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Everyone is asking for emailing new dumps. Why not publish it here. In that way more people can use it and take their advantage of it. Please help each other!! Greetings from Holland
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Question 1.
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A. serial console access
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Answer: A, B, F
Page 1-9 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 2.
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)
A. the BIG-IP license
B. the BIG-IP log files
C. the BIG-IP host name
D. the BIG-IP administrator addresses
Answer: A, C, D
The BIG-IP backup file contains the following:
System-specific configuration files
Product licenses
User account and password information
Domain Name Service (DNS) zone files
Installed SSL Keys and certificates
Page 16-1 BIG-IP Network and System Management Guide
Question 3.
Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A. The 1500 host more ports than the 3400
B. All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C. All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D. The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E. The 1500,3400 and 6400 have grater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the
1000, 2400, and 5100,
Answer: D, E
Not A: The 1500 has 4 ethernet ports + 2 gig fiber and the 3400 has 8 ethernet ports + 2gig fiber.
Page 1-3 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 4.
Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP
B. OCSP
C. Radius
D. VASCO
E. Active Directory
Answer: A, C, E
Page 1-11 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 5.
What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP's management port?
A. 192.168.1.245/16
B. 192.168.1.245/24
C. 192.168.245.245/16
D. 192.168.245.245/24
Answer: B
Page 1-6 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 6.
Which two can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose two.)
A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load-balancing method
Answer: C, E
Pool definition can include the following:
1. Name (1-31 characters)
2. Members
3. Load Balancing Method
4. Optional Monitors
5. Priority Group Activation
Page 2-4 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 7.
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the servers.
If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively event load across all servers?
A. Priority
B. Observed
C. Round Robin
D. Ration Member
Answer: B
Priority is not a load balancing method. Observed is the best answer, since round robin and ratio load balance without regard to system performance.
Page 2-10 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 8.
Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes specified as "member" and "node"?
A. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B. When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C. Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are
defined for the "any" port.
D. When the load-balancing choice references "node', the address' parameters are used to make
the load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
Answer: D
Nodes have only an IP address and may represent multiple pool members while pool members always have an IP address and service port designation.
Page 2-17 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 9.
A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.
Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?
A. The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the
BIG-IP and server.
B. The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the
BIG-IP and server
C. The TCP port used in the client to BIG-Ip connection are the same as the TCP ports in the
BIG-IP to server connection
D. The IP addresses used in the client to big-IP connection are the IP addresses in the BIG-IP to
server connection.
Answer: A
Page 2-1 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 10.
Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)
A. ratio values
B. priority values
C. health monitors
D. connection limits
E. load-balancing mode
Answer: C, E
Pool definition can include the following:
1. Name (1-31 characters)
2. Members
3. Load-Balancing Mode
4. Health Monitors
5. Priority Group Activation
Page 2-4 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
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Question 1. When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a who is lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records? A. Title 18, Section 1030 B. Title 18, Section 2703(d) C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90 D. Title 18, Section 2703(f) Answer: D Question 2. If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer? A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking. D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack Answer: C Question 3. In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you find it until the case is closed or goes to court? A. rules of evidence B. law of probability C. chain of custody D. policy of separation Answer: C Question 4. How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file? A. 128 B. 64 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: C Question 5. To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS** A. number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector B. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector C. number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector D. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector Answer: Question 6. What does the superblock in Linux define? A. file system names B. available space C. location of the first inode D. disk geometry Answer: B, C, D Question 7. A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF ***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772 =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84 Len: 64 01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................ 00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................ 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................ 00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........ =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104 Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............ 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ............... 3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.^.....localhost =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= + 03/15-20:21:36.539731 211.185.125.124:4450 -> 172.16.1.108:39168 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:31660 IpLen:20 DgmLen:71 DF ***AP*** Seq: 0x9C6D2BFF Ack: 0x59606333 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23679878 2880015 63 64 20 2F 3B 20 75 6E 61 6D 65 20 2D 61 3B 20 cd /; uname -a; 69 64 3B id; A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111 B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773 D. The attacker has installed a backdoor Answer: A Question 8. The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on: A. OS/2 B. BSD Unix C. Linux D. Microsoft Windows Answer: B Question 9. Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first? A. engage in damage control B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury D. qualify you as an expert witness Answer: D Question 10. You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for you to acquire digital evidence from this network? A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image fileC D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file Answer: C
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Question 1. Switches ITK1 and ITK2 are connected as shown below: Study the Exhibit carefully. Which ports could safely be configured with Port Fast? (Choose two) A. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/2 B. Switch ITK2 - port Fa1/2 C. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/3 D. Switch ITK2 - port Fa1/3 E. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/1 F. None of the ports should use port fast Answer: C, D Explanation: Using Port Fast: 1. Immediately brings an interface configured as an access or trunk port to the forwarding state from a bloITKing state, bypassing the listening and learning states 2. Normally used for single server/workstation can be enabled on a trunk So, Port fast can only be enabled to a switch port attaching to workstation or a server. Reference: http://www.911networks.com/node/273 Question 2. You need to configure two ITCertKeys switches to exchange VLAN information. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between these two switches? A. STP B. 802.1Q C. VLSM D. ISL E. VTP F. HSRP G. None of the above Answer: E Explanation: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is a Cisco proprietary Layer 2 messaging protocol that manages the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs on a network-wide basis. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. To do this VTP carries VLAN information to all the switches in a VTP domain. VTP advertisements can be sent over ISL, 802.1q, IEEE 802.10 and LANE trunks. VTP traffic is sent over the management VLAN (VLAN1), so all VLAN trunks must be configured to pass VLAN1. VTP is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst Family products. Question 3. ITCertKeys has implemented the use of the Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP). Which statement below accurately describes a benefit of doing this? A. VTP will allow physically redundant links while preventing switching loops B. VTP will allow switches to share VLAN configuration information C. VTP will allow a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN D. VTP will allow for routing between VLANs E. None of the above Answer: B Question 4. Two ITCertKeys switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below: Exhibit: Based on the information shown above, what will be the result of issuing the following commands: Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30 A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the Switch2 VLAN database. B. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to the Switch2 VLAN database. C. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database. D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database. E. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The three VTP modes are described below: Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be advertised to the entire VTP domain. Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here's a hint: if you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN information, then change it to a server-much easier! Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches. Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant. In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other switch. Question 5. A ITCertKeys switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch? A. The additions will create more collisions domains. B. IP address utilization will be more efficient. C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously. D. An additional broadcast domain will be created. E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically. Answer: D Explanation: A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located on the same LAN segment. Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead of physically relocating devices. Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later. A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches. Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will normally introduce an additional broadcast domain. Question 6. A new switch is installed in the ITCertKeys network. This switch is to be configured so that VLAN information will be automatically distributed to all the other Cisco Catalyst switches in the network. Which of the conditions below have to be met in order for this to occur? (Choose all that apply). A. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be in the VTP Server mode. B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain. C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge. D. The switches must be configured to use the same VTP version. E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version. F. The switches must be configured to use the same type of ID tagging. G. The switches must be connected over VLAN trunks. Answer: A, B, F, G Explanation: For the VLAN information to pass automatically throughout the network, VTP must be set up correctly. In order for VTP to work, a VTP server is needed, the VLAN's must be in the same VTP domain, and the encapsulation on each end of the trunk must both set to either 802.1Q or ISL. Incorrect Answers: C. Root bridges and other functions of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) have no impact of the VTP configuration. D, E. There is only one version of VTP and STP. Question 7. A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role of the Root Bridge? A. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network. B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have. C. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex operation. D. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of root bridge. E. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network. F. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: For all switches in a network to agree on a loop-free topology, a common frame of reference must exist. This reference point is called the Root Bridge. The Root Bridge is chosen by an election process among all connected switches. Each switch has a unique Bridge ID (also known as the bridge priority) that it uses to identify itself to other switches. The Bridge ID is an 8-byte value. 2 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for a Bridge Priority field, which is the priority or weight of a switch in relation to all other switches. The other 6 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for the MAC Address field, which can come from the Supervisor module, the baITKplane, or a pool of 1024 addresses that are assigned to every Supervisor or baITKplane depending on the switch model. This address is hardcoded, unique, and cannot be changed. The election process begins with every switch sending out BPDUs with a Root Bridge ID equal to its own Bridge ID as well as a Sender Bridge ID. The latter is used to identify the source of the BPDU message. Received BPDU messages are analyzed for a lower Root Bridge ID value. If the BPDU message has a Root Bridge ID (priority) of the lower value than the switch's own Root Bridge ID, it replaces its own Root Bridge ID with the Root Bridge ID announced in the BPDU. If two Bridge Priority values are equal, then the lower MAC address takes preference. Question 8. Which of the protocols below, operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network? A. RIP B. STP C. IGRP D. CDP E. VTP F. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: STP (spanning tree protocol) operates on layer 2 to prevent loops in switches and bridges. Incorrect Answers: A, C. RIP and IGRP are routing protocols, which are used at layer 3 to maintain a loop free routed environment. D. CDP does indeed operate at layer 2, but it doest not provide for a loop free topology. CDP is used by Cisco devices to discover information about their neighbors. E. VTP is the VLAN Trunking Protocol, used to pass VLAN information through switches. It relies on the STP mechanism to provide a loop free network. Question 9. By default, which of the following factors determines the spanning-tree path cost? A. It is the individual link cost based on latency B. It is the sum of the costs based on bandwidth C. It is the total hop count D. It is dynamically determined based on load E. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: "The STP cost is an accumulated total path cost based on the available bandwidth of each of the links." Reference: Sybex CCNA Study Guide 4th Edition (Page 323) Note: A path cost value is given to each port. The cost is typically based on a guideline established as part of 802.1d. According to the original specification, cost is 1,000 Mbps (1 gigabit per second) divided by the bandwidth of the segment connected to the port. Therefore, a 10 Mbps connection would have a cost of (1,000/10) 100. To compensate for the speed of networks increasing beyond the gigabit range, the standard cost has been slightly modified. The new cost values are: You should also note that the path cost can be an arbitrary value assigned by the network administrator, instead of one of the standard cost values. Incorrect Answers: A, D: The STP process does not take into account the latency or load of a link. STP does not recalculate the link costs dynamically. C. Hop counts are used by RIP routers to calculate the cost of a route to a destination. The STP process resides at layer 2 of the OSI model, where hop counts are not considered. Question 10. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN? A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments. B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches. C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths. D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains. E. To prevent routing loops in networks. Answer: C Explanation: STP is used in LANs with redundant paths or routes to prevent loops in a layer 2 switched or bridged LAN. Incorrect Answers: A, B: The primary purpose of STP is to prevent loops, not for monitoring or management of switches or VLANs. D. VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple collision domains, but the STP process alone does not do this. E. Routers are used to prevent routing loops at layer 3 of the OSI model. STP operates at layer 2.
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Question 1. What should you do to allow iSCSI hosts on multiple subnets to connect to a single GigE interface on an IPS module? A. Configure QoS on the IPS module iSCSI interface B. Configure QoS on the IPS module GigE interface C. Configure multiple VSANs on the IPS module iSCSI interface D. Configure VLAN subinterface on the IPS module GigE interface Answer: D Question 2. What is the definition of fan-in ratio as it applies to SANs? A. The ratio of storage ports to a single host port B. The amount of aggregation port bandwidth in the path from storage port to host port C. The amount of aggregate bandwidth of ISLs in the path from host port to storage port D. The ratio of host ports that need to access a single storage port Answer: D Question 3. You are implementing an FCIP solution for SAN extension between tow data centers using the CISCO MDS 9000 platform. For redundancy, there are two Metro Ethernet paths between the data centers. How can you specify the primary and secondary path for each FCIP tunnel? A. Configure EIGRP routing on the IPS-8 B. Configure OSPF routing on the IPS-8 C. Configure QoS on the IPS-8 D. Configure static routes on the IPS-8 Answer: D Question 4. Which two items are necessary when implementing a highly available SAN design? (Choose two.) A. Nondisruptive upgrades B. Redundant hardware C. Real-time fabric monitoring D. Localized data backups E. Traffic engineering and QoS Answer: A, B Question 5. Select three characteristics of the Cisco Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.) A. Supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers B. Can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics C. Requires OADMs (Optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair D. Multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair E. Supports both linear and ring topologies Answer: C, D, E Question 6. Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors? A. Multiprotocol Services module B. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2 C. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2 -Gbps Fibre Channel Module D. Storage Services Module (SSM) Answer: D Question 7. Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost effective, high-bandwidth solution that is suitable only within a limited geographical area? A. FCIP B. DWDM C. SONET/SDH D. CDWM Answer: D Question 8. What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports? A. Fewer long-wave SFPs B. Fewer director-class switches C. Fewer ISL connections D. Fewer domains on the domain list E. Fewer hops for a given exchange Answer: C Question 9. Which two kinds of applications require substained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.) A. Synchronous replication B. Asynchronous replication C. Email D. OLTP E. Tape Backup Answer: A, E Question 10. Which three solutions would be suitable for data replication between two data centers separated by 450 km? (Choose three.) A. Dark Fiber B. CWDM C. iSCSI over SONET/SDH D. DWDM E. FCIP over SONET/SDH F. FCIP Over Routed IP network Answer: D, E, F
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Question 1. LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation. What can you do to help pinpoint the problem? A. Check for security alarms B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device configuration screen C. View the SDI trace output D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been downloaded to the IP phone Answer: D Question 2. Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.) A. Set preference to 1 B. Invoke a Tcl application C. Enable dtmf-relay D. Set codec to G.711 E. Disable DID F. Disable VAD Answer: B, C, F Question 3. When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files? A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view the preconfigured trace files D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page and view the output with the RTMT plug-in Answer: B Question 4. You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway. What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue? A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node with the same time-stamp B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node with the same TCP handle Answer: A Question 5. Exhibit: Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2? A. Queue 2 B. Queue 3 C. Queue 1 D. Queue 4 Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again. Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The TON in incorrect B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the gateway D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is an internation call E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls Answer: A Question 7. You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors. Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing? A. Route Plan Report B. Dial Plan Installer C. Dialed Number Analyzer D. RTMT Traces and Alarms Answer: C Question 8. You have just obtained a list of the following options: all patterns unassigned DN Call Park Conference Directory Number Translation Pattern Call pickup group Route pattern Message waiting Voice mail Attendant console What have you selected in order to produce this list? A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard B. Control Center > Feature Services C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report D. Dialed Number Analyzer Answer: C Question 9. You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings. How does this change the trace output? A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the trace output C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the session Answer: B Question 10. When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files? A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page and view the output with the RTMT plug-in C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view the preconfigured trace files D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files Answer: A
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Question 1. Exhibit: The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 166667 B. bandwidth remote 166667 C. bandwidth session 166667 D. bandwidth region 166667 E. bandwidth zone 166667 Answer: B Question 2. ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows: Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements: Conference 3:three conference participants What will occur when the third conference is attempted? A. The third conference will succeed as desired. B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence. C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for three conferences of three people each. D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide the number of required services. Answer: A Question 3. Exhibit: ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters;ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B Question 4: ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IPVC 3521 B. Cisco IPVC 3526 C. Cisco IPVC 3540 D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway E. Cisc MCM proxy Answer: B, C Question 5. Exhibit: A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 166667 B. bandwidth remote 166667 C. bandwidth session 166667 D. bandwidth region 166667 E. bandwidth zone 166667 Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager? A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 kbps. B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 kbps. C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 kbps. D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps between the central site and each remote site. E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps between the central site and each remote site. F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps between the central site and each remote site. Answer: C Question 7. ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. What should this company purchase? A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade Answer: C Question 8. Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.) A. the number of sites in the enterprise B. the number and location of gatekeepers C. the incoming PSTN call routing method D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed F. the location of voice gateways Answer: A, C, D Question 9. Exhibit: The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 768 B. bandwidth limit 768 C. bandwidth session 768 D. bandwidth call 768 E. bandwidth zone 768 Answer: C Question 10. What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups? A. zones B. clusters C. calling search spaces D. toll bypass routing Answer: A
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Question 1. What is the final step when retrieving an object in the Centera environment? A. Centera receives request via the API over IP B. Application authenticates request and delivers object C. Centera authenticates request and delivers object D. Application finds the Content Address and delivers object Answer: C Question 2. What is a characteristic of Centera? A. OLTP storage array B. Block level storage interface C. Guaranteed content authenticity D. File Structure management Answer: C Question 3. What is the first step or event when storing an object in a Centera environment? A. Unique Content Address is calculated B. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP C. Centera stores the object D. Content Address is retained for future reference Answer: A Question 4 What is a characteristic of a Content Address in a Centera? A. Sequentially based B. Filesystem based C. Location-independent D. Location-dependent Answer: C Question 5. What do VLANs reduce? A. The amount of network traffic B. The security in a network infrastructure C. The number of network segments in the network infrastructure D. The router traffic overhead in the network infrastructure Answer: D Question 6. What is a characteristic of Centera fixed content? A. Expandable B. Transaction Oriented C. Short-term storage D. Unalterable Answer: D Question 7. What is a characteristic of a Content Address in Centera? A. Sequentially based B. Globally unique C. Filesystem based D. Location-dependent Answer: B Question 8. In a Centera, what is a supported replication topology? A. Loop B. Bus C. Star D. Ring Answer: C Question 9. How many optical network ports are available on a NS500 DataMover? A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. None Answer: D Question 10. What does the OSI Physical layer provide? A. a reliable message stream to the user interface B. address and routing for data C. the media specification D. data encapsulation Answer: C
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Question 1. Which NetWorker software must be installed on a host backed up using a NetWorker module? A. Storage Node B. Server C. Management Console D. Client Answer: D Question 2. Which statement is true about Celerra Replicator? A. Is a pointer based view of a Production File System B. Is a point-in-time copy of a Production File System C. Is implemented over campus distances only D. Is bi-directional Answer: B Question 3. What is a function of NetWorker? A. Create replicas of mission-critical information on disk arrays B. Manage capacity of front-end storage devices C. Centralize and automate backup and recovery D. Enable failover to remote servers Answer: C Question 4. What is the purpose of a backup? A. Prevent unauthorized access of data B. Prevent data corruption C. Restore the original data in the event of data loss D. Allow multiple, simultaneous access of data Answer: C Question 5. Replication Manager provides which additional capability over Replication Manager/SE? A. Mount multiple replicas on the same mount host B. Mount replicas to alternate hosts C. Support Symmetrix arrays with TimeFinder D. Store replicas on remote arrays using SAN Copy Answer: C Question 6. What is the first step in a snapshot operation performed by a NetWorker Module? A. Freeze application B. Shut down application C. Take snapshot D. Flush buffers Answer: A Question 7. Which operating systems are supported in Replication Manager? A. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Solaris, RedHat Linux, AS400 B. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Solaris, RedHat/SUSE Linux, HP-UX, AIX, AS400 C. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Windows XP D. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Solaris, RedHat/SUSE Linux, HP-UX, AIX Answer: D Question 8. Which NetWorker Modules use snapshot technology? A. OraSnap and PowerSnap B. MicroSnap and SnapImage C. OraSnap and MicroSnap D. PowerSnap and SnapImage Answer: D Question 9. You wish to create a consistent backup of a changing file system on an EMC CLARiiON. Which NetWorker Module is used? A. SnapImage B. PowerSnap C. SnapView D. SnapCL Answer: B Question 10. Which NetWorker resource is used to determine the backup level for a client? A. Schedule B. Client C. Pool D. Group Answer: A
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Question 1. To create a valid restartable copy of a database whose files are on multiple BCV pairs, what is the EMC recommended fastest procedure? A. Shutdown the database then perform an instant split B. Freeze the database I/O and perform an instant split C. Perform an instant split D. Deactivate the file system then perform an instant split Answer: B Question 2. This device group member DEV001 in proddg has concurrent snap sessions to VDEV001, VDEV002, VDEV003, and VDEV004. Each session starts at a different time. It's necessary to perform a restore of VDEV002 to DEV001 while maintaining all existing sessions. Name the command which will perform this task. A. symsnap -g proddg restore VDEV002 dev DEV001 -full B. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 ld VDEV001 -full C. symsnap -g proddg restore VDEV002 ld DEV001 D. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 vdev ld VDEV002 Answer: D Question 3. To alter the Symmetrix to meet specific customer environment needs which EMC tool is used? A. Configuration Manager B. Change Tracker C. Storage Scope D. Visual SRM Answer: A Question 4. For a Recovery Point Objective of zero data loss, which SRDF configuration would be required? A. SRDF/DM B. SRDF/A C. SRDF/AR D. SRDF/S Answer: D Question 5. To insure a recoverable Target image in a single-hop SRDF/AR solution, which devices must be used? A. R2 - BCV B. R1 - BCV C. R1/BCV - BCV D. R1/BCV - R2 Answer: A Question 6. Name the symclone argument which makes the target device mountable. A. Start B. Split C. Activate D. Create Answer: C Question 7. When you have multiple SYMAPI databases how do you determine which SYMAPI database is in use? A. defined in ORACLE_SID B. /usr/symcli/bin/symapi_db.bin C. defined in SYMCLI_DB_FILE or default D. /usr/symapi/db/symapi_db.bin Answer: C Question 8. Define the size of the Save area in a Symmetrix. A. Space should be allocated based on the amount of write activity to virtual devices B. Space should be allocated based on the number of virtual devices C. Space should be allocated based on the amount of total I/O activity D. Space should be allocated based on the number of established pairs Answer: A Question 9. Name the symrdf argument which makes a copy of data on target Symmetrix volumes available to target hosts only. A. failback B. failover C. establish D. split E. restore Answer: B Question 10. Name the purpose of the -symopt option of the symmir command in TimeFinder. A. It eliminates the need to specify a device for each subsequent establish and restore sequence B. It makes a one-to-one pairing based on the order in which the devices were added C. It allows the Symmetrix to determine the best device for the BCV pair D. It uses a round robin routine to establish the BCV pairs Answer: A
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