecting data? A. every second B. every 5 seconds C. every 15 seconds D. every 10 seconds Answer: D Question 5. After a power outage, the MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online? A. Refresh Disk Blocks B. Dequarantine Virtual Disk C. ReInitialize Disk Blocks D. Trust Virtual Disk Answer: D Question 6. What is the minimum version of CommandView to enable all the features of controller firmware XCS 6.10? A. CommandView EVA 6.02 B. CommandView EVA 7.0 C. CommandView EVA 6.1 D. CommandView EVA 6.0 Answer: B Question 7. What is the maximum size LUN that can be created on the EVA4400 at initial release? A. 2TB B. 16TB C. 1TB D. 32TB Answer: A Question 8. DRAG DROP Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution Answer: Explanation: Question 9. You are installing an MSA2012fc storage solution at a customer site. The manual addition of a global spare disk fails. What is the most probable reason for the failure? A. No virtual disk exists on the system. B. Global spares must be added in pairs. C. Global spare disks must reside in the same enclosure as thevdisks. D. Unassigned disks are automatically used as global spares. Answer: A Question 10. Which items can be part of a disk group on an HP StorageWorks EVA for a successful online disk drive code load? (Select two.) A. unprotected RSS B. Vraid0 LUN C. Vraid5 LUN D. reconstructing disk group E. Vraid1 LUN Answer: C, E
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Question 1. How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment? A. Use the omnidlc command. B. Use the devbra collector. C. Use the omnitrig process. D. Use the Web Reporting GUI. Answer: A Question 2. Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database? A. omnicheck B. omnihealth C. omnidbcheck D. omnihealthcheck Answer: D Question 3. Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process? A. Media Agent and Disk Agent B. Media Agent and Media Agent C. Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent D. Backup Session Manager and Media Agent Answer: B Question 4. You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem? A. Configure host access to the LUN. B. Install the required device driver for the library. C. Disable the RSM service on the agent system. D. Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices. Answer: D Question 5. What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents do NOT reside on the same host? A. RMI over LAN B. remote agents C. stream sockets D. pipe mechanisms Answer: C Question 6. What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the database? (Select three.) A. device B. filenames C. hostname D. mountpoint E. description F. rawdisk sections Answer: C, D, E Question 7. What is a media pool? A. a collection of media of the same age B. a logical collection of media that belong together C. a concept that enables faster backup and restore D. a physical collection of media that is used by the same device Answer: B Question 8. How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one Data Protector cell? A. logical lock B. device lock C. lock names D. physical lock Answer: C Question 9. What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows? A. 50GB B. 100GB C. 200GB D. 600GB Answer: A Question 10. Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device? A. redundant paths B. multipath devices C. device locking mechanism D. multiple device connections Answer: B
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Question 1. What must be considered when migrating the Cell Manager from a PA-RISC to an Integrity system? A. Reinstall the media agents. B. The new Cell Server should have the same name. C. Import the Internal Database (IDB) from tape media. D. The new Cell Server should have the same IP address. Answer: D Question 2. What must be done to integrate Data Guard on UNIX systems? A. Install the Data Guard Integration Agent. B. Start the HP Data Protector Software Inet service as Oracle user. C. Start RMAN from the HP Data Protector Software admin account. D. Add the Oracle user to the HP Data Protector Software admin group. Answer: D Question 3. What must be done to migrate the Internal Database (IDB) from a PA-RISC to an Itanium system? A. omnidbutil B. omniupdate.pl C. omnidbcheck D. omnimigrate.pl Answer: D Question 4. Which operation is unsupported for an Oracle standby database? A. physical backup B. backup using the recovery catalog C. conversion to a standalone database D. configuration with a primary database Answer: C Question 5. You want to integrate HP Data Protector Software with Oracle-based SAP R/3 on UNIX. Which backup modes can you use? (Select two.) A. RMAN B. backint C. SAPback D. BRTOOLS E. BRBACKUP Answer: A, B Question 6. Where must you specify the login credentials with util_oracle8.pl to configure a new Oracle standby database? A. Oracle database server B. on each Oracle standby instance C. HP Data Protector Software Cell Manager D. database server and the standby systems Answer: B Question 7. For which Oracle database type is the exclusion of single objects from a full backup unsupported? A. standby database B. standalone database C. recovery catalog database D. multiple-instances database Answer: A Question 8. You are integrating an SAP R/3 backup running on UNIX in HP Data Protector Software. What must be done before using the Oracle online backup functionality? A. Link HP Data Protector Software library to Oracle. B. Add sysdba user account to HP Data Protector Software userlist. C. Replace omnidb command with Oracle version of this command. D. Add ORACLE_SID variable in HP Data Protector Software global file. Answer: A Question 9. What is the purpose of online migration in ASM (Automated Storage Management)? A. data movement from disk to disk B. online replication to a standby database C. online database backup to tape devices D. data sharing between different database servers Answer: A Question 10. What is the recommended method to configure HP Data Protector Software version 6.0 Cell Manager after migration from HP-UX 11.x to HP-UX V.11.23? A. Create a local user account on the Cell Manager, log in to it, and use the Command Line Interface. B. Create a remote user account on the Cell Manager, connect to it from a remote system and use telnet. C. Log in to the Cell Manager locally using the root account, and use the HP Data Protector Software graphical user interface. D. Create a remote user account on the Cell Manager, connect to it from a remote system and use the HP Data Protector Software graphical user interface. Answer: D
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Question 1. Which utility can be used to reconfigure SAN configured libraries? A. uma B. devbra C. sanconf D. omniupload Answer: C Question 2. What could cause an export of a tape within a library to fail? A. if all drives are busy B. if the mailslot is full C. if the robotics is busy D. if the media is protected Answer: D Question 3. Which tool can be used to retrieve debug and log files from various client systems? A. omnidlc B. get_info C. omnicellinfo D. omnihealthcheck Answer: A Question 4. Which command can be used to check if the inet service is up and running on a member of the Data Protector cell? A. arp -a B. omnistat C. omnisv -status D. telnet5555 Answer: D Question 5. Match the Data Protector features with the associated management tasks by dragging and dropping the boxes. Answer: Question 6. Match the correct version of Data Protector to the feature released with that version by dragging and dropping the boxes. Answer: Question 7. What is the default Data Protector behavior if you have multiple hard links to the same file? A. Links are not backed up. B. The file is backed up only once. C. Each hard link is backed up as a file. D. The links are converted to soft links and backed up. Answer: B Question 8. After installation, which Data Protector components must be installed manually regardless of the Cell Manager platform? (Select two.) A. NetWare Agents B. Windows 2000 Agents C. Installation Servers D. Application Agents E. Solaris Agents Answer: A, C Question 9. When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory. How is the Media Management database updated with this information? A. automatically when the device schedule is invoked B. with the omnidownload command C. with the omniupload command D. with the omniupdate command Answer: C Question 10. You have just installed an HP-UX client manually and successfully imported the client into your HP-UX Cell Manager. Which file contains the information about the client (agents and versions)? A. /etc/opt/omni/cell/clients B. /etc/opt/omni/cell/cell_info C. /etc/opt/omni/cell/cell_clients D. /etc/opt/omni/cell/agents Answer: B
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Question 1. A customer wants to purchase a second EML 245e library. What must be ordered in addition to the EML 103e base module? A. redundant power supply B. EML Command View License C. EML Secure Manager License D. EML capacity expansion module Answer: B Question 2. A customer needs a library with a minimum of 120 TB capacity and an expected compression ratio of 1:2. Which libraries most economically meet the customer's needs? (Select two.) A. EML 103e with LTO3 tape drives B. EML 245e with LTO2 tape drives C. EML 245e with LTO3 tape drives D. EML 442e with LTO2 tape drives E. EML 442e with LTO3 tape drives Answer: C, D Question 3. A customer needs a throughput of 5 TB/hr with an expected data compression ratio of 2:1. Which library best meets the customer's requirements? A. EML 103e with LTO3 tape devices B. EML 245e with LTO 2 tape devices C. EML 245e with LTO 3 tape devices D. EML 442e with LTO 3 tape devices Answer: D Question 4. When completing the installation process in an EML E-Series tape library, how can you verify that the Fibre Channel links are functioning correctly? A. Power cycle the tape library and check the OCP messages. B. Execute the fcping diagnostic utility from the management station. C. Issue the diaggetput command from the Command Line Interface. D. Disconnect and reconnect the cables and check the link indicators. Answer: D Question 5. A customer wants to use an EML E-Series library with partitioning in a Linux environment. Which backup software is suitable for this solution? A. Symantec NetBackup B. Symantec Backup Exec C. CA Brightstor ARCserve D. Syncsort Backup Express Answer: A Question 6. What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select three.) A. floor space B. room height C. power requirements D. lighting requirements E. grounding requirements F. distance to disk storage Answer: A, C, E Question 7. What do you check to verify the interface controller configuration in an EML E-Series tape library? (Select three.) A. host access B. LAN connection C. power redundancy D. robot arm movement E. Fibre Channel speed setting F. Fibre Channel connection type Answer: A, E, F Question 8. What is a consideration when using a UPS with an EML E-Series library? A. The UPS power must last long enough to finish active backup jobs. B. The load of the UPS should not exceed eighty percent of the UPS marked electrical current rating. C. The UPS must be connected to the Interface Manager serial connector to allow the UPS to shut down the EML if a power failure occurs. D. The UPS must be connected to the Interface Controller serial connector to allow the UPS to stop the tape drives if a power failure occurs. Answer: B Question 9. What are the minimum requirements to use the Command View TL graphical user interface (GUI)? A. interface controller and Command View TL B. management station and Command View TL C. interface controller, Command View TL, and GUI client with a supported Web browser D. management station, Command View TL, and GUI client with a supported Web browser Answer: D Question 10. A customer wants to use an EML103e tape library with Data Protector 5.1. The library firmware is 1070, the Interface Manager has firmware i180 and the e2400-FC 4G has firmware 5.7.1f loaded. The Command View TL version is 1.70. Using the Exhibits as a reference, what must be changed before the library can be used? A. No changes are needed. B. Data Protector must be upgraded to version 6. C. Command View TL needs an upgrade to version 1.80. D. Interface Manager needs firmware i171 and the Interface Controller needs 5.7.1b. Answer: C
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Question 1.
You accidentally initiated an abort sequence. As a consequence, your SPARC-based SYSTEM WENT INTO THE prom MODE.
Which two actions disable the default keyboard abort sequence? (Choose two)
A. detach serial console device
B. run the kbd -a disable command
C. run the eeprom command to disable KEYBOARD_ABORT
D. in PROM mode, change the value of keyboard to disable
E. edit / etc/default/kbd to change the value of the variable KEYBOARD_ABORT to disable
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Your x86-based system with Solaris 10 OS installed on it is not booting correctly. You think the problem might be that a BIOS setting is not correctly configured.
What should you do to abort the boot process and reboot into the BIOS configuration menu?
A. While holding down the reset button, you power cycle the system.
B. You press the middle mouse button, When the screen times out, you enter the BIOS configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
C. You press the stop-A keys then typ reset-all. You reboot directly into the BIOS configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
D. You press the Ctrl-Alt-Del keys and reboot the system, or press the reset button. When the screen tells indicates the key to enter the BIOS, you press it and examine your BIOS settings.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given:
ap: : sysinit:/sbin/sutopush -f/etc/iu.ap
sp: : sysinit:/sbin/soconfig -f /etc/sock2path
smf: :sysinit:/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd >/dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog /dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog
Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. This file must be read by the process inetd.
B. When booting this system, svc.startd will start.
C. This is a part of the content of the /etc/inittab file
D. This system starts/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd for run level 1.
E. When this system gets the powerfail signal, svc.startd will be respawned.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device aliases . The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them.
Which sequence of OBP commands temporarily disables the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=false
reset
B. use-nvramrc?=false
reset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? false
reset
D. setenv use-nvramrc? = false
reset
Answer: C
Question 5.
An x86-based laptop has just had Solaris 10 OS installed. The graphics configuration has NOT been automatically detected and it is running without graphics.
Which program can you run to create an Xsun configuration file?
A. /user/X11/bin/Xserver
B. /user/dt/bin/xsession
C. /usr/x11/binxorgconfig
D. /usr/openwin/bin/kdmconfig
E. /usr/x11/bin/xorg -configure
Answer: D
Question 6.
The SPARC-based workstation system in your accounts department need their PROMs upgraded. Some of the systems fail to upgrade.
What is the cause?
A. The patch is corrupt.
B. The systems do not have enough memory
C. The write protect jumper has not been set correctly.
D. The system is running an earlier version of Solaris OS.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A SPARC-based system does not boot and displays the message:
"Timeout waiting for ARP/RARP packet"
Which three actions should you take to check the boot environment of the system? (Choose three)
A. check if the frame buffer is working properly
B. check if the NVRAM alias net is set properly
C. check if the NVRAM alias boot-file is set properly
D. check if the PROM variable boot-device is set properly
E. check if the PROM variable local-mac-address?
Answer: B, D, E
Question 8.
You receive a complaint from a user who is unable to use the SSH service to access the user's lab system. You use a serial line to get in and check the SSH service. The svcs output is shown in the exhibit.
What has caused the disruption of the SSH service?
A. The service is disabled.
B. The contract_id is missing
C. There is no "next state" defined
D. One of the dependencies has NOT been met.
Answer: D
As you can see /network/physical is disabled
One of dependencies has not been meet therefore ssh not running
So right answer is D
Question 9.
A SPARC-based system, but you are not sure of the physical path information;
Which OBP command shows you this information/
A. printenv
B. probe-all
C. show-devs
D. prtdiag -v
E. probe-scsi-all
Answer: C
Question 10.
As system administrator, you are asked to shut down the Apache HTTPD service that is running on a development server. You run the svcs grep apache command, and receive this output.
Legacy_run Feb_02 1RC:/ETC/RC3_D/S50APACHE
Based on this output, which two statements are tru?
A. This service is managed by LRC.
B. This service is NOT managed by SMF
C. Any legacy_run state can NOT be manually shut down.
D. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the shutdown script in the /tc/init.d directory
E. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the following shutdown script svcadm –v disable /etc/init.d/s50apache
Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
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Question 1. The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera. What is a possible problem? A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera B. PEA tile was never provided to the application C. Replication wasn't turned on D. Storage pool creation not completed Answer: B Question 2. What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32 Answer: C Question 3. Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool. An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips: 1) Grant the profile access to the pool 2) Create application virtual pool 3) Start migrating pool mappings 4) Set the home pool for the access profile 5) Create pool mapping A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 Answer: A Question 4. What is an "unbundled" cluster? A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to deploy B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed Answer: D Question 5. What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting? A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary cluster B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the secondary Centera C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power rail Answer: A Question 6. How do you launch the CUA Monitor? A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000 C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227 D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu Answer: C Question 7. Click the exhibit button. Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A Question 8. What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional? A. Chain and Inward Star B. Multipoint to Point and Chain C. Point to Multipoint and Link D. Ring and Star Answer: A Question 9. A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production. How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster? A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster Answer: C Question 10. With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work? A. NDMP compatible systems B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system Answer: D
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
According to the exhibit, R1/BCV on Symm321 and R2 on Symm654 is pair 1, and R1/BCV on Sym654 and R2 on Symm987 is pair 2.
Which of the following commands is utilized for the control SRDF device operations on these two pairs?
A. Symrdf -bcv symrdf brbcv
B. syumrdf symrdf -rbcv
C. Symrdf Jcv symrdf -rdf -bcv
D. Symmir -rdf Jcv symrdf -rbcv
Answer: A
Question 2.
To simultaneously provide Read-Write acc4ess to both the R1 and R2 Volumes of the mydg device group, which SRDF symcli command would be used?
A. symrdf mydg spilt
B. symrdf mydg failover
C. symrdf mydg suspend
D. symrdf mydg spilt -concurrent
E. symrdf mydg suspend - concurrent
Answer: A
Question 3.
You Use Timefinder Snap to issue the following command:
Symnsnap list havedevs
Which two of the following statements best describes the output? (Choose two)
A. Percent full of the active Snap Session is shown.
B. The Symmetrix volumes associated with the Snap Save Devices are listed.
C. Percent full of the Save Devices is shown.
D. Lists the virtual devices associated with the Snap savedev device group.
E. Lists the active Snap Sessions.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
TimeFinder consistent splits are created by using which two items? (Choose two)
A. Resource Pak
B. Symmetrix integration Utilities (SIU)
C. PowerPath
D. Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA)
E. Persistent Storage Manager
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
A device group with SRDF source devices would be created by using which of the following SYMCLI commands?
A. symcreate namedg type RDF1
B. symdg create namedg -type RDF1
C. symdg create namedg type REGULAR
D. symdg create namedg type RDF1
Answer: D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the left, by placing them in the space provided on the right. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
For the following, you need to match the Symmetrix device type with the replication technology that it employs. Options may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 8.
What are the three features of SRDF/A, if cache and bandwidth are suitably configured? (Choose three)
A. Seconds of data exposure.
B. Unlimited distance.
C. No performance impact.
D. Some performance impact.
E. Hours of data exposure.
F. Limited distance.
G. No data exposure.
Answer: B, C, G
Question 9.
How can the Fibre Channel Buffer Credits, needed for a given distance, be calculated quickly?
A. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 1.6.
B. By dividing the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
C. By dividing the circuit distance in miles by 2.
D. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit above, the SRDF primary mode of operation is Synchronous, there is no secondary mode selected and the SRDF link is ready. While Production work on Host A is in progress, both local mirrors of the R1 Volume fail.
What will happen in this situation?
A. The Symmetrix will automatically change the status of the R2 Volume to write-enabled and Production work an continue form Host B.
B. Production work can continue from Host A but new write operation cannot be perform.
C. Production work can continue from Host A without interruption. All new writes will accumulate as invalid tracks from the R1 Volume.
D. Product ion work form Host A will fail. The application should be restarted form the Disaster Recovery Host B.
Answer: C
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