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Question 1.
DRAG DROP
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Question 2.
Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone
configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in
Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name
of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C, E, F
Question 3.
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)
A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn 13-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}
Answer: B
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its Answer: description on the right
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its description on the right
Answer:
Question 5.
If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?
A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on theControl Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio
button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the Answer:server, and clicking on the radio
button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of
the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the
service
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. trans coding
B. audio conferencing C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination
Answer: A
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the MoH server parameter on the left to its description on the right. Not all parameters apply.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page
Answer: B, C, E
Question 9.
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)
A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager
servers
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified
Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if the phones are in the same Cisco
Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the
same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in
the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
Answer: B, C, D
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Question 1. What is the primary benefit of the "time- to-live" field in the IP header? A. To improve buffer utilization B. To reduce the impact of routing loops C. To allow calculation ofrounD. trip delays D. To remind us that all earthly joys are fleeting E. To avoid delivery of packets that are no longer useful Answer: B Question 2. A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. What configuration statement A. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0 B. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0 C. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0 D. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0 Answer: C Question 3. An IGX-8 identifies itself as an IGX-32 on the configuration screen. What has gone wrong? A. The NPM was originally in an IGX-32. B. Database corruption has occurred. C. The user must physically set a jumper on the SCM to correct this. D. Use thesetnovram command to change the switch type. Answer: C Question 4. In PNNI networks, AESA has the following general format: A. 12-byte network prefix plus a 7-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector B. 11-byte network prefix plus an 8-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector C. 7-byte network prefix plus a 12-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector. D. 13-byte network prefix, a 6-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector Answer: D Question 5. To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, ISIS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called: A. Redundant DIS B. BDR C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS D. Designated Redundant System Answer: C Question 6. Cisco/StrataCom (Gang of four) LMI uses what DLCI for messages? A. 0 B. 1023 C. It should be configurable, as per the specification. D. It is negotiated when the ports become active. Answer: B Question 7. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path Attributes received at Net1 for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer) A. 200 57000 100 65100 B. 200 57000 100100 C. 100 57000 200 D. 200 57000 100 E. 65100 100 57000 200 Answer: A, D, E Question 8. The default network clocking source in a BPX network is: A. The internal oscillator of the lowest-numbered node B. The internal oscillator of the highest-numbered node C. Each node's own internal oscillator D. The clock chip on the network management system Answer: B Question 9. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer) A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address. B. it is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routingwih the same process. C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLVfield on the L-1/L-1 LSPs. D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information. Answer: A, C Question 10. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header? A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel. B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device. C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification. D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network. Answer: B
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Question 1. What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg? A. Bearer capability B. Channel ID C. Message Type D. Change Status E. Call Reference Answer: A Question 2. The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is: A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the Same network B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path D. To be used only for administrative purposes Answer: A Question 3. What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km? (worst case)? A. 0.005ps B. .05ps C. 5ps D. 50ps E. 500ps Answer: C Question 4. What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm? A. 1.6 nm B. 0.8 nm C. 0.4 nm D. 0.2 nm Answer: C Question 5. Click the Exhibit to view the topology. Router A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router B has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class subcommand should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B? A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000 B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000 C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000 D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000 E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000 Answer: E Question 6. If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means: A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it immediately. B. The receiver should reset the session. C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection in their buffers. D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire. Answer: B Question 7. How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport? A. 7 B. 21 C. 63 D. 84 Answer: C Question 8. BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability. What statement about route dampening is NOT correct? A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps. B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as halF. life-time. C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates. D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'. Answer: C Question 9. MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by: A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs B. BGPMEDs C. RTP or RTCP packets D. MBGP Answer: A Question 10. Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards,____restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on protection. A. 50ms,STP B. STP.STP C. STP, 1+1 APS D. 50ms, 50ms Answer: A
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1. Review the image, and then answer the question below. You have managed the Dock preferences to define where on the computer screen the Dock will appear for these four accounts: Lab (a computer group), Science1 (a computer in the Lab computer group), Teachers (a workgroup), and John (a member of the Teachers workgroup). When John logs in on the Science1 computer, where on the computer screen does the Dock appear? A. Bottom of the screen B. Left side of the screen C. Right side of the screen D. John will be prompted to choose whether his user preferences or the Teachers workgroup preferences should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of his choice. Answer: C Question 2. You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside. Which of these procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB free? A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 50 GB. B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 500 GB. C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB. D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit to 50 GB. Answer: C Question 3. You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You configured the authentication method as Any. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which authentication methods, and in what order? A. (1) Kerberos; (2) SSH B. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos C. (1) Kerberos; (2) Standard D. (1) SSH; (2) Standard; (3) Kerberos E. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos; (3) SSH Answer: C Question 4. Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to create resources, such as rooms and projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users? A. Directory B. Address Book C. Directory Utility D. Directory Access Answer: A Question 5. Which of these is a zone that is configurable from Server Admin? A. Cache B. Master C. Pointer D. Forward Answer: B Question 6. Which utility can you use to display the status of ticket-granting tickets on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer? A. Kerberos B. Server Admin C. KerberosAgent D. Keychain Access E. Directory Utility F. Certificate Assistant Answer: A Question 7. Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources, on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount configuration sheet? A. Choose User home folders. B. Choose Shared Library folder. C. Choose Shared Applications folder. D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path. Answer: B Question 8. What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure? A. 31 B. 64 C. 256 D. 1024 E. 1056 Answer: E Question 9. A MacBook computer running Mac OS X v10.5 was formerly managed, but its managed preferences have been disabled on the server. Still, the user is unable to change some preferences on the MacBook. Which statement presents a valid method for restoring the users access to these preferences? A. Delete the /Library/Managed Preferences/ folder. B. Delete the MCX attributes from the user records in the NetInfo database. C. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Services pane of Directory Utility. D. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Accounts pane of System Preferences. Answer: A Question 10. Which protocol does the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5 use to send messages? A. IRC (Internet Relay Chat) B. SMP (Symmetric Messaging Protocol) C. AIMP (AOL Instant Messaging Protocol) D. XMPP (Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol)
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Question 1. Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet? A. Whois B. Finger C. Lookup D. Traceroute Answer: D Question 2. You are an admin user, and have enabled the Ignore Volume Ownership option for an external FireWire hard disk. What will happen the next time a standard user attempts to mount the disk? A. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk. B. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read any file on the disk; the user will be required to enter an administrator password to modify or delete files on the disk. C. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk is mounted the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk. D. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk is mounted, the user will be able to read any file on the disk, but will be required to re-enter an administrator password to modify or delete files. Answer: A Question 3. Review the screenshot of a user's home folder, and then answer the question below. Which folder did the user create? A. Music B. Pages C. Pictures D. Downloads Answer: B Question 4. Mac OS X v10.5 can read files on a volume that is ________-formatted, but it cannot write to files on the volume. A. UFS B. NTFS C. EXT2 D. FAT32 Answer: B Question 5. Which procedure will let someone who does not have a local user account log in to a local admin user account on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer that does NOT have a firmware password enabled? A. Log in to the computer with the user name "root" and the master password, open Accounts preferences, and reset the admin user password. B. Remove a RAM DIMM from one of the computers RAM slots, restart the computer while holding down the Command-Option-O-F keys until you hear the startup sound, then type "reset-all" at the prompt. C. Start the computer from the internal hard disk, log into a guest user account, open the Reset Password utility in the /Applications/Utilities folder, then reset the password on the admin user account that resides on the hard disk volume. D. Press the C key while restarting the computer with the Mac OS X v10.5 Install DVD inserted, then choose Reset Password from the Utilities menu. Select the hard disk volume and the admin user account, then enter a new password for the account and click Save. Answer: D Question 6. You have configured your Mac OS X v10.5 computer to share its connected USB printer. Mac OS X users can locate and print to it, but Windows users can not. What additional step must you take to allow Windows users to print to it? A. In Sharing preferences, enable file sharing over SMB. B. In Print & Fax preferences, enable the SMB printer driver. C. In Printer Setup Utility, enable Windows Printing from the Printers menu. D. In Print & Fax preferences, configure the Windows Printer name and queue. Answer: A Question 7. Review the screenshots of a files permissions, as seen in Finder and from Terminal, and then answer the question below. Why are Kim's permissions to the file, Report.rtf, NOT visible in the Terminal listing? A. Kims permissions are stored as POSIX settings. B. Kims permissions are stored in the volume catalog. C. Kims permissions are stored in the file data segment. D. Kims permissions are stored in an Access Control List (ACL). Answer: D Question 8. Tom wants to share a document with Harriet. Both have standard user accounts on the same Mac OS X v10.5 computer. Which of these is NOT a location where Tom can store the document so that Harriet can read it? A. /Users/Shared/ B. /Users/tom/Public/ C. /Users/harriet/Public/ D. /Users/harriet/Public/Drop Box/ Answer: C Question 9. The primary role of the master password in Mac OS X v10.5 is to let you ________. A. Access all the passwords stored in a local keychain B. Reset the password of an account that has FileVault enabled C. Change the startup device by holding down the Option key while the computer starts up D. Connect to any password-protected web server whose password is stored in a local keychain Answer: B Question 10. Which statement identifies a potential effect of resetting the master password for a Mac OS X v10.5 computer? A. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password must use the old master password to unlock their keychains. B. Users who enabled FileVault before you changed the master password will not be able to access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password. C. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password will have their keychain passwords automatically updated to match the new master password. D. Users whose accounts were created before you changed the master password must use the firmware password to access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password. Answer: B
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Question 1. A report output file gets generated when you run "Validate APPS schema" by using the adadmin utility in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite environment. If the report shows something similar to "GL_CODE_COMBINATIONS table does not exist or is an invalid object", what is the first step that the database administrator (DBA) should take to correct this issue? A. Run the AD Relink utility and relink the GL product. B. Use License Manager, and register the GL product. C. Run the "Recreate grants and synonyms for APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility. D. Run Autopatch, and apply GL latest available patch. E. Run Rapid Install to reinstall the database components. Answer: C Question 2. In which three cases is it most effective to run validation on the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite setup? (Choose three.) A. before performing an export/import B. immediately after an upgrade or applying a maintenance pack C. after converting to multiple organizations or multiple reporting currencies D. after a patch or multiple patches are applied E. whenever you receive a run-time error that suggests that a problem is caused by the AD_DDL package Answer: B, D, E Question 3. Which four statements correctly describe a schema? (Choose four.) A. There is no one-to-one relationship between schemas and users in a database. B. the concept of a database schema is directly tied to the concept of a database user, or a grant from the schema owner C. The database user and the schema never have the same name. D. A schema can allow another schema to use its objects by granting access. E. An Oracle Application products database objects are divided between the product schema and the APPS schema. F. A schema is a named collection of database objects. Answer: B, D, E, F Question 4. You have just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applications are now experiencing problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form. You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix the problem. You answered the prompts from the utility as follows: 1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes) 2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes) 3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes) 4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes) 5. Enter list if products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd) 6. Generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes) 7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library) 8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmx The utility finished with no errors in the log file. What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility? A. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors B. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors C. all forms in the product group fnd now render with errors D. all forms in the product group fnd now render without errors Answer: A Question 5. Where can you find the Oracle 8.0.6 and iAS files in the Oracle Applications 11i file system? A.DB B. ORA C. COMN D. FND_TOP E. APPL_TOP Answer: B Question 6. You needed to apply patches to the production environment. Applying the patches on the Test environment was successful. When you applied the patches to the Production environment, the patches finished without any errors during the process. However, patch changes were not applied and the patch histories were not changed. What could be the cause of this situation? A. The patch was applied in pre-Install mode. B. The patch was applied inNormal mode. C. The AutoPatch version is incorrect. D. The Production database is down. E. The patch was applied in Test mode. F. The table for the patch history is full. Answer: E Question 7. What is contained in the FND_APPLICATION_TL table found in the Oracle Applications 11i database? A. trigger logic for all the Application Object Library (AOL) related tables B. transaction-load statistics of Application Object Library usage C. table list of all the Oracle Application Object Library (AOL) objects D. language translated information about all the applications registered with Application Object Library Answer: D Question 8. You suddenly start receiving errors indicating that there are numerous Java files in the database that are corrupted and cannot be run. You have determined that you have to reload the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) to fix the errors. In addition to reloading the JVM, what Oracle database utilities, if any, do you need to run and why? (Choose all that apply.) A. Reload JAR files to the database, because after reloading the JVM, the Java class files would be missing. B. Compile the Menu information, to restore Java menu files to the application forms. C. Compile the APPS schema, because after the JVM has been reloaded, APPS permissions need to be reestablished. D. None of the Oracle database utilities need to be run, because by reloading the JVM, all the Java file corruption is corrected with the new files loaded during this process. Answer: A Question 9. What is true about Rapid Install? A. Along with creating Oracle homes, Rapid Install generates new configuration files by using Autoconfig. B. Rapid Install can be used to install only the new technology-stack components. C. Rapid Install can be used to install a new database tier. D. For an upgrade, Rapid Install installs Oracle 9i RDBMS Oracle home without a database. E. Rapid Install can be used to set up the file system and configure server processes for an upgraded system. F. Rapid Install can be used only for a new installation of Oracle Applications. Answer: F Question 10. In your Oracle Applications 11i EBS implementation, the database is corrupt and to resolve it the database Java Virtual Machine (JVM) was reloaded. Identify the type of problem that may occur and the related correct solution. A. Problem: Many invalid objects are found in the APPS schema. Solution: Run the "Validate APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility. B. Problem: The Application window does not show any of the Accounts Receivables data. Solution: Use the "Compile/Reload Applications Database Entities" option from the adadmin utility. C. Problem: The Application screen display does not come up with one of the installed language characters. Solution: Run the "Convert Character set" task by using the adadmin utility. D. Problem: All Oracle Applications Java classes are missing. Solution: Run the "Reload JAR files to the DB" task by using the adadmin utility. Answer: D
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Question 1. The Oracle Workflow engine is _______________. A. Embedded only in Oracle 11i Applications database B. Embedded in any Oracle Database C. Embedded in any Oracle Application Server D. Embedded only in Oracle 11i Applications Servers Answer: B Question 2. Under which four conditions can you create transitions, if the source activity in a workflow diagram has an associated result type? (Choose Four.) A. When the activity does not return a result, labeled asB. When the activity times out, labeled as C. When the activity run simultaneously with 1 or other activities, labeled as D. When a result returned is not covered by other transitions, labeled with the result display name E. Regardless of the result returned, labeled as Answer: B, C, D, E Question 3. Which profile option allows user to delegate, transfer and reassign modes? A. WF: Notification Transfer, Delegate and Reassing Mode B. WF: Notification Delegate Mode C. WF: Notification Transfer Mode D. WF: Notification Reassing Mode E. WF: Notification Mode Answer: D Question 4. Which subscription property defines the order in which multiple subscription to the same business event are executed? A. Status B. Phase C. Customization Level D. Rule Datbase Answer: B Question 5. Which two methods can you use to transfer workflow definitions to a stand-alone Oracle Workflow database? (Choose two.) A. Workflow Builder B. FNDLOAD C. Workflow Definition Loader Concurrent Request D. wfload Answer: A, D Question 6. The access Level 0-9 is reserved for ____________. A. Customer Organizations B. Oracle Application Object Library C. Public D. Oracle Workflow E. Oracle E-business Suite Answer: D Question 7. When the Workflow Engine raises a send event, a series of agents is called in a sequence until the response is processed. What is the correct sequences? A. WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_NOTIFICATION_IN B. WF_NOTIFICATION_IN>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_DEFERRED C. WF_NOTIFICATION_IN>WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT D. WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_IN E. WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_NOTIFICATION-IN>WF_DEFERRED Answer: A Question 8. Which two options describe how role could be referenced in a workflow process? (Choose two.) A. Designate a performer to an item type attribute that returns a role name B. Assign a role to notification activity and do not include it in the workflow process as a node C. Create a role lookup type and assign it to a notification activity D. Directly designate a role to a perform Answer: A, D Question 9. In programming your procedures, you need to communicate state changes to the Workflow Engine. Which three WF_ENGINE API's can you to do that? (Choose three.) A. WF_ENGINE.TransmitWarning B. WF_ENGINE.TransmitError C. WF_ENGINE.BeginActivity D. WF_ENGINE.CompleteActivity E. WF_ENGINE.AbortProcess Answer: C, D, E Question 10. What are the similarities between the item type attribute and the function activity attribute in a workflow process? (Choose all that apply.) A. Both can be written at run time B. Both can be read at run time C. The internal name of an attribute cannot contain ';' (colon) D. Both are global to process Answer: B, C
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Question 1. Which four statements describe the role of Back-to-Back Orders? (Choose Four.) A. Links sales orders and purchase orders B. Flow of reservation supply from requisition to PO to inventory C. Auto Creates requisitions D. Supplier ships directly to customer E. Pegs supply to demand Answer: A, B, C, E Question 2. Which two statements are true about freight and special charges modifiers? (Choose two.) A. All freight and special charges are passed to receivables for invoicing B. Using freight and special charges modifiers, you can apply different freight C. Freight and special charges can't be manually overridden D. Only shipping execution can capture freight costs and apply charges Answer: A, B Question 3. James wants to add a new recipient to the Approvals list for seeded Negotiation Flow with Approvals. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The seeded workflow list of approvers can't be modified B. He should open the seeded workflow and add the new name there C. He can't modify the seeded list, so he should create a new workflow D. He should select Setup>Transaction Types, query the appropriate Transaction Type and the click the Approvals button. Finally, he should add the recipient to the list of Approves for the appropriate list name E. He should select Setup> Transaction Types> Approvals and add the recipient to the list of Approves for the appropriate list name Answer: D, E Question 4. Which two statements are true about one-step shipping? (Choose two.) A. One-step shipping must be used with quick ship shipping transactions B. One-step shipping is the process of ensuring lot controls are shipped appropriately C. Ship confirm rules must be set up in order to use one-step shipping D. One-step shipping is the process of picking, optionally packing and ship confirming delivery lines in one step Answer: C, D Question 5. Certpaper.com is a retail company and all its customer orders that are shipped have a pre defined freight charge for each line item on the order. The company wants to apply the freight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order amount. What should ABC do? A. They can't do this; freight charges can be applied only during the ship confirm process B. A Freight and Special Charges modifier can't be defined to apply the freight charge at the time of the sales order C. Automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line D. Define the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at the time of the sales order E. Manual Freight and Special Charges modifiers to apply at each sales order line Answer: C Question 6. What is true about the Ship From Stock fulfillment model? A. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity B. Every order must be reserved C. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order D. Every order can be pick released almost immediately after booking Answer: D Question 7. Certpaper.com. runs on the PTO fulfillment model. All the rule-based business rules for configuration the model are incorporated using OracleConfigurator, which makes it intuitive for sales representatives to configure the PTO model. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. After selecting all the options, PTO Model needs to be processed to get the configured part B. Routing needs to be defined for the PTO model C. Ship confirm the option items, not the PTO model and option class D. Process the configured item to generate the work order E. Based on the setup, either ship model complete or individual options Answer: C, E Question 8. Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose three.) A. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the freight cost B. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier and internal organizations C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization D. You can't associate the General Ledger account with each freight to collect associated costs E. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments Answer: A, B, C Question 9. Mary wants to perform the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been booked. Which three options are valid approaches for her to use? (Choose three.) A. Run the Auto Allocate process B. Execute online from the release sales order window C. Run a concurrent program from the release sales order window D. Use the standard Report submission process E. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process Answer: B, C, D Question 10. A user has been tasked with ensuring that Credit Checking is done at the time of Sales Order Booking for ABC Corp. Though she believes she set up everything correctly, no credit checks seem to be occurring. Which three elements should be check? (Choose three.) A. Is Credit Checking enabled for the payment terms applied to ABC Corp? B. Is the Credit check box selected in the standard customer setup for ABC Corp? C. Is credit check selected at booking on the Order Transaction Type setup used for ABC Corps orders? D. Is the credit check hold check box selected in the profile class accounts window for ABC Corp? E. Is credit check selected at shipping on the order transaction type setup used for ABC Corps orders?
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