|
Question 1.
Which statement best describes V3PN?
A. enables triple AES encryption
B. allows customers to divide a router into multiple independent address spaces and routing
tables using Multi-VRF functionality.
C. Enables dynamic mesh tunnels between sites
D. Relies on NHRP
E. Enables concurrent IPSec, QoS, and IP telephony
Answer: E
Question 2.
Which two statements about LMI auto sensing are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is used to tell the router about LMI type.
B. It only works if the Frame Relay type is Cisco.
C. It involves sending full status requests to the Frame Relay switch.
D. It is used to automatically detect the Frame Relay CIRC of each PVC.
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Which statement best describes 802.3af?
A. provides QoS tagging for voice packets
B. enables call accounting and billing
C. provides inline power to IP phones
D. enables separate broadcast domains (voice VLANs) for IP phones
E. enables VLAN tagging
Answer: C
Question 4.
From the figure, which command would enable the central router to dynamically fluctuate the rate at which it sends packets to the branch site over the Frame Relay network?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate adaptive
B. frame-relay adaptive-shaping fecn
C. frame-relay adaptive-shaping becn
D. frame-relay traffic-rate dynamic
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which IOS configuration command is used to define interesting packets to trigger a DDR call?
A. dialer-list
B. dialer-group
C. dialer in-band
D. dialer rotary-group
Answer: A
Question 6.
What are three features of the VAM? (Choose three.)
A. compression
B. key generation
C. software assisted encryption
D. hardware assisted encryption
Answer: A, B, D
Question 7.
Which multilayer switching concept determines how entries are created in the MLS cache?
A. HSRP
B. XTAGs
C. Trunking
D. Flow masks
E. Tag switching
Answer: D
Question 8.
The multilayer switching process is based on which concept?
A. Switch once, route many
B. Route once, switch many
C. Route when you can, switch when you must
D. Separate the functions of routing and switching
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which three are contained in MLS-RP advertisements? (Choose three)
A. Topology changes
B. ARP cache changes
C. Access list information
D. Route additions and deletions
E. The MAC addresses used by the MLS-RP interfaces
Answer: C, D, E
Question 10.
When does the MLS-SE create a candidate MLS cache entry? (Choose two)
A. When it receives a TCP SYN packet.
B. When an MSL cache entry did not exist for the flow.
C. When the frame was destined for the MLS-RP MAC address.
D. After it forwards a pre-determined number of frames for the same flow.
E. When it receives an MLSP message from the MLS-RP to create a candidate entry.
Answer: B, C
Question 11.
Which Native IOS feature supports a forwarding approach that eliminates the supervisor from touching a frame for forwarding decisions?
A. FIB
B. MLS
C. CEF
D. DCEF
Answer: C
Question 12.
Using switch clustering, how many ports can users manage from a single IP address?
A. 240
B. 380
C. 500
D. 680
E. 800
Answer: B
Explanation:
With Cisco Switch Clustering, users can manage over 380 ports from a single IP address, and connect up to 16 switches, regardless of physical location, with a broad range of Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet media
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps637/index.html
Question 13.
Which statement describes the term "multilayer switching"?
A. switches that operate at the access, distribution, and core layer of the design model
B. an OSI Layer 1 and 2 bridging technique
C. a technique to provide hardware switching of Layer 3unicastpackets
D. a flow-based Layer 3 packet routing methodology
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which command configures a default gateway on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?
A. Switch (config) ip route ip address
B. Switch (config) set ip route address
C. Switch (config) ip route-default-gateway ip address
D. Switch (enable) set default-gateway ip address
Answer: D
Question 15.
Which method of layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base? (FIB)
A. Route caching
B. Flow-based switching
C. Demand-based switching
D. Topology-based switching
Answer: D
Note:
EF is a topology-based forwarding model in which all routing information is pre-populated into a forwarding information base (FIB).As a result of the pre-population of routing information, Catalyst switches can quickly look up routing information such as IP adjacencies and next-hop IP and MAC addresses.
Question 16.
What does a half-open TCP session on the Cisco IOS Firewall mean?
A. Session was denied.
B. Firewall detected return traffic.
C. Session has not reached the established state.
D. Three-way handshake has been completed.
Answer: C
Question 17.
What does CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall do with the application-layer protocol session information it gets from TCP and UDP packets?
A. Creates temporary openings in the firewall's ACLs to allow return traffic and additional data
connections for permissible sessions.
B. Provides additional visibility at intranet, extranet, and Internet perimeters.
C. Protects the network from internal and external attacks and threats.
D. Creates specific security polices for each user.
Answer: A
Question 18.
If you want Layer 4 information to be included in the MLS cache entries, which flow mask should you use?
A. IP-flow
B. Destination-IP
C. Source-Destination-IP
D. Layer 4 information is included by default.
Answer: A
Question 19.
Which two parameters are distributed by VTP advertisements? (Choose two)
A. VTP mode
B. VLAN names
C. VLAN description
D. VTP configuration revision number
Answer: B, D
Question 20.
Which statement is true about VTPs and VLAN consistency?
A. Routers assist in propagating VTP information to ensure consistency.
B. A switch can reside in multiple VTP domains to ensure no duplication.
C. A switch listens to VTP advertisements from its own domain and other domains.
D. A switch listens to VTP advertisements from its own domain and ignores other domains.
Answer: D
Question 21.
Which DTP switch port mode parameter sets the switch port actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Answer: D
Note:
Switch port mode dynamic desirable: Makes the interface actively attempt to convert the link to a trunking link. The interface becomes a trunk interface if the neighboring interface is set to trunk, desirable, or auto mode.
Switch port mode dynamic auto: Makes the interface convert the link to a trunking link if the neighboring interface is set to trunk or desirable mode. This is the default mode for all Ethernet interfaces.
Question 22.
Which trunking mode prevents DISL or DTP frames from being sent out of a trunk link
A. On
B. Auto
C. Desirable
D. No negotiate
Answer: D
Question 23.
What are two functions of VTP? (Choose two)
A. It propagates global VLAN information.
B. It maps mixed-media to Ethernet VLANs.
C. It sets trunk priority levels of adjacent switches.
D. It adjusts VLAN inter switch links for parallel load sharing.
E. It maps the noncontiguous switch fabric across the global VLAN.
Answer: A, B
Question 24.
What are two methods to maintain a consistent VLAN database in a VTP domain? (Choose two)
A. Do not configure any switches as a VTP server.
B. Ensure that all switches not authorized to make changes are in Client mode.
C. Always configure switches using VTP server mode when adding them to the existing network.
D. Allow only one VTP server in each domain so that adding and deleting VLANs can be
centralized to one location.
Answer: B, D
Question 25.
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number
Answer: D, E
|
Question 1.
Which of the following represents the BEST process to accomplish resource planning?
A. Identifying the required resources in the project charter
B. Identifying the available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current phase of the
project.
C. Identifying the required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
D. Identifying the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all project
activities
E. None of the above
Answer: C
Question 2.
When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is the estimate with a 15% probability of being exceeded approximately one standard deviation ___________?
A. Above the mean.
B. Below the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: A
Question 3.
What would be the cost performance index if
BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325?
Note: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP),
Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and
Budget Cost of Work Schedule (BCWS)
A. 0.813
B. 1.078
C. 1.143
D. 0.875
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A. Critical path
B. Dependency diagramming
C. PERT
D. Gantt chart
E. Monte Carlo method
Answer: A
Question 5.
Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST effective when you make use of Pareto's Rule?
Origin of Problem Percent of Problems
Design 60
Development 15
Prototype 10
Testing 10
Fabrication 5
A. Development
B. Prototype
C. Fabrication
D. Design
E. Testing
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?
A. Circumventing loopholes.
B. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
C. Increased project risk.
D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime.
E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Preparing cost estimates.
C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
D. Monitoring cost performance.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract close-out and administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control?
A. Preparation of cost estimates.
B. Informing stakeholders of changes.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur?
A. Stakeholder meeting.
B. Resource leveling activity.
C. Project audit.
D. Contract negotiation.
Answer: C
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.