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Braindumps for "HP0-762" Exam

Passed with 98%

 

Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com has a new application that needs to be tested against the TM/MP protected production database.

Prior to testing, what should the user do?

A. Add online dumps to the TM/MP catalog with the TMFCOM add dumps * command.
B. Issue the FUP purge data command to delete the affected records.
C. Issue the TMFCOM info dumps * command to verify valid dumps exist.
D. Move the data files to disk volumes with the most free space.

Answer: C

Question 2.
What do you use to bring an audited file back to a consistent state?

A. SQLCI; initialize sql
B. TMFCOM; backup process
C. TMFCOM; recover files
D. TMFCOM; stop transactions

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which commands start INSPECT from a TACL prompt? Select TWO.

A. RUN INSPECT or INSPECT
B. gtacl -p inspect
C. RUND program
D. run -debug -inspect=on program
E. INSPECT -START

Answer: A, C

Question 4.
Which pax command issued at an osh prompt unpacks OSS files from
$SYSTEM.ZOSSUTL.T0248PAX?

A. pax -r -f /G/SYSTEM/ZOSSUTL/T0248PAX
B. pax T0248PAX
C. pax -r=$SYSTEM.ZOSSUTL.T0248PAX
D. pax -f T0248PAX

Answer: A

Question 5.
What is NOT used for online system changes?

A. DSM/SCM
B. Wan Wizard Pro
C. SCF
D. SYSGENR

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which SRLs support Native Mode Non Stop Kernel products?

A. public
B. sysgenable
C. Microsoft
D. unlinked

Answer: A

Question 7.
To enable a backup disk process to take over, the primary disk process

A. mirrors
B. clones
C. duplicates
D. performs checkpoints

Answer: D

Question 8.
According to the support model, "relief" is

A. a permanent fix that is delivered to the customer
B. a temporary measure that can include a workaround or a risk assessment
C. confirmation from the customer the system is operational
D. the point in time which the support center is contacted

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which software and utilities are required in the system to use SQL/MP? Select TWO.

A. TS/MP
B. SQL conversational interface (SQLCI)
C. Nonstop Java Client
D. Fast Sort software
E. Parallel TCP/IP

Answer: B, D

Question 10.
Before loading a new release of the OS you should

A. receive software into the archive
B. save the existing configuration database
C. create a software input or product group
D. change the software input description

Answer: B

Question 11.
Where do you research an OS upgrade?

A. current release softdocs
B. account SE
C. TIM documentation
D. Infoway service

Answer: C

Question 12.
Where can you find information about recently discovered problems that can cause an outage?

A. TIPS
B. TWS
C. TIM online NSK Support collection
D. Customer Services Guide

Answer: C

Question 13.
Which tool automatically gathers AI (Additional Information) about a problem to send to the GCSC?

A. GRT
B. SPTOOL
C. TFDS
D. RCVDUMP

Answer: C

Question 14.
The RDF extractor process

A. reads the image trail to find audit information associated with committed transactions and to
apply that information to data volumes
B. provides the user interface for issuing RDF commands
C. sorts the audit information and writes it to the appropriate image trail
D. reads the audit trail and sends all audit information to a receiver process on the backup system

Answer: D

Question 15.
PTRACE displays formatted header data at the beginning of each trace data record.

What information is NOT included?

A. time the trace record was captured
B. date the trace record was captured
C. delta time from the previous record
D. total record count

Answer: D

Question 16.
What item creates an A0CINFO file?

A. SWID
B. INITENV
C. CNFGINFO
D. ZPHIRNM

Answer: C

Question 17.
Which items are NOT monitored by PEEK? Select TWO.

A. destination information
B. send instructions
C. router activity
D. paging activity
E. interrupt conditions

Answer: A, C

Question 18.
Which utility decompresses an IPM downloaded from IPM Scout?

A. DCOM
B. SWARCSET
C. FUP
D. UNPAK

Answer: B

Question 19.
Which command used by TM/MP copies audited files to either disk or tape?

A. dump files
B. recover files
C. relocate diskdumps
D. copy files

Answer: A

Question 20.
What is the Guardian equivalent for the OSS command "cp"?

A. fup give
B. fup dup
C. fup secure
D. fup purge

Answer: B

Question 21.
Which system process is a paired process?

A. $ztsms
B. $zhome
C. $zzapl
D. $zm00

Answer: B



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Braindumps: Dumps for 640-802 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "640-802" Exam

Cisco Certified Network Associate

 Question 1.
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network. 

Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?

A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?

A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN. Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice, switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.

Question 3.
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)

A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each 
    frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame.

Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating additional, smaller collision domains.

Question 4.
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)

A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above

Answer: A, C, F

Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.

Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment. D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default. Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the router level.

Question 5.
The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeys corporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network.

Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater

Answer: D, E

Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN.

Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.

Question 6.
Cisco is the leader in the router market space. 

What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)

A. The micro segmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.

Question 7.
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN. 

Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network?
(Choose 3)

A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Answer: B, E, F

Question 8.
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. 

Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
E. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
G. A modem is used to terminate a T1

Answer: A, C, D

Question 9.
The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network. 

What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)

A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.

Question 10.
CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network. 

What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)

A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected swticehs
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages

Answer: B, D


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