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Question 1.
In a DMX-3, which component is used for communication and environmental monitoring?
A. XEM
B. XCM
C. CCM
D. ECM
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is a characteristic of Switched SRDF?
A. Fast access to any storage array from any host
B. Multiple storage arrays communicating to a single host
C. Single switch accessing multiple storage arrays
D. One Symmetrix array connected to multiple Symmetrix arrays
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a typical Power Path implementation?
A. All volumes accessible through multiple paths
B. A host connected to a SAN that is zoned
C. A host that has paths to multiple arrays
D. All volumes accessible through a single path
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is the role of Power Path when performing a consistent split in a database environment?
A. To suspend the database device writes at the host level while the split occurs
B. To place the database in backup mode while the split occurs and release it when the split has
completed
C. To flush the database log before and after the split operation
D. To shutdown and restart the database server while the split occurs
Answer: A
Question 5.
In which direction is data copied during a TimeFinder/Mirror Establish operation?
A. BCV Device to Standard Device
B. Clone Device to BCV Device
C. Standard Device to BCV Device
D. BCV Device to Clone Device
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which DMX contains a Storage Processor Enclosure?
A. DMX800
B. DMX2000
C. DMX1000
D. DMX3000
Answer: A
Question 7.
What are three modes of data replication for SRDF?
A. Synchronous, Adaptive Copy, and Asynchronous
B. Establish, Synchronous, and Semi-Synchronous
C. Domino Mode, SRDF split, and Asynchronous
D. SRDF establish, SRDF Restore and SRDF Split Mode
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is a functionality of Fabric Failover policy?
A. Protects against HBA failover
B. Used in high availability clustered environments
C. Supported on CLARiiON arrays only
D. Provides support for back-end failover
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which Service Policy assigns read operations to only the M1 or M2 but NOT to both?
A. Split
B. Transfer
C. Dynamic Mirror
D. Interleave
Answer: A
Question 10.
How many memory connections are supported on each memory card in the Direct Matrix Architecture?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: A
Question 11.
What is the internal numbering scheme for Symmetrix volumes?
A. Octal
B. Decimal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Binary string
Answer: C
Question 12.
What is the advantage does hard zoning being to a SAN?
A. Host-based volume access
B. Configuration flexibility
C. Security at the switch port level
D. Ease of duplication
Answer: C
Question 13.
Exhibit:
The exhibit above shows the basic architecture of a Centera.
Which components are labeled #2 and #3?
A. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = Storage Nodes
B. #2 = Switches and #3 = Storage Nodes
C. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = CAG
D. #2 = Switches and #3 = Access Nodes
Answer: B
Question 14.
Which of the following is a feature of Connectrix enterprise directors?
A. Secure functionality
B. Fully redundant components
C. Low port count
D. Limited hot swappable components
Answer: B
Question 15.
Which of the following recovery methods is used after a Data Mover failover?
A. Manual
B. Automatic
C. EMC support
D. Retry
Answer: A
Question 16.
Which of the following allows you to use Control Center Automated Resource Manager Storage Provisioning Services?
A. Storage policies and device groups
B. Storage pools and device groups
C. Device groups and Autofixes
D. Storage pools and storage policies
Answer: D
Question 17.
Which of the following the SRDF operations suspends SRDF link between Source (R1) and Target (R2) volumes, and enables read and write operations on both Source (R1) and Target (R2) volumes?
A. Split
B. Suspend
C. Failback
D. Establish
Answer: A
Question 18.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. CLARiiON
C. Legato Networker
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: B
Question 19.
What is the purpose of the Automated Resource Manager - Storage Provisioning Services component in Control Center?
A. It reports key historical performance data
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices
C. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C
Question 20.
How does TimeFinder/Snap save disk space while providing full access to the original data on the snapshot copy?
A. It compresses the original data after making the snapshot
B. It only copies the data track that is read to the snapshot
C. It creates pointers to the original data
D. It compresses the original data before making the snapshot
Answer: C
Question 21.
Which of the following views in the Control Center Console provides a graphical view of a SAN?
A. Visual Storage
B. Performance
C. Relationship
D. At A Glance
E. Topology
Answer: E
Question 22.
Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port through a
SAN
B. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a switch
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator port in a
SAN
D. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA port in a
SAN
Answer: A
Question 23.
Which of the following is a feature of TimeFinder/Snap?
A. The capacity required for the Snap copy can be less than that of the Source device
B. The recoverable copy of the Source device is available instantly at a remote site
C. The capacity required for the Snap copy must be the same as that of the Source device
D. The Snap copy must be fully established with the Source device before the Snap copy is
accessible
Answer: A
Question 24.
Which of the following is a feature of Fast Ether Channel?
A. Higher level of availability by protecting against network port failure
B. Performance improvement by increasing network bandwidth reserved per client
C. Client throughput increased by load balancing
D. Increased performance through improved system bus throughput
Answer: A
Question 25.
Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual power supplies
B. Dual storage processors
C. Dual LCCs
D. Dual consoles
E. Dual ported drives
Answer: D
Question 26.
What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one Target system?
A. 16
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
Question 27.
What is the purpose of the TimeFinder/SRDF QoS Task Bar in Control Center?
A. Performance Management
B. Storage Allocation
C. Data Protection
D. Monitoring
Answer: A
Question 28.
What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mirroring
D. LUN groups
Answer: B
Question 29.
Which of the following Symmetrix object is presented to hosts as storage?
A. Symmetrix Physical Drives
B. Dynamic Spares
C. Symmetrix Logical Volumes
D. Hyper Volume Extensions
Answer: C
Question 30.
Which of the following statements is true?
What is a benefit of?
A. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to
the last committed transaction
B. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2)
device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source
C. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will
be a few seconds to a few minutes behind the Source
D. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which
will be at most one write behind for each Source (R1) device
Answer: B
Question 31.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center Host agent?
A. Windows 2000 disk
B. SQL Server
C. CLARiiON
D. Legato Networker
E. Brocade switch
Answer: A
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com uses a centralized call processing model to connect their saw mills in Albany and Columbus. Each mill is configured as a separate Location in Cisco Unified CallManager at HQ. Each Location has been configured with 256 Kbps of voice bandwidth.
How many G.729 calls can be placed between Locations simultaneously?
A. 23
B. 5
C. 16
D. 10
E. 8
Answer: D
Question 2.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A manager at HQ is holding a conference call with three of his staff members that are located at BR. The HQ region uses the G.711 codec, the BR region uses the G.711 codec, and the IP WAN region uses the G.729 codec. The MRGL associated with the manager has only the software conference bridge listed.
What will happen when the three staff members join the conference?
A. The staff members will not be able to join the conference until all the software conferencing
resources are consumed and the conference uses the hardware conferencing resources at BR.
B. The staff members will join only after the manager has set the conference call up using the
hardware conferencing resources.
C. The staff members will all join the conference normally.
D. The staff members will be prevented from joining because the software conference bridge only
supports the G.711 codec and the staff members will be using the G.729 codec.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com needs to have the receptionist at extension 5000 handle all callers who exit their auto attendant by pressing "0". After changing the Operator parameter from 5500 to 5000, callers are still sent to extension 5500 when they press "0" in the auto attendant.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Dial peer 1 needs to be restarted using the shutdown and no shutdown commands.
B. The application needs to be edited to point to the correct operator.
C. The aa application needs to be reloaded in order to recognize the parameter changes.
D. The gateway needs to be reloaded for application changes to take effect.
E. The Operator parameter should be configured under dial peer 1 using the param command.
Answer: C
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A branch site with an H.323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site. You want to initiate SRST and get back the operation to normal. Select the appropriate steps in the correct order. Use only steps that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?
A. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches
identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
B. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp
farm profile.
C. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.
D. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
E. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message "Not Enough Bandwidth" on their phone and hears a fast busy tone.
Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured
under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
Answer: D, E
Question 7.
How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
A. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The
SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco
Unified Communications Manager.
B. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the
SRST gateway.
C. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their
registration with the SRST gateway.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from the San Jose site to the RTP site, the Physical Location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group remains the same. After roaming to RTP, the user called a colleague in RTP and conferenced in a phone in his home location (San Jose).
Which statement about the MRGL for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone is true?
A. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since his Device
Mobility Group (DMG) remained the same.
B. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_MRGL since his Device Mobility Group
remained the same.
C. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_ MRGL regardless of Device Mobility
Group.
D. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since he is
conferencing a user at his home location.
Answer: C
Question 9.
As the Administrator for an IT company that's using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you've been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country's numbering plan.
Which scenario will accomplish your goal?
A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile.
B. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group.
C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use
the local PSTN gateway for each country.
D. Implement Mobile Connect.
E. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group.
Answer: E
Question 10.
A remote site MGCP gateway will be used to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost.
Which three steps are required to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.)
A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN.
B. COR needs to be configured to allow outbound calls.
C. The default service must be enabled globally.
D. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured.
E. The default service must be configured on an inbound POTS dial peer.
F. VoIP dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the PSTN to the IP phones.
Answer: A, C, D
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