|
I need dumps for 621, 623..can anybody please help me???
|
Question 1. How many system controllers can be configured on the Sun Fire 15K? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 0 Answer: C Question 2. What command must be run at the domain ok prompt to generate a core file? A. ~# B. sync C. boot D. reset-all Answer: B Question 3. What log contains data about failed setkeyswitch commands? A. /var/adm/messages B. post log C. domain console D. domain messages Answer: B Question 4. What file contains the internal and logical network configuration information? A. networks B. MAN.cf C. smsconfig D. net.conf Answer: B Question 5. Which of the following devices can be used with STMS? A. D1000 B. SSA C. T3 D. A3500 Answer: C Question 6. Which of the following commands configures the UNIX groups used by SMS? A. smsconfig -g B. netgroup C. admintool D. smssetup group Answer: A Question 7. Where is the GUID derived from? A. disk world wide number B. disk device path C. disk serial number D. disk c?t?d? number Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following is NOT a function of Sun MC? A. panicing a domain B. creating a domain C. starting a domain D. hosting a domain Answer: B Question 9. Which layer is responsible for submitting requests to the STMS framework? A. system B. application C. vHCI D. scsi-3 Answer: C Question 10. What command is run to remove a Slot 0 board from a domain blacklist file? A. enablecomponent -d a sb1 B. addboard -d a sb1 C. addboard sb1 D. enablecomponent sb1 Answer: A
|
Question 1. Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA? A. Private key B. Symmetric key C. Recovery key D. Public key Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server? A. XTACACS B. TACACS C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. Where are revoked certificates stored? A. Recovery agent B. Registration C. Key escrow D. CRL Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. DRPs should contain which of the following? A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel B. Hierarchical list of critical systems C. Hierarchical access control lists D. Identification of single points of failure Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent: A. password sharing. B. escalation of privileges. C. implicit deny. D. administrative account lockout. Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised? A. Full disk encryption B. Common access card C. Strong password complexity D. Biometric authentication Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host enumeration by sweep devices? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. IPv4 D. ICMP Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack? A. Memory addressing B. Directory traversal C. Initial vector D. Session cookies Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended recipient can decrypt the ciphertext? A. Private B. Escrow C. Public D. Preshared Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports? A. VLAN separation B. Access control C. Loop protection D. DMZ Answer: C Explanation:
|
Question 1. When surfing the internet, which layer of the OSI Model will result in a session time-out? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 4 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 6 Answer: C Question 2. A customer complains that when there is a phone call at home, the wireless on his notebook computer will lost connection. What is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ-11 jack B. The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router C. The cordless phones are2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless D. The cordless phones are5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless Answer: C Question 3. If you want to use a 100BASE-T network to connect two servers and five workstations, which physical topology will you use? A. Star B. Bus C. Ring D. FDDI Answer: A Question 4. In an RJ-11 connector, how many wire pairs can be used at most? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: A Question 5. Which term best describes a server that can be configured to block connections according to the static address of a computer? A. Kerberos B. RADIUS C. IP address filtering D. MAC address filtering Answer: C Question 6. How many wires can be fit into RJ-11 connector at most? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Question 7. CAT 5 cable is a twisted pair (4 pairs) high signal integrity cable type. In a main distribution frame (MDF), which is the highest transmission speed for a CAT5 network cable? A. 1Mbps. B. 10Mbps. C. 100Mbps. D. 1000Mbps. Answer: C Question 8. Which of the following operates at a maximum of 16 Mbps? A. 10GBase-SR B. 10Base-T C. Token Ring D. FDDI Answer: C Question 9. Which network device connects to a Telco T1 line at the boundary point? A. Modem B. ISDN adapter C. NIC D. CSU / DSU Answer: D Question 10. Which network component transmits packets through a wireless network? A. WAP B. NIC C. CSU / DSU D. WEP Answer: A
|
Question 1. Which of the following statements about a riser card is true? A. It is used to connect a computer in a network. B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors. C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards. D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards. Answer: D Explanation: Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards. Question 2. Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card, and CompactFlash (CF)? A. E-book reader B. Memory card reader C. Smart card reader D. Barcode reader Answer: B Explanation: A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC). Answer option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a communications medium between the smart card and a host. Answer option D is incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for reading printed barcodes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader. Question 3. Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Biometrics B. Encryption C. Password D. Token Answer: A, C, D Explanation: The following can be used to accomplish authentication. 1. Password 2. Biometrics 3. Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication server. What is biometrics? Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication. Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication. Question 4. Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SMPS B. Floppy drive C. Monitor D. Keyboard. Answer: A, C Explanation: A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal electric shocks. Question 5. Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. USB B. DB-25 C. PS/2 D. DB-9 Answer: A, C Explanation: The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. What is USB? Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and DB-25 port types on the computer are used as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins, whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins. What is a serial port? Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial signals can travel much farther without degradation. Question 6. Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Hot plugging B. Hibernate mode C. Standby mode D. Safe mode Answer: B, C Explanation: The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management. Hibernate mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled, users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers, users are able to set hibernate mode automatically. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. Question 7. Which of the following are types of LCD monitors? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SVGA B. Active Matrix C. Passive Matrix D. X-Matrix Answer: B, C Explanation: Two types of LCDs are available. Active matrix Passive matrix Active matrix LCDs uses individual transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of LCD consumes more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive matrix Passive matrix screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen displays weak colors. LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs. Answer option A is incorrect. SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers, and not the LCD monitor. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix. Question 8. Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio? A. DVI B. S-Video C. SVGA D. HDMI Answer: D Explanation: HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and alldigital audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multichannel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources, such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and Type B. Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future. Answer option B is incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a technology for video transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two separate signals. One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals are considered as a type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other complex component video schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than those produced by composite video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For using SVideo, the device sending the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving the signal needs to have an S-Video input jack. Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High- Definition_Multimedia_Interface" Question 9. You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion card should you use? A. MCA B. PCMCIA C. PCI D. AGP Answer: B Explanation: PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a legacy graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot. Reference. http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm Question 10. Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to protect a computer from new viruses? A. Definition B. Modules C. Service pack D. Hotfix Answer: A Explanation: Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file contains information about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect computers from them. Answer option D is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring under specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release. Hotfixes are generally related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as soon as possible. Answer option C is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product. A service pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an operating system with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number of file replacements. Answer option B is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus"
|
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode? A. EPP/ECP B. ECP C. EPS D. EPP Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following expansion buses is used in Laptops? A. PCI B. PCMCIA C. MCA D. ISA Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following PC components has an air filter? A. Processor B. LAN Card C. RAM D. HDD Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following is the process of bypassing the CPU? A. Caching B. DMA C. Spoofing D. Spooling Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following components of a laptop is NOT upgradeable? A. RAM B. NIC C. Hard disk D. Motherboard Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following types of formatting can only be done by the manufacturer? A. Quick formatting B. High-level formatting C. Low-level formatting D. Initial-level formatting Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. What amount of data can a sector hold? A. 1000 bytes B. 512 bytes C. 625 bytes D. 1024 bytes Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following PC components has an air filter? A. RAM B. HDD C. CD-ROM D. CPU Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following is NOT an analog display standard? A. VGA B. DVI C. CGA D. SVGA Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port? A. 256 Kbps B. 800 Mbps C. 256 Mbps D. 400 Mbps Answer: B Explanation:
|
Question 1. A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size. The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. Which of the following would be the MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint? A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting. B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after hours. C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting. D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in the room. Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following methods effectively removes data from a hard drive prior to disposal? (Select TWO). A. Use the remove hardware OS feature B. Formatting the hard drive C. Physical destruction D. Degauss the drive E. Overwriting data with 1s and 0s by utilizing software Answer: C, E Question 3. Which of the following terms is used when printing data on both the front and the back of paper? A. Scaling B. Copying C. Duplex D. Simplex Answer: C Question 4. Which of the following can conserve energy in a server room? A. Sealing all potential cold air leaks B. Installing additional cooling fans C. Setting the temperature lower D. Replacing the UPS with a generator Answer: A Question 5. A user reports that their cell phone battery is dead and cannot hold a charge. Which of the following should be done when disposing of the old battery? A. Recycle the battery. B. Store the battery. C. Place battery in a sealed plastic bag. D. Disassemble the battery. Answer: A Question 6. Which of the following needs to be recycled due to dangerous amounts of gas contained inside its housing? A. CRT B. Toner C. Surge suppressor D. LCD Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating systems simultaneously? A. Virtualization B. SMTP servers C. ThinNet clients D. Terminal servers Answer: A Question 8. A company would like to dispose of old toner units. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate course of action to take? A. Use an approved recycling program either through a vendor or local government agency. B. Old toner disposal is the responsibility of the manufacturer. Call the appropriate number at the respective company. C. Toss the units into the trash. Toner cartridges are biodegradable. D. Clean out the toner cartridges with warm water and place the clean units into the recycling collection. Answer: A Question 9. A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the company to save on electricity usage? A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity. B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close. C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers. D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours. Answer: B Question 10. A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with small memory footprints. How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four servers, while not sacrificing functionality? A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/orSpeedStep functionality so that processing power is conserved. B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office is closed. C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory consumption. D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization. Answer: D
|
Question 1. See the definition below: Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things. Of which test level is this the definition? A. acceptance test B. development test C. system test Answer: C Question 2. In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place? A. Defining central starting points B. Intake of the test object C. Specifying the test object intake D. Executing (re)tests Answer: B Question 3. Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team? A. a defect in the test basis B. a defect in the test specification C. a defect in the test object Answer: B Question 4. Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively? A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested Answer: A Question 5. What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications? A. that the tests are reproducible B. that the test specifications are transferable C. that coverage of 100% is achieved D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy Answer: C Question 6. See the illustration below: To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination: * car - attraction Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree. Where must the 'bullets' for test case 4 be placed? A. Saturday, fun park, 2nd B. Sunday, museum, station C. Sunday,fun park, station Answer: C Question 7. A structured testing approach is characterized by: * providing concrete footholds * covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant aspects * providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to be done What is the fourth characteristic? A. it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system B. managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality C. the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the Total lead time of development is shortened D. to find defects at an early stage Answer: B Question 8. During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied here? A. by using boundary values B. by using a higher or lower test depth level C. by taking equivalence classes into consideration Answer: B Question 9. Which activity is not part of the Completion phase? A. updating thetestware to be preserved B. assessing test results C. evaluating the test process D. selecting thetestware to be preserved Answer: B Question 10. Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a relationship with programs that have not yet been realized? A. code coverage tool B. comparator C. 'model-based testing' tool D. stubs and drivers Answer: D
|
Question 1. Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT: A. A third-party identity provider. B. The customer organization. C. The SaaS provider. D. A user. Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications? A. Cloud providers will do application development. B. The development process needs to change. C. The role of the IT department will change. D. This can speed up the development process. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their contract? A. Consult the company's exit plan. B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier. C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers. D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common? A. Involvement of external staff B. Improved flexibility C. Reduced expense D. Shorter time to market Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud computing? A. Provisioning services B. Incident management C. Technology upgrade monitoring D. Security and risk management Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the function of orchestration services? A. Assemble functional requirements for application development B. Configure application clusters with Web services C. Enable and disable load balancers D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing? A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction B. Desire for improved security C. Desire for improved user experience D. Desire for reducing compliance issues Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is important to standardize? A. Information standards and applications B. User names and hardware providers C. Virtual machine images and applications D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost. A. increases B. reduces C. shifts D. equates Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party. A. companies, others B. companies, themselves C. individuals, others D. individuals, themselves Answer: D Explanation:
|
Question 1. You work in the Sales office at ABC.com. You use Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create company sales reports. It is the end of the financial year and you are working on a final sales report for the year. A copy of the report will be handed out to Sales Account Managers and Senior Management for discussion in an annual Sales Review meeting. There are five worksheets in the workbook, one worksheet for each quarter and a fifth worksheet with combined totals and analysis of the quarterly figures. You have entered all the data for each quarter and configured tables for the data. On the fifth worksheet, you have included graphical representations of the data using various types of charts. You now want apply a consistent formatting across the entire workbook. You want to give the workbook a professional look by applying graphics effects, light colors and easy to read fonts. What is the easiest way to prepare the workbook? A. You should configure a custom view to the workbook. B. You should apply a Theme to the workbook. C. You should use the Cell Styles function. D. You should select all the cells in the first worksheet and apply suitable formatting. Repeat the process for the remaining worksheets. Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. You work as the Finance Manager at ABC.com. It is the end of the financial year and you are auditing the accounts for the last year. You have imported the records from last year’s company bank statements into a Microsoft Office Excel 2010 workbook. You want to list all payments to a partner company named Weyland Industries with the category name of Services. How can you configure the workbook to display only the records that contain Weyland Industries and Services? A. You should consider making use of the Sort Ascending function. B. You should consider making use of the Sort Descending function. C. You should consider making use of the AutoFilter function. D. You should consider making use of the Hide function. Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. You work as the Sales Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create a sales report. The report contains the table shown below. You want to include a chart in the report to display a graphical comparison of the sales figures for the sales staff listed in the table. Which type of chart would best illustrate a comparison of the sales figures? A. A Line doted chart. B. A Full Pie chart. C. A half Bar chart. D. An Area chart. Answer: C Explanation: Question 4. You work as the Sales Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create a report on the sales figures for the first quarter. The report contains the table shown below. You want to add a column to the table to graphically illustrate the sales trends for each sales person as shown below. How can you easily create the graphics used in the Trend column? A. You should consider inserting Sparklines. B. You should consider inserting Line Charts. C. You should consider inserting Shapes. D. You should consider inserting an image. Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. Sally works as an Accounts Administrator at ABC.com. She is using Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to edit a workbook. The workbook contains four worksheets as shown below. Sally selects all four worksheets as shown below. Sally wants to cancel the selection so she clicks on one of the worksheets. However, the four worksheets remain selected. Sally calls you and asks how to cancel the selection. Which two of the following options could you advise Sally to do? Choose two. Each answer represents a complete solution. A. You could advise Sally to click on an selected worksheet. B. You could advise Sally to double-click on one of the worksheets. C. You could advise Sally to click on the tab of any of the worksheets. D. You could advise Sally to right-click on the tab of a worksheet and select the Ungroup Sheets option. Answer: C, D Explanation: Question 6. You work as an Office Assistant at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create a workbook. You want the worksheet tabs to appear in colors as shown below. How do you change the color of worksheet tabs? A. You should consider right-clicking on the tab and selecting Tab Color from the menu. B. You should consider right-clicking on the tab and selecting Sheet Color from the menu. C. You should consider selecting the Font Color tool on the Home tab. D. You should consider selecting the Colors tool in the Themes group on the Page Layout tab. Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. You work as the Sales Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create a report on the sales targets for the previous quarter. The report contains the table shown below. You want to configure the cells so that any value less than 70% is displayed as a red cell and any value of more than 70% is displayed as a green cell as shown in the table below. Which function should you use in your table? A. You should use the Cell Styles function on the Home tab. B. You should use the Table Style function on the Design tab. C. You should use the Conditional Formatting function on the Home tab. D. You should use the auto control function on the Home tab. Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. You work as the Sales Manager at ABC.com. Sally works as an Office Assistant in the Sales Office. You have asked Sally to create a sales report on the sales targets for the previous quarter. Sally uses Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create the report. Sally uses multiple conditional formatting rules to change the styles of the cells according to certain conditions. Sally completes the report and emails it to you. However, when you open the report, it does not look how it should according to your instructions. You note that only a few of the required conditional formatting rules are applying. Which of the following actions should you take? A. You should modify the conflicting conditional formatting rules. B. You should open the report using Microsoft Excel 2007 or later. C. You should ask Sally to save the workbook in the .xls format. D. You should ask Sally to save the workbook in the Excel 97-2003 format. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. John works as an Accounts Auditor for ABC.com. He is using Microsoft Office Excel 2010 to create a workbook. John enters the following formula into a cell: VLOOKUP (15, A4:D11, 4, FALSE) Which two of the following options describe what action the formula performs? Choose two. A. Search for the value 15 in the first column of the rangeA4:D11. B. Search for the value 15 in the last column of the rangeA4:D11. C. Search for the value 4 in the first column of the rangeA4:D11. D. Search for the value 4 in the last column of the rangeA4:D11. E. Return the value that is contained in the 4th column and the 15th row of the rangeA4:D11. F. Return the value that is contained in the 4th column of the range A4:D11 and on the same row as the value 15. G. Return the value that is contained in the 15th column of the range A4:D11and on the same Row as the value 4. Answer: A, F Explanation: Question 10. Your work at ABC.com includes the preparation of company spreadsheets using Microsoft Office Excel 2010. You are preparing a financial report that will be emailed to company managers. You want to add a background image of the company logo to the spreadsheet. The background image should not be printed if a manager decides to print a copy of the spreadsheet. How should you configure the spreadsheet? A. You should use the Picture function on the Insert tab. B. You should use the Background function on the Page Layout tab. C. You should use the Text Box function on the Insert tab. D. You should use the SmartArt function on the Insert tab. E. You should use the Effects function on the Page Layout tab. Answer: B Explanation:
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.