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Braindumps for "000-285" Exam

Dumps Request..

 Can someone please send a recent dump to ifzarha@yahoo.com. Much appreciated and ill post results. 



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Braindumps for "HP0-A03" Exam

HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences

 Question 1.
Which options are available on an rx6600 running HP-UX 11i v2 with a PCI-e backplane and P400 PCI-e RAID controller? (Select two.)

A. RAID 1 only
B. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID ADG
C. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 1+0
D. configuration of RAID sets via the scsimgr command
E. configuration of RAID sets via the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)

Answer: B, E

Question 2.
Which LVM command allows dynamic size expansion of LUNs?

A. vgmove
B. vgmodify
C. vgextend
D. vgchange

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which benefits do Concurrent Crash Dumps provide to Integrity servers running HP-UX 11i v3? (Select three.)

A. faster crash dump
B. parallel dump units
C. vertical dump units
D. slower crash dump
E. multiple processors
F. no rebooting required

Answer: A, B, E

Question 4.
Which volume manager is integrated with the Serviceguard Cluster File System (CFS) for HPUX?

A. Mirrordisk/UX
B. Veritas Volume Replicator
C. TruCluster Volume Manager
D. Veritas Volume Manager/Cluster Volume Manager
E. Logical Volume Manager/Shared Logical Volume Manager

Answer: D

Question 5.
What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select four.)

A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. simplified management and automatic configuration
D. increased scalability (connect up to 16 million devices)
E. choice of load balancing algorithms for native multi-pathing
Exam Name: HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences
Exam Type: HP
Exam Code: HP0-A03 Total Questions: 61
F. out-of-the-box support for third party active/passive storage arrays

Answer: B, C, D, E

Question 6.
Which Serviceguard Storage Management Suite feature allows you to set policies that segment company data based on various characteristics?

A. Flashsnap
B. Storage Mapping
C. Storage Checkpoints
D. Dynamic Multi-Pathing
E. Dynamic Storage Tiers

Answer: E

Question 7
Which HP-UX 11i v3 command allows SCSI device management and diagnoses?

A. ioinit
B. iofind
C. scsiutil
D. scsimgr

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?

A. NUMA
B. ccNUMA
C. concurrent dumps
D. single CPU per socket

Answer: C

Question 9.
You have expanded an existing LUN in your EVA storage. The LUN belongs to an HP-UX 11i v3 LVM volume group (VG). You want to expand the volume group to reflect the new LUN size.

What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?

A. You cannot expand a physical volume when using LVM.
B. Create another physical volume and extend your current VG.
C. Backup, remove, create and restore the data to reflect the new size.
D. Use the vgmodify command to change the physical volume attributes.

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which vPar feature is new on HP-UX 11i v3?

A. shared I/O
B. CPU granularity
C. dynamic migration of I/O
D. dynamic migration of memory
Exam Name: HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences
Exam Type: HP
Exam Code: HP0-A03 Total Questions: 61

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "000-842" Exam

Rational Functional Tester for Java

 Question 1.
How do you start the application under test?

A. use the Windows Start menu
B. simply begin recording
C. open a command line and start the application by typing its name
D. click the Start Application button on the recording toolbar

Answer: D

Question 2.
While recording a script, the recording monitor _____.

A. appears at the conclusion of recording
B. is only displayed on the toolbar
C. does not appear
D. displays a message for each action

Answer: D

Question 3.
What can be tested when recording a verification point?

A. an objects data only
B. an objects data or properties only
C. whether or not the object is working
D. an objects data, properties, or existence

Answer: D

Question 4.
What can you use to select an object as a verification point?

A. the object finder, the object picker, or the object browser
B. the main object browser, the test object browser, or the extra object browser
C. the object finder, the test object browser, or the delay method
D. the delay method1 the scripting method, or the pointer method

Answer: C

Question 5.
A recording is started by:

A. Entering script_record on the command line
B. creating a script and then pressing the record button in the RFT application
C. starting the application under test
D. Starting RFT

Answer: B

Question 6.
How do you stop recording?

A. click the Stop Recording button on the recording toolbar
B. end the application under test
C. close RFT
D. close the recording monitor

Answer: A

Question 7.
Which three actions are possible with RFT? (Choose three.)

A. use a wizard to substitute literals with datapool variables
B. substitute literals in verification points with datapool variables
C. create a datapool while recording a data-driven script
D. create scripts in c#

Answer: A, B, C

Question 8.
You must _____ a script with a datapool before substituting literal values in the script with references to datapool variables.

A. share
B. associate
C. run
D. disassociate

Answer: B

Question 9.
When is the best time to use data-driven testing?

A. when the test only needs to be run once
B. when the test steps change based on the test input data
C. when the test must be run multiple times with different data
D. when the test requires a lot of manual data entry

Answer: C

Question 10.
Functional Tester allows you to import an external datapool from which of the following? (Choose three.)

A. an external .csv file
B. another Functional Tester datapool
C. an existing TestManager datapool
D. an access (.mdb) file

Answer: A, B, C


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Braindumps for "000-863" Exam

System i IT Simplification: Linux Technical V5R4

 Question 1.
What command can be used to list the Linux firewall rules in effect?

A. iptables -L
B. cat /proc/firewall
C. cat /etc/firewall.conf
D. chkconfig -l iptables

Answer: A

Question 2.
As part of the installation procedure, the customer wants to ensure that Linux can provide file sharing services to MS Windows clients. 

Which of the following tasks must be accomplished?

A. Use the package selection feature of the installation procedure to ensure that the SAMBA package will be installed.
B. Ensure that the SAMBA administrator user is created as part of the installation procedure.
C. Ensure that the Linux file system is formatted as either FAT or FAT32.
D. Create a SAMBA shared called windowsfs.

Answer: A

Question 3.
A customer with a Linux partition will create a subnet with a mask of 255.255.255.252. The subnet will provide two usable IP addresses that are 172.27.16.5 and 172.27.16.6. 

What will the network ID be?

A. 172.27.16.0
B. 172.27.16.2
C. 172.27.16.4
D. 172.27.16.7

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is the minimum user authority needed to create a Linux partition on an HMC?

A. SuperAdmin
B. Operator
C. PE
D. Admin

Answer: B

Question 5.
A System i customer successfully installed a hosted Linux partition using all virtual resources on a model 520 with an HMC. After logging onto the Linux partition through the console, the administrator attempts to setup the network but could not find the LAN adapter in the Linux partition. 

Which of the following is the probable cause for the missing LAN adapter?

A. The virtual LAN adapter was not created during the initial partition creation.
B. The FC #5706 Ethernet adapter in the system unit was not assigned to the Linux partition as a desired device.
C. The virtual IOP driving the virtual Ethernet adapter was not assigned as a required device.
D. The hosting partition virtual TCP IP host servers were not started.

Answer: A

Question 6.
What authority does an SST profile need in order to connect to the Linux virtual console via i5/OS?

A. Service tool security
B. Hardware Service Manager
C. Partition remote panel key
D. System partitions - administration

Answer: C

Question 7.
Which task will enable Linux to access an i5/OS image catalog?

A. Vary off the image catalog and allocate it to the Linux partition
B. Link the image catalog to the NWSD
C. fsmount to the /dev/vrtcdrom
D. Mount the CD

Answer: D

Question 8.
A customer with multiple divisions needs to ensure the Linux kernel and tool set used at each division are the same. 

Which of the following would ensure kernel uniformity at each division?

A. Use IBM Supplied Linux fixpack SI99607.
B. Copy NWSSTG feature in i5/OS.
C. Use IBM flashcopy in binary mode.
D. Install a Linux distribution from the United Linux Standards Base.

Answer: B

Question 9.
A customer wants to implement a Linux instance on System i that lets them take advantage of the features presented by the Secure Enterprise Linux (SELinux) initiative. 

Which of the following Linux distributions provides this capability?

A. Ubuntu
B. Novell/SUSE
C. Red Hat
D. turbolinux

Answer: C

Question 10.
A customer with a uniprocessor 9406-270 (FC 2248, 150 CPW) at V5R2 running at 85% processor utilization with 50% disk utilization plans to add a small Linux application and needs a dedicated Ethernet connection for the application. 

Which of the following actions best meets the customer's requirements?

A. Implement LPAR on the 270 and purchase a LAN card and a Linux license.
B. Migrate to an eServer i5 520 and implement LPAR with a LAN card in the Linux partition and a Linux license.
C. Order an MES upgrade to a dual processor 270 and implement LPAR with a LAN card in the Linux partition and a Linux license.
D. Install the Linux binary in the PASE environment.

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "000-864" Exam

Sys i IT Simplification: Intg. BladeCntr+System x Tech V5R4

 Question 1.
A System i customer has an iSCSI attached BladeCenter with 14 blades. The BladeCenter has Ethernet switches installed in Bay 1 and Bay 3. They would like to use a second initiator port on one of their blades. 

What parts are needed?

A. 1 Ethernet switch in Bay 2
B. 1 Ethernet switch in Bay 4
C. 1 Ethernet switch in Bay 2 and a second initiator HBA on the blade
D. 1 Ethernet switch in Bay 4 and a second initiator HBA on the blade

Answer: B

Question 2.
When adding an IXS/IXA to a System i, what changes need to be considered for the i5/OS memory pools?

A. The *MACHINE pool must use expert cache.
B. The *MACHINE pool will need more memory.
C. A private pool for the virtual LAN should be established.
D. A shared pool for the Integration for Windows Server Licensed Program Product (LPP) is required.

Answer: B

Question 3.
A customer has a System i5 520 1/2-way with five 70 GB RAID protected disk drives that are at 50% capacity. The current i5/OS applications are very I/O intensive. A performance-critical SQL server application that requires 100 GB of storage is going to be installed on a uni-processor integrated server. 

Which of the following solutions meets the performance requirement of the SQL application?

A. Add 2 GB of System i memory.
B. Activate an on-demand processor.
C. Add three drives to the current RAID set.
D. Create a new user ASP to contain the application storage spaces.

Answer: C

Question 4.
If six blade servers are installed in a BladeCenter, which I/O BAY supports the second port of the initiator iSCSI HBAs of all installed blade servers?

A. Bay 1
B. Bay 2
C. Bay 3
D. Bay 4

Answer: D

Question 5.
A customer has an i825, running V5R3, with an x360 IXA attached server. They are upgrading to an i520 and migrating their IXA to iSCSI. 

In addition to purchasing new System i hardware, which of the following steps are required to deliver a working solution?

A. Replace IXA in the x360 with iSCSI initiator HB

A. Migrate i825 onto i520 at V5R3M5. Follow iSCSI install read me first to complete the iSCSI configuration and installation.
B. Replace x360 with x3850. Add iSCSI initiator HBA to x3850. Migrate i825 onto i520 at  V5R3M5. Follow iSCSI install read me first to complete the iSCSI configuration and installation.
C. Upgrade the i5/OS on i825 to V5R4. Replace IXA in the x360 with iSCSI initiator HB

A. Migrate i825 onto i520. Follow iSCSI install read me first to complete the iSCSI configuration and installation.
D. Upgrade the i5/OS on i825 to V5R4. Replace x360 with x3850. Add iSCSI initiator HBA to x3850. Migrate i825 onto i520. Follow iSCSI install read me first to complete the Iscsi configuration and installation.

Answer: D

Question 6.
A customer that wants to install multiple iSCSI servers needs to ensure which of the following software products are required to be installed on their System i?

A. 5722-TC1 *BASE TCP/IP Connectivity Utilities 5722-WSV iSeries Integration for Windows Server 5722-DG1 IBM HTTP Server for i5/OS
B. 5722-TC1 *BASE TCP/IP Connectivity Utilities 5722-DR1 IBM Director 5.10 5722-DG1 IBM HTTP Server for i5/OS
C. 5722-TC1 *BASE TCP/IP Connectivity Utilities 5722-DR1 IBM Director 5.10 5722-WSV iSeries Integration for Windows Server
D. 5722-TC1 *BASE TCP/IP Connectivity Utilities 5722-SS1 option 12: Host Servers 5722-DG1 IBM HTTP Server for i5/OS

Answer: B

Question 7.
A customer with a System i model 520 with two 5095 expansion units wants to add two IXA attached integrated servers. 

What HSL configuration is recommended?

A. Add a separate loop for the IXAs.
B. Alternate the towers and the IXAs, one by one, in the loop.
C. Place the IXAs in the center of the loop, leaving the towers adjacent to the 520 unit.
D. Place the towers in the center of the loop, leaving the IXAs adjacent to the 520 unit.

Answer: C

Question 8.
A customer has two System x servers attached via iSCSI to a System i5 520. The application to be run on each server requires two initiator HBAs. 

What is the minimum number of target HBAs required?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

Question 9.
A customer has a System i 520, seven standalone IBM x336 servers, and three standalone Dell PowerEdge servers. All of the Windows applications running on these servers have very low I/O. They would like to integrate all the Intel servers to the 520 with one target iSCSI HBA, while reusing existing hardware. 

How many of these servers can be integrated?

A. Seven IBM servers
B. Seven IBM servers and one Dell server
C. Seven IBM servers and one Dell server using iSCSI software initiator
D. Seven IBM servers and three Dell servers using iSCSI software initiator

Answer: A

Question 10.
A customer with a System i model 550 wants to implement 14 integrated servers on a BladeCenter. Two of the blade servers will be running SQL server, drive large amounts of I/O, and require dedicated target HBAs for their data drives. The other blade servers run typical workloads without excessive I/O, but the customer does not know the amount of disk I/O that their servers currently drive. 

What is the recommended minimum number of HBAs needed?

A. Two target HBAs, plus one for redundancy
B. Five target HBAs, plus one for redundancy
C. Seven target HBAs, plus one for redundancy
D. Eight target HBAs, plus one for redundancy

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "1Z0-032" Exam

Oracle9i: Database Fundamentals II

 Question 1.
What criterion does Oracle9i use to determine whether a database file is an Oracle Managed File?

A. The filename format.
B. Information stored inside a data dictionary table.
C. Information stored in the ALERT.LOG file for the corresponding instance.
D. Information stored inside the corresponding initialization parameter file for the instance.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Oracle will use naming conventions when it creates the OMF files. In this naming convention, %t represents the tablespace name, %u is a unique 8-character string, and %g stands for the redo log group number.

Incorrect Answers
B: Oracle will create a locally managed tablespaces, so information about a datafile will not be stored inside a data dictionary table.
C: Oracle does not use ALERT.LOG file to store information about datafiles. It just keep log of database events and database structure changes.
D: Initialization parameter file will not be used to store this information. Oracle reads this file to set initialization parameters to start the instance. The structure of the database is stored inside control files. Oracle uses them to mount and open the database. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 153-160 Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 2-12
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features

Question 2.
Oracle9i extends the cursor sharing functionality with the new value of SIMILAR for the CURSOR_SHARING parameter. With CURSOR_SHARING = SIMILAR, cursors are shared for safe literals only. 

What is meant by 'safe literals only'?

A. No literal value is substituted for a shared cursor.
B. Different execution plans are generated for substituted literal values.
C. The substitution of a literal value will produce different execution plans.
D. The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Oracle9i has enhanced cursor sharing mode. It can use additional value, SIMILAR, in addition to the EXACT and FORCE cursor sharing modes. When you specify SIMILAR, Oracle only uses the execution plan if is certain that the execution plan does not have any association with the specific literal value. You can enable similar statements to share the same SQL execution plan by setting CURSOR_SHARING to either FORCE or SIMILAR.

Incorrect Answers
A: Literal value is substituted for a shared cursor. The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan.
B: Exactly the same execution plans will be generated for substituted literal values.
C: The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 215-217
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 57-59
Chapter 2: Oracle9i Architecture Changes

Question 3.
The Dynamic SGA feature allows the SGA to grow and shrink dynamically according to an ALTER SYSTEM command. This avoids the previous need of shutting down the instance in order to modify the components of the SGA, namely the buffer cache and shared pool components.

Which three statements are true for the Dynamic SGA feature? (Choose three)

A. The maximum granule size is 4 MB.
B. The minimum SGA configuration is three granules.
C. SGA memory is based on granules by SGA components.
D. The size of the SGA components is set by the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.
E. The size of the SGA components is limited by the setting of SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.

Answer: B, C, E

Explanation:
The minimum SGA configuration is three granules. One is for fixed SGA, one for database buffer, one for shared pool. Oracle9i has enhanced the nature of SGA parameters; they are now dynamic. You can change the values of the shared pool and the buffer cache without restarting the database instance. The Oracle9i dynamic SGA concept enables you to take memory from one area of the SGA and allocate it to another area as needed while the database instance is up and running. Additionally, the unit of memory allocation fr SGA is a granule in Oracle9i. Oracle9i also introduces SGA_MAX_SIZE, a new static parameter that enables the DBA to start with a smaller SGA and dynamically increase it to the maximum value specified by SGA_MAX_SIZE. If you do not set SGA_MAX_SIZE or if you set it to a value less than initial SGA size, you cannot increase the SGA size later.

Incorrect Answers
A: The size of a granule is 4 MB if the SGA at startup is less than 128 MB; it will be 16 MB otherwise.
D: The size of the SGA components is not set by the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter. This parameter is just maximum limit for sum of the SGA components. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 180-182 
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 16-17
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features

Question 4.
There is more than one way to set the server to detect and affect long running operations automatically. 

What is the best choice of you want to reduce the impact of long running operations on other users without aborting the long running operations?

A. Define user profiles and set the CPU_PER_CALL limit.
B. Define a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager.
C. Create a batch job that checks V$SESSION_LONGOPS; the batch job alters the session priority of the long running operations.
D. Create a user defined event in the Oracle Enterprise Manager, which monitors 
    V$SESSION_LONGOPS.

Answer: B

Explanation:
You can define a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager to reduce the impact of long running operations on other users without aborting the long running operations.

Incorrect Answers
A: You cannot do this with CPU_PER_CALL limit.
C: You don't need to use a batch job to check V$SESSION_LONGOPS for this purpose.
D: It can be done with a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager, you don't need to monitor V$SESSION_LONGOPS.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 122-129 Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements

Question 5.
What are three benefits of performing data definition language (DDL) statements against a partitioned table with the UPDATE GLOBAL INDEXES clause? (Choose three)

A. Global indexes are rebuilt automatically at the end of the DDL operation thereby avoiding problems with the UNUSABLE status.
B. You do not have to search for invalid global indexes after the DDL command completes and rebuild them individually.
C. Global indexes are maintained during the operation of the DDL command and therefore can be used by any concurrent query.
D. Global indexes remain intact and available for use by data manipulation language (DML) statements even for sessions that have not enabled the skipping of unusable indexes.

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:
Oracle9i overcomes the problem of rebuilding the global index by giving you the option to update global indexes as Oracle performs the partition DDL. This feature is not applicable to local indexes, domain indexes, index-organized tables (IOTs), or to indexes that were UNUSABLE prior to start of the partition DML. You can invoke this capability by using the optional clause UPDATE GLOBAL INDEX of the ALTER TABLE command. You can use this clause with the ADD, COALESCE, DROP, EXCHANGE, MERGE, MOVE, SPLIT, and TRUNCATE partition DDL commands.

Incorrect Answers
C: Global indexes are not maintained during the operation of the DDL command. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 130-131
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 102-107
Chapter 4: New Oracle9i Database DDS and Data-Warehouse Features

Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes the function of Oracle9i Cache Fusion feature?

A. It provides each session with its own view of the database at a different point in the past.
B. It enables you to execute scalable applications on a clustered database without having to partition the users or the database tables.
C. It lets you dynamically reassign memory in your database buffer cache to different block buffer sizes.
D. It allows you to add new sites to multimaster replication environment without quiescing the master definition site.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Oracle9i Cache Fusion allows you to execute scalable applications on a clustered database without having to partition the users or the database tables.

Incorrect Answers
A: It does not provide each session with its own view of the database at a different point in the past.
C: The Oracle9i Cache Fusion feature does not dynamically reassign memory in your database buffer cache to different block buffer sizes.
D: It does not provide you ability to add new sites to multimaster replication environment without quiescing the master definition site. 
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 223-230
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 193-206
Chapter 7: Oracle9i Real Application Clusters

Question 7.
What is true if you want to switch undo tablespaces from the current one, called UNDO1, to a new one called UNDO2?

A. It is NOT possible to switch unless no active transaction exist in UNDO1.
B. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; but current active transactions will abort.
C. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; current active transactions will be automatically migrated to UNDO2.
D. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; only current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1.

Answer: D

Explanation:
You can switch undo tablespaces from the current one, called UNDO1, to a new one called UNDO2. Only current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1, all new transactions will be assigned to the new undo tablespace.

Incorrect Answers
A: You can switch undo tablespaces while active transactions will run in the old undo tablespace. All new transactions will be assigned to the new undo tablespace.
B: Current active transactions will abort if you switched undo tablespaces.
C: Current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1 till they commit or roll back. They will not be automatically migrated to UNDO2.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 160-166
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 19-25
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features

Question 8.
Examine the list of variables and their data types:
NAME DATA Type
TS, TS1 TIMESTAMP
TSZ TIMESTAMP WITH TIME ZONE
TLZ TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
IYM INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
IDS, IDSI INTERVAL YEAR To SECOND

Which three expressions using the new data and time data types are valid? (Choose three)

A. IDS* 2
B. TS + IYM
C. TS -TSI
D. IDS - TS
E. IDS + IYM

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:
IDS*2, TS+IYM and IDS+IYM are valid new date and time data types.

Incorrect Answers
C: You cannot subtract timestamps.
D: It's not possible to subtract timestamp from the interval day to second. 
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 266-271
Chapter 5: Language Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 132-135
Chapter 5: Miscellaneous Oracle9i Features and Enhancements

Question 9.
Consider the following statement:
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SHEMA_STATS (-
2> ownname => 'OE', -
3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, -
4> method opt => 'for all columns size AUTO');

What is the effect of 'for all columns size AUTO' of the METHOD_OPT option?

A. The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all  table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
B. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data and application usage of the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data distribution, for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.

Incorrect Answers
A: The Oracle server does not create a new histogram based on existing histogram.
B: Histogram creation is not regardless of how the application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D: The Oracle server creates a histogram not only based on application usage, but based on data distribution also.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 220-222 
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 180-181
Chapter 6: Oracle9i SQL, PL/SQL New Features

Question 10.
Which two are true regarding external tables? (Choose two)

A. External tables can be updated.
B. External tables are read-only tables.
C. Indexes can be created on external tables.
D. Indexes cannot be created on external tables.

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
External tables are read-only tables whose data resides in an external OS flat file, and whose definition is stored inside the database. Indexes cannot be created on external tables.

Incorrect Answers
A: External tables cannot be updated. They are read-only tables.
C: Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 131-134
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 111-116
Chapter 4: New Oracle9i Database DDS and Data-Warehouse Features


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Oracle9i Forms Developer: New Features

 Question 1.
The JDAPI program that you are running throws JdapillegalStateException.

What is a possible cause for this exception?

A. The remove() method of JDAPI iterators has failed.
B. The compile() method of the PlsqlLibrary class has failed.
C. The underlying Forms code is failing to create Forms objects.
D. The program may be calling a method on a Forms object that has been destroyed.

Answer: D

Question 2.
Your manager asks you to maintain a log of the IP addresses of all sessions that run your company's Forms applications. To accomplish this, you decide to implement session-level Servlet Logging for all users.

How do you perform this task?

A. Add the SERVERURL parameter to the FORMS90.CONF file.
B. Modify the SERVERURL parameter in the Forms Servlet configuration file.
C. Define the SERVERURL environment variable in the Forms environment file.
D. Modify the SERVERURL parameter in the WEB.XML file for the Forms Servlet.
E. You do not need to do anything; session-level Servlet Logging is performed by default.

Answer: B

Question 3.
You have set the environment variables FORMS90_DATETIME_LOCAL_TZ and FORMS90_TZ_FILE to implement time-zone support, but you have not defined a value for the FORMS90_DATETIME_SERVER_TZ

How do you expect Oracle9i Forms to behave at run time?

A. A run-error will occur.
B. FORMS90_DATETIME_SERVER_TZ will be se to GMT.
C. FORMS90_DATETIME_SERVER_TZ will be set to the database server time-zone region.
D. FORMS90_DATETIME_SERVER_TZ will be set to the value of 
    FORMS90_DATETIME_LOCAL_TC.

Answer: B

Question 4.
What do the CFAPI and JDAPI utilities develop?

A. Forms modules only.
B. Forms modules and object libraries only.
C. Forms modules and menu modules only.
D. Forms modules, menu modules, object libraries.
E. Forms modules, menu modules, object libraries, and PL/SQL libraries.

Answer: E

Question 5.
Which statement about the Java Design-Time API (JDAPI) is true?

A. It is built on top of the C Forms API.
B. It replaces the C Forms API (CFAPI) that was available in Forms 6i.
C. It enables invocation of the C Forms API from a Java program.
D. It is unrelated to the C Forms API because its functionality is completely different.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which statement best describes what JavaBeans enable you to do?

A. Change the function and appearance of Forms items such as check boxes and radio buttons.
B. Integrate Java code from the middle tier and from external Web services.
C. Enable Forms to make use of Java code in the database by calling a Java stored procedure.
D. Extend and customize the functionality of a form by embedding a Java component.

Answer: D

Question 7.
Exhibit:
***MISSING***
You migrated an application from Forms 4.5 to Oracle9iForms. One of the forms in the application is a registration form for new users of your company's Web site. The exhibit depicts the Layout Editor for this registration form, along with the PL/SQL Editor that shows the When-Validate-Item trigger on the required user_id item. In this form, the form-level Defer Required Enforcement property is set to Yes to enable users to tab out of the user_id item without entering a value. When this happens, a user ID should be automatically generated. When you test the upgraded registration form, you notice that the When-Validate-Item trigger does not fire when users leave the user_id item blank, so the automatic generation of user ID does not function. The form worked perfectly in Forms 4.5.

What can you do to resolve the desired functionality without recording?

A. Set the form-level Runtime Compatibility Mode property to 4.5 so that the When-Validate-Item trigger fires for null items.
B. Set the form-level Defer Required Enforcement property to 4.5 so that the When-Validate-Item trigger fires for null items.
C. This is not possible, you must recode the application.
D. Set the Runtime Compatibility Mode property on the user_id item to 4.5 so that the When Validate- Item trigger fires even when user_id is null.
E. Set the Execution Hierarchy property to After for the When-Validate-Item trigger on the user_id item so that it fires after the user tabs out of the item.

Answer: B

Question 8.
When deploying JavaBeans, when must you digitally sign the JAR file?

A. When the application does not use Jlnitiator.
B. When the JAR file is not included in the ARCHIVE parameter.
C. When all the actions performed by the JavaBeans are permitted by a Java applet.
D. When all the actions performed by the JavaBeans are not permitted by a Java applet.

Answer: D

Question 9.
Identify three actions that you could perform in previous version of Forms but that you are unable to perform in Oracle9iForms. (Choose three)

A. Create a sound item.
B. Create menu parameters.
C. Create a bean area item.
D. Use middle-tier Java code.
E. Change the font characteristics of an item.
F. Start the run-time process from the command line.

Answer: A, B, F

Question 10.
Exhibit:
***MISSING***
Which statement is true about the accompanying exhibit?

A. If you click Step Over, the highlighted subprogram is removed from the Stack panel.
B. If you click the second line in the Stack panel, the Variables panel changes the show the variables that are defined in the RAISE_SALARIES subprogram.
C. If you click the second line in the Stack panel and then click Step Into, the debugger steps to the next line of code in the RAISE_SALARIES subprogram.
D. If you click Go, the CHECK_PERCENT subprogram finishes executing and the debugger steps to the next line of code in the RAISE_SALARIES subprogram.

Answer:


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UPGRADE: MCAD Skills to MCPD Web Developer by Using the Microsoft .NET Framework

 Question 1.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. All ASP.NET 1.1 Web applications hosted by IIS on ITCertKeys-WS528 are accessed on port 80.

You are required to develop a new ASP.NET inventory application named ITK_Invtry that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. You want to store all source files for the ITK_Invtry application in the C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\ITK_Invtry folder on TESTING-WS528. During development you must be able to access ITK_Invtry at the URL "http://localhost:80/ITK_Invtry". You need to configure the New Web site dialog box in Visual Studio 2005 to meet your requirements.

What should you do?

A. In the Location field, select File System and set the location to http://localhost/ITK_Invtry.
B. In the Location field, select HTTP and set the location to C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\ITK_Invtry.
C. In the Location field, select File System and set the location to C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\ITK_Invtry.
D. In the Location field, select HTTP and set the location to http://localhost/ITK_Invtry.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
When you select HTTP in the location field, Visual Studio 2005 will create and configure a Web application in IIS. The source files will be stored in folder associated with the Web application in IIS. By default this is a folder in C:\Inetpub\wwwroot.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: When you select File System in the Location field, Visual studio allows you to create the Web application in a specified folder. However, you will not be able to access the application on port 80 as port 80 is used by IIS.
B: When you select HTTP in the location field, you must specify the URL for the project and not the path. The folder path must be configured in IIS.

Question 2.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a page named Process.aspx in a shopping cart Web application that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. The Process.aspx page allows customers to pay for purchases using their credit cards. The Process.aspx page contains a Button control that confirms the customer's payment and calls an external Web service that charges the customer's credit card. You must implement confirmation and prevent postback unless the customer confirms payment.

What should you do?

A. Set the OnClientCliIck property to a JavaScript statement.
B. Set the PostBackUrl property to a JavaScript statement.
C. Set the PostBackUrl property to the URL of a confirmation page.
D. Set the OnClientClick property to the URL of a confirmation page.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The OnClientClick property allows you to override the client script that causes postback to the server. You need to use a JavaScript statement as the default action of the OnClick event of an HTML element is to submit the page. The JavaScript statement that will process the confirmation; if the customer declines the payment, the JavaScript statement will return a false to the control and postback will not occur.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The PostbackUrl property cannot be set to a JavaScript statement. It can only be set to
a URL. If it is set to a URL it will cause postback to that URL.
C: If you set the PostbackUrl property to the URL of a confirmation page as this cause the Button control to postback to the confirmation page. You must prevent postback.
D: You should set the OnClientClick property to a JavaScript statement that will process the confirmation without causing postback.

Question 3.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a product search page named Search.aspx for Web application that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. The Search.aspx page allows customers search for products that match specific criteria. The search criteria are implemented as CheckBox controls. The Search button is implemented as a Button control. You want the CheckBox controls to be cleared when the Search button is clicked.
What should you do?

A. Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
    Set the EnableViewState property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
B. Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the Page_Load event handler if the Search.aspx page's IsPostback property is True.
    Set the AutoPostback property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
C. Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
    Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the event handler for the Search button's Click event.
D. Set the EnableViewState property of each CheckBox to False in the designer. 
    Set the AutoPostback property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the initial state of the CheckBox controls are clear, you must set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer. You should then set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the event handler for the Search button's Click event to reset the CheckBox controls to their initial state upon the Click event.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You should set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer to ensure that the initial state of the CheckBox controls are clear. But setting the EnableViewState property will not clear the CheckBox controls. The EnableViewState property determines whether the CheckBox controls should be visible or not.
B: Setting the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the Page_Load event handler if the Search.aspx page's IsPostback property is True and the AutoPostback property of each CheckBox to False in the designer will clear the CheckBox controls whenever a postback occurs. You want the CheckBox controls to be cleared when the Search Button is clicked, not when a postback occurs.
D: The EnableViewState property determines whether the CheckBox controls should be visible or not. It does not clear the CheckBox controls. The AutoPostback property will clear the CheckBox controls whenever a postback occurs. You want the CheckBox controls to be cleared when the Search Button is clicked, not when a postback occurs.

Question 4.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a product search page named Search.aspx for Web application that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. The Search.aspx page allows customers search for products that match specific criteria. Once a product is located, you want an image of the product to be displayed. You want to use an Image control to display the image. You want to configure the Image control to display a description of the image if the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.

What should you do?

A. Set the ToolTip property of the Image control.
B. Set the ImageUrl property of the Image control.
C. Set the AlternateText property of the Image control.
D. Set the DescriptionUrl property of the Image control.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The text entered in the AlternateText property is displayed if the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The text entered in the ToolTip property is displayed when the mouse hovers over the image. It is not displayed when the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.
B: The text entered in the ImageUrl property specified the path to the Image. It does not display a description when the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.
D: The text entered in the DescriptionUrl property is used when accessibility features are turned on. It does not display a description when the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.

Question 5.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a navigation application. You add an ImageMap control to a Web page named NYCity.aspx and set its ImageUrl property to the URL of an image that represents the street map of central New York. When a user Clicks on an area that represents a building, you want to display a street address for the building on the same page You want to configure the NYCity.aspx page and the ImageMap control to accomplish this task. 

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate actions and arrange them in the correct order in the work area.
 
Answer:
 
Explanation:
You need to define a hotspot as a set of polygonal coordinates for each building on the ImageMap. You then need to handle the Click event for the ImageMap to capture user input. The Click event contains an ImageMapEventArgs parameter that contains a PostbackValue property that identifies the polygon. You should then set the PostbackValue to a value that will identify the address that needs to be displayed. 

Incorrect Answers:
Setting the HotSpotMode of either the ImageMap or PolygonHotSpot will treat these controls as hyperlinks but you want the data top be displayed on the same page. Therefore you do not need hyperlinks. You also don't need IPostbackEventHandler and IPostbackDataHandler as these raise server-side events based on client-side events.

Question 6.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a page named Products.aspx in a Web application that contains three DropDownList controls that are dynamically loaded from a SQL Server 2005 database file. The DropDownList controls represent a vendor list, a certification list, and an exam list. ITCertKeys.com customers use the Products.aspx page to select exams related to particular certifications on offer from a particular vendor. A Go button initiates the selection. Each DropDownList control has an associated RequiredFieldValidator control.

Whenever the customer selects a vendor, and the vendor offers certifications, then the customer must also select a certification if the. If the vendor only offers exams and not certifications, the certification list should remain hidden. Whenever the customer selects a certification, the customer must also select an exam. Validation error messages should only be displayed when the Go button is clicked. You need to set properties on the vendor DropDownList control.

What should you do?

A. Set the AutoPostback property to True and the CausesValidation property to False.
B. Set the AutoPostback property to False and the CausesValidation property to True.
C. Set the AutoPostback property to True and the CausesValidation property to True.
D. Set the AutoPostback property to False and the CausesValidation property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
You need to set the AutoPostback property to True so that you can programmatically determine whether or not the certifications DropDownList control should be displayed. By default, validation occurs when a postback takes place. To prevent this, you should set the CausesValidation property to False.

Incorrect Answers:
B: If you set the AutoPostback property to False, you will not be able to determine if the certification DropDownList control should be displayed or not.
C: If you set the CausesValidation property to True then validation will occur when a postback takes place. Validation error messages are displayed whenever validation occurs.
D: If you set the AutoPostback property to False, you will not be able to determine if the certification DropDownList control should be displayed or not as postback will not occur. Validation will also not occur as it occurs when a postback takes place.

Question 7.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a page named Products.aspx in a Web application. You need to allow external vendors to insert product information into the Products.aspx page. You decide to implement this functionality by using a DropDownList control. You add the following code to the Products.aspx page. 
 
You need to ensure that the DropDownList control defaults to [None] and that [None] is the first item in the DropDownList.

What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Set the DataSourceID property of the DropDownList control to "".
B. Add the string "[None]" to the Items property of the DropDownList control.
C. Change the SelectCommand property SqlDataSource control to "SELECT [None], 
    [CategoryID], [CategoryName] FROM [Categories]".
D. Set the AppendDataBopundItems property of the DropDownList control to True.

Answer: B, D

Explanation: 
You must add a static item to the DropDownList in the Items property. You should then set the AppendDataBopundItems property of the DropDownList control to True to prevent DataBound items from overwriting the static item.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You cannot set the DataSourceID property of the DropDownList control to and empty string. This will prevent you from binding data to the DropDownList.
C: The SELECT statement lists database columns from which data must be selected. [None] is not a column in the database and should not be listed in the SELECT statement as it will cause the DataBound operation to return an error.

Question 8.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a chat forum for the ITCertKeys.com Web site. You are using ASP.NET 2.0 to develop the chat forum. You are developing a Web Form that allows a subscriber to alter enter their account details. The page contains the following code snippet. 
 
You need to programmatically hide the TextBox control based on other input.

What should you do?

A. Add a Runat="server" attribute to the TextBox control.
B. Declare _Description as a TextBox in the code-behind class.
C. Replace the 
element with , , and
elements. D. Replace the
element with a Panel server control. Answer: A Explanation: Code-behind processing occurs at the server therefore you need to add the Runat="server" attribute to the TextBox control. Incorrect Answers: B: Controls are automatically declared in the code-behind page in ASP.NET 2.0. Therefore you do not need to declare the control. C, D: The
element does not have a bearing on your ability to use the TextBox control in a code-behind class. Therefore there is no need to change the
element. Question 9. You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com is a major supplier of Widgets for various affiliate online retail companies. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a Web application that allows ITCertKeys.com's affiliates to manage their accounts at ITCertKeys.com. Because of the complexity and size of the data, ITCertKeys.com implements a staging environment and a production environment for their affiliates. The URLs staging and a production environments are stored in the section of the Web.config file. The section of the Web.config file is shown in the following exhibit: You write the following code to access the connection string from the current HttpContext object: You need to place the code in the appropriate event handler. What should you do? A. Place the codes in the Application_Start event handler. B. Place the codes in the Session_Start event handler. C. Place the codes in the Application_BeginRequest event handler. D. Place the codes in the Session_End event handler. Answer: C Explanation: Items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. Once the object is populated, it can be accessed from any page throughout the request. Incorrect Answers: A: The Application_Start event is raised only when the application starts. However, items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. B: The Session_Start event is raised only when the session starts. However, items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. D: The Session_End event is raised only when the session ends. However, items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. Question 10. You are employed as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. You are in the process of redeveloping the ITCertKeys.com Web application. You want to add a TreeView control to a Web Form named cisco.aspx. The following XML defines the site map data for ITCertKeys.com. You need to bind the TreeView control to the site map data so that users can navigate only within the CISCO section. What should you do? (Choose all that apply) A. To achieve this you need to set the StartingNodeUrl property of the SiteMapDataSource control to ~/cisco.aspx. B. You need to add a SiteMapDataSource control to the Web Form and bind the TreeView control to the Web Form. C. You need to ensure that the site map XML is embedded within the AppSettings node of the Web.config file. D. You need to add a SiteMapPath control to the Web Form and bind the TreeView control to the Web Form. E. You need to ensure that the site map XML is embedded within the SiteMap node of the Web.sitemap file. Answer: A, B, E Explanation: The TreeView control should be bound to a SiteMapDataSource. By default the SiteMapDataSource will extract its information from the web.sitemap file. The StartingNodeUrl property of the SiteMapDataSource can be used to restrict the SiteMap to only the marketing pages. Incorrect Answers: C: Putting the site map XML in the web.config file could be done. This will require defining a customer site map provider. This is not the ideal place for site map data. D: The SiteMapPath is not a site map provider which is what the TreeView needs to bind with. A SiteMapPath is a server control that can be used as an alternative to TreeView in order to display a site map in a more compact manner.

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CCIE SP Optical Qualification

 Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?

A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference

Answer: A

Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:

A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the 
    same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes

Answer: A

Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km ? (worst case)?

A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?

A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm

Answer: C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 
Router ITK1 has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router ITK2 has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). 

What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class sub-command should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?

A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000

Answer: E

Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:

A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.

Answer: B

Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?

A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84

Answer: C

Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.

What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?

A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.

Answer: C

Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:

A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGP MEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP

Answer: A

Question 10.
Exhibit:
 

In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards, ____ restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on _____protection.

A. 50 ms, STP
B. STP, STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms

Answer: A


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TS: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring

 Question 1.
Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has an Active Directory domain named na.contoso.com. A server named Server1 runs the DNS server role. You notice stale resource records in the na.contoso.com zone. You have enabled DNS scavenging on Server1. Three weeks later, you notice that the stale resource records remain in na.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the stale resource records are removed from na.contoso.com. 

What should you do?

A. Stop and restart the DNS service on Server1.
B. Enable DNS scavenging on the na.contoso.com zone.
C. Run the dnscmd Server1 /AgeAllRecords command on Server1.
D. Run the dnscmd Server1 /StartScavenging command on Server1.

Answer: D

Question 2.
Your company has an Active Directory domain named ad.contoso.com. The company also has a public namespace named contoso.com. You need to ensure that public DNS zone records cannot be copied. You must achieve this goal without impacting the functionality of public DNS name resolutions. 

What should you do?

A. Disable the Notify feature for the contoso.com zone.
B. Disable the Allow - Read permission for the Everyone group on the contoso.com DNS domain.
C. Configure the All domain controllers in the domain zone replication option on ad.contoso.com.
D. Configure the Allow zone transfers only to servers listed on the Name Servers option on contoso.com.

Answer: D

Question 3.
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office has a domain controller named DC1 that hosts a DNS primary zone. The branch office has a DNS server named SRV1 that hosts a DNS secondary zone. All client computers are configured to use their local server for DNS resolution. You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need to ensure that SRV1 reflects the change immediately. 

What should you do?

A. Restart the DNS Server service on DC1.
B. Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on DC1.
C. Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on SRV1.
D. Set the refresh interval to 10 minutes on the Start Of Authority (SOA) record.

Answer: C

Question 4.
Your company has a single Active Directory domain. The company has a main office and a branch office. Both the offices have domain controllers that run Active Directory-integrated DNS zones. All client computers are configured to use the local domain controllers for DNS resolution. The domain controllers at the branch office location are configured as Read-Only Domain Controllers (RODC). You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need the branch office DNS servers to reflect the change immediately. 

What should you do?

A. Run the dnscmd /ZoneUpdateFromDs command on the branch office servers.
B. Run the dnscmd /ZoneUpdateFromDs command on a domain controller in the main office.
C. Change the domain controllers at the branch offices from RODCs to standard domain controllers.
D. Decrease the Minimum (default) TTL option to 15 minutes on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the zone.

Answer: A

Question 5.
Your company has a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. Server1 runs the DHCP Server role and the DNS Server role. You also have a server named ServerCore that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008. All computers are configured to use only Server1 for DNS resolution. The IP address of Server1 is 192.168.0.1. The network interface on all the computers is named LAN. Server1 is temporarily offline. A new DNS server named Server2 has been configured to use the IP address 192.168.0.254. You need to configure ServerCore to use Server2 as the preferred DNS server and Server1 as the alternate DNS server. 

What should you do?

A. Run the netsh interface ipv4 add dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 index=1 command.
B. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 192.168.0.1 both command.
C. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 primary command and the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.1 both command.
D. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 primary command and the netsh interface ipv4 add dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.1 index=1 command.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Your company has a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role. A server named Server2 runs a custom application. You need to configure DNS to include the following parameters for the custom application:
Service
Priority
Weight
Protocol
Port number
Host offering this service

Which record should you create?

A. Host Info (HINFO)
B. Service Locator (SRV)
C. Canonical Name (CNAME)
D. Well-Known Service (WKS)

Answer: B

Question 7.
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. Domain controllers in the main office host an Active Directory-integrated zone. The DNS servers in the branch offices host a secondary zone for the domain and use the main office DNS servers as the DNS Master servers for the zone. Each branch office has an application server. Users access the application server by using its fully qualified domain name. You need to ensure that users in the branch offices can access their local application server even if the WAN links are down for three days. 

What should you do?

A. Increase the Expires After setting to 4 days on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the zone.
B. Increase the Refresh Interval setting to 4 days on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the zone.
C. Configure the Zone Aging / Scavenging Properties dialog box to enable Scavenge Stale resource records, and set the Refresh setting to 4 days.
D. Configure the Zone Aging / Scavenging Properties dialog box to enable Scavenge Stale resource records, and set the No-refresh interval setting to 4 days.

Answer: B

Question 8.
Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has a domain in North America named na.contoso.com and a domain in South America named sa.contoso.com. The client computers run Windows Vista. You need to configure the client computers in the North America office to improve the name resolution response time for resources in the South America office. 

What should you do?

A. Configure a new GPO that disables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
B. Configure a new GPO that enables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
C. Configure a new GPO that configures the DNS Suffix Search List option to sa.contoso.com,  na.contoso.com. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
D. Configure the priority value for the SRV records on each of the North America domain controllers to 5.

Answer: C

Question 9.
Your company has multiple DNS servers in the main office. You plan to install DNS on a member server in a branch office. You need to ensure that the DNS server in the branch office is able to query any DNS server in the main office, and you need to limit the number of DNS records that are transferred to the DNS server in the branch office. 

What should you do?

A. Configure a secondary zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
B. Configure a stub zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
C. Configure a stub zone on the DNS server in the main office.
D. Configure a primary zone on the DNS server in the branch office.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Your company has a DNS server named Server1. Your partner company has a DNS server named Server2. You create a stub zone on Server1. The master for the stub zone is Server2. Server2 fails. You discover that users are not able to resolve names for the partner company. You need to ensure that users are able to resolve names for the partner company in the event that Server2 fails. 

What should you do?

A. Change the stub zone to a secondary zone on Server1.
B. Open the SOA record for the zone on Server2. Change the Minimum (default) TTL setting to 12 hours.
C. Open the DNS zone for the partner company on Server2. Create a new Route Through (RT) record and a new host (A) record for Server1.
D. Open the primary DNS zone on Server2. Create a new Service Locator (SRV) record and a new host (A) record for Server1.

Answer: B


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