Braindumps for "350-024" Exam

100% Sure Questions

 
Question 1.

When troubleshooting an IOS Voice Gateway, what command will produce detailed 
information (codec, ERL, tx/rx packets, dial peers, etc) on currently active 
calls?



A. show voice call active

B. show call active voice

C. show voice port

D. show voice call



Answer: B



Question 2.

When troubleshooting a Fail Safe problem in Unity, the first place you should 
look for detailed error messages is the:



A. tempu.log

B. System Log

C. Application Log

D. SDL Trace

E. Status Monitor



Answer: C



Question 3.

In order to pass hook-flash on h.323 from FXS to FXO:



A. connection plar must be configured on the voice-port (FXS)

B. connection plar must be configured on the voice-port (FXS) and (FXO)

C. connection trunk must be configured on the voice-port (FXS)

D. connection trunk must be configured on the voice-port (FXS) and (FXO)

E. None of the above



Answer: E



Question 4.

What type of signaling provides Dialed Number Information Service (DNIS) on a 
T1/E1?



A. E&M

B. Loop Start

C. Ground start

D. All of the above



Answer: D



Question 5.

When Direct Inward Dial is used on a POTS dial peer and an incoming POTS call 
enters the router: (multiple answer)



A. The number that is dialing (ANI) automatically becomes the 
destination-pattern number for the 

IP destination.

B. The number that is dialed (DNIS) automatically becomes the 
destination-pattern number for 

the IP destination.

C. The number that is dialing (ANI) automatically becomes the 
destination-pattern number for the 

telephony destination.

D. The number that is dialed (DNIS) automatically becomes the 
destination-pattern number for 

the telephony destination.

E. The number that is dialed (DNIS) & the number that is dialing (ANI) 
automatically becomes the 

destination-pattern number for the IP & telephony destination.



Answer: B, D



Question 6.

What does the term "MGCP backhaul" mean?



A. Encapsulating ISDN Q.931 CDR records to a RADIUS server

B. Translating ISDN Q.931 messaging into MGCP events to the MGCP Call Agent

C. Transporting ISDN Q.921 messaging across IP to the MGCP Call Agent

D. Transporting ISDN Q.931 messaging across IP to the MGCP Call Agent

E. Transporting T1 CAS messaging across IP to the MGCP Call Agent



Answer: D



Question 7.

What statement is an attribute of ISDN Non-Facility Associated Signaling (NFAS)?



A. Single D-channel controls B-channels on the same T1 span, as well on other 
T1-spans.

B. Single T1 span can be split into two "trunk groups", each with its own 
dedicated D-channel.

C. Is available on both T1 and E1 PRIs.

D. Enables the D-channel to transmit "data" information unrelated to any voice 
call, such as inter- 

switch status updates.

E. Applicable to voice calls on PRI only, but not to data PRI calls.



Answer: A



Question 8.

The IOS GWs support ECMA QSIG. CM, in MGCP Call Agent mode, supports ISO QSIG.




What implications does this have on an IP telephony network?



A. None, the ISO standard is a superset of the ECMA standard.

B. None, as long as the IOS GW remains in contact with the CM at all times.

C. During MGCP GW Fallback, no calls to the attached QSIG PBX will work.

D. During MGCP GW Fallback, basic calls to the attached QSIG PBX will work.

E. During MGCP GW Fallback, all call functionality to the attached QSIG PBX will 
work.



Answer: B, D



Question 9.

The terms "Wink start", "Delay start" and "Immediate start" are applicable to:



A. Analog E&M Signaling

B. T1 CAS E&M signaling

C. E1 CAS E&M Signaling

D. Analog DID Signaling

E. All of the above



Answer: E



Question 10.

Exhibit:

The user at phone A dials 5551212555. What Digit string is sent to the PSTN for 
termination assuming call routing is working properly through the IP Network?



A. 5551212555

B. 4441212555

C. 555911911444

D. 5551444555

E. 5554442555



Answer: B



Question 11.

Exhibit:

The Catalyst 6000 in the shown diagram has been configured with the following 
commands: set qos enable set port qos 5/1-48 vlan-based set port qos 5/1-48 
trust-ext un trusted set port qos 5/1- 48 trust trust-cos Assuming that the IP 
Phone is connected to port 5/1, which statements are true?



A. The IP Phone will re-write the CoS of 802.1p/Q-tagged packets from the PC to 
CoS=0.

B. The Catalyst 6000 switch port 5/1 will re-write the CoS of all packets with a 
Cos=0.

C. The Catalyst 6000 switch port 5/1 will re-write the CoS of all packets 
received on VLAN 110 

with CoS=5.

D. The IP Phone will not modify the DSCP of packets from the PC.

E. The Catalyst 6000 will not modify the CoS of any packets received on port 
5/1.



Answer: A, E



Question 12.

What protocol does an IP Phone use to learn the IP Address of its TFTP Server?



A. HSRP

B. DHCP

C. Skinny Station Protocol

D. STP

E. CDP



Answer: B



Question 13.

What interface does SMDI traditionally use?



A. Serial

B. Parallel

C. Ethernet

D. Fire wire

E. USB



Answer: A



Question 14.

Consider phone A, assigned to Calling Search Space A. Calling Search Space A 
contains the following partitions (in the order shown), listed with their 
respective Route Patterns:Partition_A1, containing Route Pattern 
1XXXPartition_A2, containing Route Pattern 10XXIf Phone A dials "1001", what 
statement is true?



A. Route Pattern 1XXX and 10XX both match, but since 1XXX is listed first, it 
will be chosen.

B. Route Pattern 1XXX and 10XX both match, but since 10XX is a better match, it 
will be chosen.

C. None of the route patterns are an exact match, thus none will match, and the 
caller will hear 

re-order tone.

D. Both patterns are equivalent matches, and Call Manager will choose them in a 
round robin 

fashion.



Answer: B



Question 15.

Consider phones A and B. Both phones are registered in the same cluster. Phone A 
is configured with extension 1000. Phone B is configured with extension 2000.



Indicate what choice below is necessary and sufficient to allow phone A to be 
able to call phone B

AND phone B to be able to call phone A.



A. Both phone extensions are in the same partition

B. Both phones are assigned the same Calling Search Space

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above



Answer: D



Question 16.

Consider: Phone A's device calling search space is CSS_Dev_A. Phone A's Line 1 
is assigned calling search space CSS_Line_A.Route Pattern 2XXX is placed in 
Partition Part_1.Route Pattern 20XX is placed in Partition Part_2.Route Pattern 
200X is placed in Partition Part_3.



CSS_Dev_A contains partition(s) Part_1.CSS_Line_A contains partition(s) 
Part_2.If a call is made to 2001 from Phone A, using Line 1, what route pattern 
will be chosen by Call Manager?



A. 2XXX in partition Part_1

B. 20XX in partition Part_2

C. 200X in partition Part_3

D. None of the above (user gets re-order tone)



Answer: B



Question 17.

With Unity 3.0/ and Exchange 2000, which attributes are stored in Active 
Directory?



A. Recorded Name

B. Recorded Greeting(s)

C. Alternate Extensions

D. Transfer Type (Supervised, Release to Switch)

E. Location ID



Answer: A, C, E



Question 18.

AMIS is used to:



A. Send Email messages

B. Send Voice Mail messages

C. Send Voice Mail & Email messages

D. Send Recorded names



Answer: B



Question 19.

Two Unity Servers can be placed in the same Dialing Domain if:



A. They are in the same Exchange Site/Routing Group.

B. Their subscribers do not have overlapping extensions.

C. They do not have to dial trunk access codes to reach each other's 
subscribers.

D. They are both assigned the same Location ID.

E. They are attached to the same PBX.



Answer: B, C



Question 20.

From the perspective of the Call Manager, the Unity TSP looks and behaves most 
like a:



A. H.323 Gateway

B. CTI Port

C. Cisco IP Phone

D. TAPI Device

E. MGCP Gateway



Answer: C



Question 21.

The concept of Location is used by Call Manager in order to:



A. Define what CODEC to use between devices which may be separated by a WAN 
link.

B. Define the bandwidth that can be used between devices

C. Define groups of devices based on physical location, for the purpose of 
assigning Primary and

Backup Call Manager servers

D. Group devices based upon physical location, in order to delegate 
Administrative Control



Answer: B



Question 22.

What Mail Store option does Unity version 2.4.6 support?



A. Exchange 5.5

B. Exchange 2000

C. Domino

D. MS Mail



Answer: A



Question 23.

MPLS traffic engineering routing information is carried by:



A. BGP MEDs

B. MP-BGP

C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs

D. RTP or RTCP packets



Answer: C



Question 24.

MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:



A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs

B. BGP MEDs

C. RTP or RTCP packets

D. MBGP



Answer: A



Question 25.

Exhibit:

In the MPLS network shown, how many routing tables are on Router A?



A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5



Answer: A



Question 26.

MPLS does not support:



A. Multicast

B. OSPF

C. BGP

D. Multicast and OSPF



Answer: A



Question 27.

When a TCP segment is lost, the TCP sender reacts by: (multiple answer)



A. Resending the segment

B. Increasing the window size

C. Resetting the session

D. Increasing the amount of time it will wait when timing out the next segment 
that is sent



Answer: A, D



Question 28.

Below are four 'out' access-lists, configured on an interface. 



What list will block an IP packet with source address 144.23.67.94, destination 
address 197.55.34.254, destination TCP port 23 from leaving the router?



A. access-list 100 deny ip tcp 144.23.67.0 0.0.0.7 eq telnet 197.55.34.240 
0.0.0.15 eq telnet 

access-list 100 permit ip any any

B. access-list 100 deny tcp 144.23.67.94 0.0.0.7 any eq telnet access-list 100 
permit ip any any

C. access-list 100 deny tcp 144.23.67.86 0.0.0.7 eq telnet 197.55.34.240 
0.0.0.15access-list 100 

permit ip any any

D. access-list 100 deny ip 144.23.67.94 0.0.0.7 host 144.23.67.94access-list 100 
permit ip any 

any



Answer: B



Question 29.

Exhibit:

According to the diagram, what attribute is initiated by AS200 (IBGP) to give 
preference to the path A or D traffic will take when going from AS200 to AS100?



What attribute is initiated by AS200 (EBGP) to give preference to the path B or 
C traffic will take when going from AS100 to AS200?



A. MED; Origin

B. MED; Local Preference

C. Community; Origin

D. Local Preference; MED

E. Origin; Community



Answer: D



Question 30.

In BGP, why should a Route Reflector be used?



A. To overcome issues of split-horizon within BGP

B. To reduce the number of External BGP peers by allowing updates to reflect 
without the need to 

be fully meshed

C. To allow the router to reflect updates from one Internal BGP speaker to 
another without the 

need to be fully meshed

D. To divide Autonomous Systems into mini-Autonomous Systems, allowing the 
reduction in the 

number of peers

E. None of the above



Answer: C



Question 31.

Which are the correct ways to release IBGP from the condition that all IBGP 
neighbors need to be fully meshed? (multiple answer)



A. Configure local preference

B. Configure route reflectors

C. Configure IBGP neighbors several hops away

D. Configure confederations



Answer: B, D



Question 32.

Exhibit:







Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path Attributes received at Net1 
for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer)



A. 200 57000 100 65100

B. 200 57000 100 100

C. 100 57000 200

D. 200 57000 100

E. 65100 100 57000 200



Answer: A, D, E



Question 33.

What SIP header is a SIP Proxy allowed to change?



A. Contact header

B. From header

C. To header

D. Request-URI



Answer: D



Question 34.

Exhibit:

What mechanism should be employed to limit the "transmit rate" from Company xyz 
1 to Company xyz 3?



A. Committed Access Rate

B. Traffic Shaping

C. Weighted Fair Queuing

D. Packet Classification w/ Weighted Fair Queuing

E. None of the Above



Answer: B



Question 35.

Exhibit:

In the diagram shown, what mechanism needs to be employed on the remote site 
routers to aid congestion avoidance in the core, based on traffic priorities?



A. IP Precedence Tagging

B. Weighted Random Early Detection

C. Random Early Detection

D. Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing



Answer: A



Question 36.

Why is the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) used in Frame Relay?



A. Congestion Control

B. To ensure the integrity of transmitted data

C. To retransmit data

D. To provide SNMP traps



Answer: B



Question 37.

In Frame Relay, what devices resend packets that do not transmit correctly?



A. Digital transmission media cabled to monitor ports, as opposed to straight 
DCE signaling

B. Network end stations

C. Network switches running SNMP management software

D. Special bridging devices within the backbone cloud



Answer: B



Question 38.

What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header?



A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a 
logical channel.

B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE 
device.

C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification.

D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network.



Answer: B



Question 39.

Exhibit:

The address field contains: (multiple answer)



A. The DLCI Value

B. The Extended Address (EA)

C. Congestion Control

D. FCS



Answer: A, B, C



Question 40.

A router is set to boot from flash, but cannot find boot commands in the 
configuration. Also, valid files do not exist in the default flash device. The 
router will:



A. Boot from ROM, since there are no valid sources

B. Try to boot from the network, using a default filename

C. Terminate the boot process with an error message

D. Try to boot from the network, then boot from ROM as a backup



Answer: D



Question 41.

A new Cisco router has no configuration defined. Which methods can be used to 
configure the router for the first time? (multiple answer)



A. Using SNMP via a network management station

B. Connecting a terminal to the console port and running the Setup dialogue

C. Connecting a terminal to the console port and directly typing in 
configuration commands

D. Using BOOTP/SLARP/RARP to download a configuration file that has been created 
ahead of 

time

E. Connecting a terminal to the console port, defining a minimal configuration, 
connecting the 

router to the network, and using TFTP to download a configuration file that has 
been created 

ahead of time



Answer: B, C, D, E



Question 42.

Exhibit:

Upon deleting an IOS image file from flash, an execution of show flash shows the 
file still in flash, with a 'D' preceding it (as shown in the exhibit). 



What step must be taken in order to remove the file completely?



A. Erase the file from flash

B. Format the flash device

C. Replace the flash card - it is defective

D. Execute a squeeze command on the flash device



Answer: D



Question 43.

Exhibit:

Debug is enabled on Router B, but no debug messages appear on the terminal. 



Other commands (show commands, etc.) seem to be working. 



What are the probable causes for this? (multiple answer)



A. Router B is not turned on.

B. Debug information is being sent to A.

C. The "terminal monitor" command needs to be executed if this is a virtual 
terminal session.

D. Debug information is being sent to the buffer instead of to the console 
terminal.

E. Debug information is configured at low priority, and will be displayed at a 
time when the router 

is less congested.



Answer: C, D



Question 44.

A network administrator is using debug commands to check the performance of a 
network. 



What steps can the administrator take to ensure that the "debug" will not 
require too much CPU, or at least that she will not have to reboot the router to 
disable debug? (multiple answer)



A. Make the debug command as specific as possible

B. Use the max-time parameter of the debug command

C. In configuration mode, enter scheduler interval 15

D. Configure a loop back to channel debug traffic



Answer: A, C



Question 45.

On each LAN segment with multiple bridges running spanning tree, the bridge 
closest to the:



A. Designated bridge is selected as root bridge

B. Root bridge is selected as designated bridge

C. Root bridge is not selected as designated bridge

D. Designated bridge is not selected as root bridge



Answer: B



Question 46.

In a H.323 network, what function is NOT performed by the gatekeeper?



A. Call admission control

B. Number to IP address translation

C. Codec negotiation

D. Call routing

E. Call authorization



Answer: C



Question 47.

How many bytes are saved per VoIP packet by enabling cRTP on a standard G.711 
call?



A. 2-5 bytes per VoIP packet

B. 12-15 bytes per VoIP packet

C. 22-35 bytes per VoIP packet

D. 35-38 bytes per VoIP packet

E. 42-45 bytes per VoIP packet



Answer: D



Question 48.

Exhibit:

Consider the QoS configuration in the picture shown for a VoIP call across an 
MPLS network. If IP Phone A calls IP Phone B, how will voice and signaling 
packets be marked by the time they arrive at the IP Phone B? NOTE: Assume the 
LAN switches (and any other equipment in the cloud) do not mark or remark the 
packets, and the complete MPLS router QoS configuration is shown in the picture.



A. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling: DSCP AP31

B. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling: 0

C. Voice: IP Precedence 5; Signaling: 0

D. Voice: IP Precedence 5; Signaling: 3

E. Voice: 0; Signaling: 0



Answer: A, D



Question 49.

What percentage of a standard G.711 packet is taken by IP, UDP and RTP headers?


(Note: cRTP not used)



A. 66%

B. 50%

C. 40%

D. 33%

E. 20%



Answer: E



Question 50.

What command will guarantee a maximum serialization delay of 10 ms on a 
converged 256 kbps Frame-Relay circuit?



A. frame-relay fragment-delay 10

B. frame-relay fragment 320

C. frame-relay serialization-delay 10

D. frame-relay fragment 640

E. frame-relay fragment 160



Answer: B



Question 51.

What is NOT a primary cause of echo in a voice network?



A. 4 wire to 2 wire Hybrids

B. Packet Loss In the IP Network

C. Delay in the IP Network

D. Acoustical Reflections



Answer: B



Question 52.

Exhibit:

During all calls from IP Phone A to Analog Phone D the user at IP Phone A hears 
persistent echo. During all calls from IP Phone A to IP Phone C no echo is 
heard.



What is the best way to resolve the echo issue in the equipment under your 
control?

(Note: Everything is under your control except for the PSTN)



A. Adjust the Echo Cancellation parameters on Phone A

B. Adjust the Echo Cancellation parameters on the Call Manager

C. Adjust the Echo Cancellation parameters on Phone D

D. Adjust the Echo Cancellation parameters on Remote-Gw

E. Adjust the Echo Cancellation parameters on HQ-GW



Answer: E



Question 53.

Which standards are related to echo in a network.



A. G.165

B. G.711

C. G.174

D. G.168

E. G.323



Answer: A, D



Question 54.

When provisioning Cisco Call Manager and IPCC Express (CRS), what IPCC Express 
agent provisioning configurations are possible?



A. One pool of agents shared among multiple scripts

B. One pool of CTI ports shared among multiple scripts

C. NxN mesh of agents and ports shared among N scripts

D. All of the above



Answer: D



Question 55

In a Cisco IPCC deployment, where Call Manager is the routing client, upon 
receipt of a call, the ICM performs what function?



A. ICM maps the Dialed Number to a call type and then maps the call type to a 
routing script.

B. ICM Identifies and selects an available agent and determines the label to be 
returned to the 

routing client.

C. ICM plays Music or targeted announcements for callers waiting in queue if no 
agents are 

available.

D. A and B



Answer: D



Question 56.

Exhibit:

A user at Phone A finishes a call. Later, he notes that "CM Fallback Service 
Operating" is displayed on Phone A. 



Which are possible explanations for this?



A. The TCP connection between phone A and call manager has been disrupted.

B. Remote-GW has not received any messages from Call Manager within the 
appropriate timeout 

period.

C. The FE on Remote-GW is out of service.

D. The FXO port on Remote-GW is out of service.

E. The FE on HQ-GW is out of service.



Answer: A, E



Question 57.

Exhibit:

In the figure shown, HSRP is used in conjunction with SRST to preserve telephony 
functionality in a branch office. Consider a situation where a WAN failure 
occurs while router A (the primary router) is used. Router A switches to SRST 
mode to preserve telephony functions. At this point Router A fails, and HSRP 
backup Router B becomes the active router for the branch office, taking over 
SRST and routing functions for the office. 



For Router B to be effective in running SRST for the branch, which types of 
physical connectivity must be duplicated on Routers A and B?



A. WAN

B. CMs

C. LAN

D. PSTN

E. VLANs



Answer: C, D



Question 58.

Exhibit:

In a CM network deployed with MGCP to the branch office GWs, which two design 
methods should be used to protect branch office telephony (IP phone to IP Phone, 
and IP Phone to PSTN)

when a WAN failure occurs?



A. Primary and Secondary CMs

B. SRST

C. CM clustering

D. MGCP Gateway fallback

E. CAC



Answer: B, D



Question 59.

Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) is a design method to enhance the 
availability of what type of telephony network design?



A. CM toll bypass

B. CM centralized call processing

C. CM distributed call processing

D. CM single site campus design



Answer: B



Question 60.

In a remote office in a CM network, which types of call processing functions do 
SRST preserve?



A. IP phone to IP Phone calls

B. IP Phone to conference DSP resources

C. CTI applications such as IP Soft Phones

D. IP Phone to V mail trans coding services

E. IP Phone to GW calls



Answer: A, E



Question 61.

Exhibit:

The diagram shows a collapsed L3 switched building backbone consisting of two L3 
switches: W and U. Each L3 switch has a routed interface on every subnet (VLAN) 
in the building. There are no VLAN trunks in the network. In other words the L3 
switches are acting as native routers. There are exactly 4 client-side VLANs 
(subnets): a, b, c, d. There are exactly 2 server-side VLANs (subnets): x and y.



There is one routed link (Subnet e) connecting the L3 switches in the core. How 
many equal-cost paths to Subnet d does L3 Switch W keep in its routing table?



A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5



Answer: A



Question 62.

What is an Inter Switch Link (ISL)?



A. A protocol to interconnect switches across ATM only

B. A protocol to interconnect switches across FDDI only

C. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches

D. A Cisco proprietary protocol for interconnecting multiple switches

E. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches across Fast Ethernet



Answer: D



Question 63.

An incoming frame is received by a transparent bridge. If the destination 
address of the frame is not present in the database, the bridge will:



A. Discard the frame

B. Send out the frame on all interfaces, except on the interface where the frame 
originate

C. Put the destination MAC address in the table

D. Broadcast the frame on all interfaces

E. None of the above



Answer: B



Question 64.

What happens to an incoming frame on a Layer 2 switch?



A. The switch looks for an entry in its routing table for the destination MAC 
address and an 

associated outgoing port.

B. The switch looks for an entry in its switching table for the destination MAC 
address and an 

associated outgoing port.

C. The switch looks for an entry in its switching table for the source MAC 
address and an 

associated outgoing port.

D. The switch looks for an entry in its routing table for the source MAC address 
and an 

associated outgoing port.



Answer: B



Question 65.

An inverse ARP is sent:



A. To map a hostname to an IP address

B. To map an IP address to a hostname

C. To map an MAC address to an IP address

D. To map a MAC address to a hostname

E. To map an IP address to a MAC address



Answer: C



Question 66.

AAA Can NOT be used for: (multiple answer)



A. Unified messaging

B. Admission

C. Authentication

D. Security

E. Architecture

F. Administration

G. Billing



Answer: C, D, G



Question 67.

What is the proper configuration for VoIP authentication via Authentication, 
Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)?



A. aaa new-model aaa authentication login h323 radius

B. aaa new-model aaa authentication login default radius

C. aaa new-model aaa authentication h323 login radius

D. aaa new-model aaa authentication login h225 radius

E. aaa new-model aaa authentication login voip radius



Answer: A



Question 68.

The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:



A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving 
updates for the 

same network

B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update

C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path

D. To be used only for administrative purposes



Answer: A



Question 69

What type of fiber-optic system is used to distribute cable television signals?



A. Point to multipoint

B. Local Area network

C. Switched

D. Point to point



Answer: A



Question 70.

What establishes routing table precedence in a routing table?



A. Default metrics

B. Routing priority

C. Type of service

D. Iambic pentameter

E. Administrative distance



Answer: E



Question 71.

What is the usual procedure taken if an unrecognized non-mandatory ISDN IE is 
received by a network?



A. Final handle the call

B. Final handle the call if 2 such IE is received

C. Ignore only if the IE received is not CS0, otherwise final handle the call

D. Send a Facility msg to the user notifying the user of sending unknown IEs but 
don't final 

handle

E. Ignore the IEs



Answer: E



Question 72.

What Q.931 message cannot be received in response to sending a Q.931 SETUP 
message?



A. Alerting

B. Call Proceeding

C. Connect

D. USER Information

E. Progress



Answer: D



Question 73.

What describes a technique, used to encapsulate voice (NOT data) over ATM?



A. RFC 1483

B. LANE

C. AAL-1

D. RFC 1577



Answer: C



Question 74.

How long is an ATM cell header?



A. 5 octets (bytes)

B. 3 octets (bytes)

C. 8 octets (bytes)

D. The size varies by AAL type used



Answer: A



Question 75.

What is NOT an ATM class of service?



A. CBR

B. VBR-t

C. ABR

D. UBR

E. CAR



Answer: E



Question 76.

ATM switches use the VPI/VCI fields of the cell header:



A. To identify the QOS parameters specified in the traffic contract between the 
ATM end station 

and the network

B. To determine if the cell should be discarded in preference to others that 
have not exceeded 

their traffic envelope

C. To identify the next intermediate destination to which the cell should be 
passed

D. To determine if the header contains a checksum error and should be discarded

E. To determine if the cell contains user data or control data



Answer: C



Question 77.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. Each of the logical links represented 
carries certain types of traffic. On which links can q.921 traffic be seen?



A. 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3, and 4

C. 1 only

D. 2 and 4

E. 2 and 3



Answer: A



Question 78.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. 



Each of the logical links represented carries certain types of traffic. On which 
links can Skinny (SCCP) traffic be seen?



A. 1, 2, 3, and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 only

D. 2, 3, and 4

E. 1 and 4



Answer: C



Question 79.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. 



Each of the logical links represented carries certain types of traffic. On which 
links can q.931 traffic be seen?



A. 2 and 3

B. 2, 3, and 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

E. 2 and 4



Answer: E



Question 80.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. 



Each of the logical links represented carries certain types of traffic. On which 
links can RTP traffic be seen?



A. 2, 3, and 4

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

E. 1 and 4



Answer: B



Question 81.

PRI is the preferred method for inter-connecting Call Manager 3.2 and below to 
PBX's because: 



A. It is the cheapest solution available

B. It offers the highest level of inter-operability currently available between 
Call Manager and 

PBX's

C. It allows a customer to share their existing Voicemail system with Call 
Manager subscribers 

whilst delivering full functionality

D. Caller ID is available



Answer: B, D



Question 82.

For what purpose is a DPA (Digital PBX Adapter) used?



A. To connect an Octel 200/300/250/350 to Call Manager

B. To enable Calling-Name between Call Manager and PBX

C. To allow a customer to network Meridian Mail systems together

D. None of the above



Answer: A



Question 83.

What standards-based protocol will allow Call Manager to seamlessly Integrate 
with other vendors' traditional PBX systems?



A. MGCP

B. PRI NI-2

C. QSIG

D. All of the above



Answer: C



Question 84.

What statement is false about RIP v1?



A. RIP v1 is a classful routing protocol.

B. RIP v1 does not carry subnet information in its routing updates.

C. RIP v1 does not support Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM).

D. RIP v1 can support dis contiguous networks.



Answer: D



Question 85.

Exhibit:

What statement is correct concerning the shown configuration?



A. Two RIP updates will be sent out on Ethernet 0: one broadcast to 
255.255.255.255 and one 

unicast to 10.0.0.2.

B. Only one RIP update will be sent out on Ethernet 0 to the broadcast address 
255.255.255.255, 

but no RIP updates will be received on Ethernet 0.

C. Two RIP updates will be sent out on Ethernet 0, one broadcast to 
10.255.255.255 and one 

unicast to 10.0.0.2.

D. Only one RIP update will be sent out on Ethernet 0 to the unicast address 
10.0.0.2.



Answer: D



Question 86.

What is the best definition of the use of "Area 0" in OSPF?



A. Area 0 is used for administrative reasons, and is restricted from user 
definition.

B. Area 0 is defined as the backbone, designed to be at the center of all 
routing updates, and 

controls the dissemination of updates between areas.

C. Area 0 is used to authenticate messages received from other routers in the 
same area.

D. Area 0 is used for forwarding all routing updates received within the same 
Autonomous 

System from directly connected areas only.

E. Area 0 allows for routing updates to be forwarded between different 
Autonomous Systems.



Answer: B



Question 87.

Exhibit:

How should OSPF be configured on Router B?



A. router ospf network 108.3.0.0

B. router ospf 1network 108.3.100.0 0.0.0.255 area 6network 108.3.2.0 0.0.0.255 
area 6

C. router ospf 1network 108.3.100.0 0.0.0.255 area 6network 108.3.2.0 0.0.0.255 
area 0

D. router ospf 1network 108.3.100.0 255.255.255.0 area 6network 108.3.2.0 
255.255.255.0 area

6

E. router ospf 1network 108.3.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 6network 108.3.100.0 0.0.0.255 
area 6network 

108.3.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 6



Answer: B



Question 88.

Exhibit:

If a router had the three routes listed, which one of the routes would forward a 
packet destined for 10.1.1.1?



A. 10.1.0.0/16 through EIGRP, because EIGRP routes are always preferred over 
OSPF or static 

routes.

B. 10.1.0.0/16 static, because static routes are always preferred over OSPF or 
EIGRP routes.

C. 10.1.1.0/24 through OSPF because the route with the longest prefix is always 
chosen.

D. Whichever route appears in the routing table first.

E. The router will load share between the 10.1.0.0/16 route through EIGRP and 
the 10.1.0.0/16 

static route.



Answer: C



Question 89.

A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. 



What configuration statement will allow this interface to participate in OSPF 
Area 0?



A. router ospf 1network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0

B. router ospf 1network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0

C. router ospf 1network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0

D. router ospf 1network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0



Answer: C



Question 90.

Select the group of technologies which are listed in descending order of 
bandwidth scale: 



A. SDH, X.25, ATM

B. DWDM, SDH, Frame Relay

C. DWDM, SDH, ATM

D. ATM, DWDM, Frame Relay



Answer: C



Question 91.

The Hold-Down Timer used in Distance Vector protocols:



A. Sets the time limit of how long a router may keep a packet in its buffer, if 
the routing protocol is 

in the process of converging

B. Determines the number of seconds a router will wait before sending another 
update to 

neighbor routers

C. Sets a specific period for routers to neither accept or advertise a route 
from a destination 

where an original route was recently lost

D. Sets a duration where routes are not accepted from the neighbor router that 
caused a routing 

loop



Answer: C



Question 92

In an IP Contact Center deployment, the Erlang-C Traffic Model is used to 
provision:



A. Agents receiving/handling inbound calls

B. Ports on a voice gateway interfacing to the PSTN

C. Ports on an IP-IVR interfacing with Cisco Call Manager

D. Agents initiating/handling outbound calls only



Answer: A



Question 93.

A voice gateway processing 100 calls in the busy hour averaging six minutes each 
would be equivalent to:



A. 100 Erlangs

B. 360 CCS (call centum seconds)

C. 10 Erlangs

D. 60 Erlangs

E. B and C



Answer: E



Question 94.

When provisioning Cisco Call Manager device weights, what is taken into account?



A. The total number of devices by type and BHCA per device

B. The deployment model (Centralized or Distributed Call Processing)

C. The server model and type

D. A and C



Answer: D



Question 95.

What is RPF?



A. Reverse Path Forwarding

B. Reverse Path Flooding

C. Router Protocol Filter

D. Routing Protocol File

E. None of the above



Answer: A



Question 96.

Which of the following CGMP (Cisco Group Management Protocol) statements is 
correct? 

(multiple answer)



A. CGMP manages multicast traffic in Catalyst 5000 series switches by allowing 
directed 

switching of IP multicast traffic.

B. CGMP will switch IP multicast packets to all ports in one specific VLAN.

C. CGMP filtering requires a network connection from the Catalyst 5000 series 
switch to a router 

running CGMP.

D. CGMP handles ARP, SAP, UDP, SSAP and DSAP.



Answer: A, C



Question 97.

Exhibit:

Given the four networks listed, what valid summary address (below) contains the 
longest prefix?



A. 10.1.0.0/20

B. 10.1.0.0/16

C. 10.1.1.0/23

D. 10.1.16.0/19

E. These networks cannot be summarized.



Answer: A



Question 98.

Exhibit:

Which addresses below are appropriate super nets to contain the addresses shown 
in the exhibit? (multiple answer)



A. 192.168.0.0/16

B. 192.168.0.0/19

C. 192.168.32.0/19

D. 192.168.1.0/24



Answer: A, B



Question 99.

When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? 
(multiple answer)



A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address.

B. It is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routing wih the same process.

C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLV field on the L-1/L-1 
LSPs.

D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information.



Answer: A, C



Question 100.

To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form 
n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, 

IS-IS defines a pseudo node or Designated Intermediate System, DIS.



All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup 
DIS is called:



A. Redundant DIS

B. BDR

C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS

D. Designated Redundant System



Answer: C



Question 101.

For the spanning tree algorithm, a bridge builds part of its forwarding table 
based on:



A. Destination MAC addresses

B. 802.2 headers

C. Source MAC addresses

D. The Ethernet type field

E. The SNAP field



Answer: C



Question 102.

What does SMDI stand for?



A. Serial Message De-muxing Interface

B. Simple Message Desk Interface

C. Skinny Message De-muxing Interface

D. Simple Modular Disk Interface

E. None of the above



Answer: B



Question 103.

What statement is correct?



A. An IP header is always smaller than 20 bytes.

B. An IP header is always 20 bytes.

C. An IP header is never bigger than 20 bytes.

D. An IP header is 20 bytes long, or larger if options are used.

E. None of the above



Answer: D



Question 104.

Which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to an IP Phone when using an 
Inline-Power enabled Catalyst Switch?



A. 4,5

B. 7,8

C. 4,5,7,8

D. 1,2,3,6

E. 1,2



Answer: D



Question 105.

Exhibit:

If a 7960 IP Phone sends voice media frames towards the access switch, how will 
these frames be observed at point A NOTE: Assume that a frame sniffer capturing 
data between the phone and the access switch.

Note: Assume the phone is connected into port FastEthernet0/1.



A. The frame will be tagged with a 802.1Q VLAN ID of 12, and will have an 802.1p 
cos value of 3.

B. The frame will be tagged with a 802.1Q VLAN ID of 112, and will have an 
802.1p cos value of

5.

C. The frame will be tagged with a 802.1Q VLAN ID of 0, and will have an 802.1p 
cos value of 3.

D. The frame will be un-tagged.



Answer: B



Question 106.

Exhibit:

In the diagram shown, what section of the voice path represents the Tail 
Circuit?



A. Between Point A and Point B

B. Between Point C and Point D

C. Between Point A and Point D

D. Between Point B and Point D



Answer: D



Question 107.

Which standards are related to echo in a network.



A. G.165

B. G.711

C. G.174

D. G.168

E. G.323



Answer: A, D



Question 108.

What statement about echo is false?



A. Echo is caused by analog components in the voice path.

B. Echo usually exists in a Circuit Switched environment, but goes unnoticed 
because of the low 

delay.

C. The term "ERL" refers to a measurement of the volume of Echo heard by the 
user.

D. Increasing the Echo-Cancellation coverage in an Echo Canceller may also 
increase Echo 

Canceller convergence time.



Answer: C



Question 109.

Which of the following CGMP (Cisco Group Management Protocol) statements is 
correct?

(multiple answer)



A. CGMP manages multicast traffic in Catalyst 5000 series switches by allowing 
directed 

switching of IP multicast traffic.

B. CGMP will switch IP multicast packets to all ports in one specific VLAN.

C. CGMP filtering requires a network connection from the Catalyst 5000 series 
switch to a router 

running CGMP.

D. CGMP handles ARP, SAP, UDP, SSAP and DSAP.



Answer: A, C



Question 110.

With CGMP enabled, which are unique about the following MAC address range: 
01-00-5E-00-00- 00 to 01-00-5E-00-00-FF? (multiple answer)



A. CGMP does not prune those MAC addresses.

B. They contain the CGMP Multicast addresses for the IGMP Leaves and IGMP 
Queries.

C. CGMP filters those MAC addresses when they arrive at the processor

D. They are the reserved IP addresses of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 for forwarding 
local IP 

multicast traffic in a single Layer 3 hop.



Answer: A, B, D



Question 111.

What industry-standard protocol does Call Manager support for Integration to 
Voicemail systems?



A. SMDI

B. H.323

C. T1-CAS

D. None of the above



Answer: A



Question 112.

In a Cisco IPCC deployment, the Call Manager communicates route requests to the 
ICM Central Controller via:



A. A Peripheral Gateway

B. A voice Gateway

C. A router

D. PSTN

E. None of the above



Answer: A



Question 113.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. 



Each of the logical links represented carries certain types of traffic. On which 
links can RTP traffic be seen?



A. 2, 3, and 4

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

E. 1 and 4



Answer: B



Question 114.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. Each of the logical links represented 
carries certain types of traffic. On which links can q.921 traffic be seen?



A. 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3, and 4

C. 1 only

D. 2 and 4

E. 2 and 3



Answer: A



Question 115.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. 



Each of the logical links represented carries certain types of traffic. On which 
links can q.931 traffic be seen?



A. 2 and 3

B. 2, 3, and 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

E. 2 and 4



Answer: E



Question 116.

Exhibit:

Assume that the gateway is a 6608 blade configured as a gateway and running 
MGCP; Call Manager runs version 3.1, and that a call is made from phone A to 
phone X. All IP streaming is G.711. 



Each of the logical links represented carries certain types of traffic. On which 
links can Skinny (SCCP) traffic be seen?



A. 1, 2, 3, and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 only

D. 2, 3, and 4

E. 1 and 4



Answer: C



Question 117.

OSPF is defined on a Frame Relay interface providing point-to-multipoint 
connections. The remote neighbors can reach this central site, but are 
complaining of routing failures between each of the remote sites. The central 
router has all the routes for each remote site. 



Based on this information, what can be diagnosed as the biggest potential 
problem?



A. An over-subscribed Frame Relay switch will cause some packet loss.

B. There are problems in the use of OSPF Authentication.

C. There is an incorrect selection of the Designated Router.

D. There is an incorrect DLCI assigned on a point-to-point sub-interface.



Answer: C



Question 118.

Exhibit:

Based on the information above, which OSPF configurations listed are valid? 
(multiple answer)



A. routerA router ospf 1network 14.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0routerBrouter ospf 
1network 

14.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

B. routerA router ospf 1network 14.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0routerBrouter ospf 
2network 14.1.1.0 

0.0.0.255 area 0

C. routerA router ospf 1network 14.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0routerBrouter ospf 
1network 14.1.0.0 

0.0.0.255 area 0

D. routerA router ospf 1network 14.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1routerBrouter ospf 
1network 14.1.0.0 

0.0.255.255 area 0



Answer: A, B



Question 119.

A router is set up to redistribute routing updates from OSPF to RIP. 



What answer best describes issues the network administrator needs to be aware 
of?



A. Split Horizon, Poison Reverse, Hold down

B. Slow convergence, limited hop-count metric, lack of network mask information, 
periodic 

broadcasts

C. None, OSPF is a link-state routing protocol which overcomes issues found in 
RIP.

D. Difference in metrics (e.g. hops vs. cost), subnet mask allocation/addressing 
(e.g. VLSM vs.

Fixed subnet mask length), routing protocol summarization (e.g. network 
boundaries)



Answer: D



Question 120.

Routers running OSPF and sharing a common segment become neighbors on that 
segment.



What statement regarding OSPF neighbors is FALSE?



A. The Primary and Secondary addresses on an interface allow the router to 
belong to different 

areas at the same time.

B. All routers must agree on the stub area flag in the OSPF Hello Packets.

C. Neighbors will fail to form an adjacency if their Hello and Dead intervals 
differ.

D. Two routers will not become neighbors if the Area-ID and Authentication 
password do not 

match.



Answer: A



Question 121.

During the busy hour, 100 Erlangs may be generated by:



A. 1 call per hour averaging 100 minutes

B. 3000 calls per hour averaging 2 minutes each

C. 2000 calls per hour averaging 3 minutes each

D. B and C

E. None of the above



Answer: D



Question 122.

When dimensioning call center agents receive calls from infinite sources (PSTN 
callers) where calls are queued during the busy hour, the traffic model 
typically used is:



A. Extended Erlang-B

B. Engset

C. Erlang-C

D. Binomial

E. None of the above



Answer: C



Question 123.

A voice gateway processing 100 calls in the busy hour averaging six minutes each 
would be equivalent to:



A. 100 Erlangs

B. 360 CCS (call centum seconds)

C. 10 Erlangs

D. 60 Erlangs

E. B and C



Answer: E



Question 124.

Select the group of technologies which are listed in descending order of 
bandwidth scale:



A. SDH, X.25, ATM

B. DWDM, SDH, Frame Relay

C. DWDM, SDH, ATM

D. ATM, DWDM, Frame Relay



Answer: C



Question 125.

Exhibit:

Host IT1 and Host IT2 are on Ethernet LANs in different buildings. A serial line 
is installed between two Cisco routers using Cisco HDLC serial line 
encapsulation.



Routers A and B are configured to route IP traffic. Host IT1 sends a packet to 
Host IT2. 



What is the destination MAC address of the packet on Host's IT1 Ethernet?



A. Host IT1

B. Host IT2

C. Router A

D. Router B

E. The broadcast address



Answer: C



Question 126.

An AS5300 is configured to authenticate a user for Authentication, 
Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) RADIUS server by prompting the user for a 
PIN number, etc., by using application clid_authen_collect. Users are dialing 
5551000. 



What is the correct configuration?



A. dial-peer voice 1 pots incoming called-number 555....destination-pattern 
1.....port 

0:Dapplication clid_authen_collect

B. dial-peer voice 1 pots incoming called-number 5551000destination-pattern 
1.....application

clid_authen_collect

C. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 1.....port 0:Dapplication 
clid_authen_collect

D. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5551...port 0:Dapplication 
clid_authen_collect



Answer: A



Question 127.

AAA Can NOT be used for: (multiple answer)



A. Unified messaging

B. Admission

C. Authentication

D. Security

E. Architecture

F. Administration

G. Billing



Answer: C, D, G



Question 128.

Exhibit:

The low-speed ATM PVC shown carries both voice and data traffic. 



What is the most appropriate value for the tx-ring?



A. 0

B. 3

C. 10

D. 15

E. 60



Answer: B

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