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Question 1.
How does TimeFinder/Snap save disk space while providing full access to the original data on the snapshot copy?
A. It only copies the data track that is read to the snapshot
B. It creates pointers to the original data
C. It compresses the original data before making the snapshot
D. It compresses the original data after making the snapshot
Answer: B
Question 2.
How is free space in the CLARiiON write cache maintained?
A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations
B. The cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes
C. The cache is flushed to the drives during I/O bursts and only the least-recently used pages are
flushed
D. Low watermark flushing is suspended during read operations
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which of the following recovery methods is used after a Data Mover failover?
A. Automatic
B. EMC support
C. Manual
D. Retry
Answer: C
Question 4.
What does NDMP represent?
A. Network Data Management Protocol
B. Network Data Mirroring Protocol
C. Network Duplex Migration Policy
D. Network Duplication Mirror Policy
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which of the following is optional when using Synchronous MirrorView?
A. write intent log
B. event error log
C. fracture log
D. connection log
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following protocols uses TCP/IP to tunnel Fibre Channel frames?
A. FCP
B. FCIP
C. CIFS
D. iSCSI
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following is the correct sequence for starting a Control Center component?
A. Repository, Server, Store
B. Server, Repository, Store
C. Repository, Store, Server
D. Store, Server, Repository
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which of the following Symmetrix system uses a two bus architecture that is referred to as an "X" and a "Y" bus?
A. Symmetrix 5.0 LVD
B. Symmetrix 4.8
C. Symmetrix 5.0
D. Symmetrix DMX
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at most
one write behind for each Source (R1) device
B. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last
committed transaction
C. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2) device, which will
be several minutes to hours behind the Source
D. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few
seconds to a few minutes behind the Source
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which of the following series of switches can you use EMC Connectrix Manager to manage?
A. M-Series
B. MDS-Series
C. Q-Series
D. B-Series
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix? (Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A, C
Question 12.
Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A
Question 13.
Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A, C
Question 14.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between SRDF
Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously paired with
two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D
Question 15.
In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN.
What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B
Question 16.
In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read request.
What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A
Question 17.
Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B
Question 18.
Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on a host with Power Path fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. Power Path receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed
path offline
B. Power Path receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. Power Path takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and receives I/O
timeout
D. Power Path takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B
Question 19.
Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B, C
Question 20.
Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in Control Center?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?
A. DVD.DL
B. CD.RW
C. CD.R
D. DVD.R
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. \\computername\sharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
\\computername\sharename is a net command that manages network print jobs and IP_ip_address is a static IP address that is configured on a network printer so that it can be seen on the network by a computer. This address can be verified from printer's configuration.
Question 3.
While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports.
Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The chassis of a PC is designed for proper internal airflow across the various components. However, if your PC's enclosures are open, then the cooling of the PC changes dramatically. The cooling of some components can be reduced or totally eliminated and can cause damage.
Question 4.
Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The port 80 is associated with HTTP TCP/IP protocol.
Question 5.
Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
To find the port that your printer is currently using, you need to open the properties of the printer from the Printer's Control Panel
Question 6.
Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).
A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.
B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The printers IP address has changed.
E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
The possible cause of the problem in this case is that either a job in error status is at the top of the print queue or the IP address of the printer has changed. Sometimes, certain print codes in the file that is printing can confuse the print job and the job gets stuck in the print queue. The printer would not start printing again till that print job is removed from the queue. Sometime if the IP address of the printer is changed you cannot print. To find this problem you can ping the printer from your computer.
Question 7.
Which of the following connector types is used with twisted pair cable?
A. T-Connector
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. LC
Answer: C
Explanation:
With twisted pair cable you can use RJ-45 connector. The UTP ( unshilded twisted pair) cable often is installed using a Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector. The RJ-45 is an eight-wire connector used commonly to connect computers onto a local-area network (LAN), especially Ethernets
Question 8.
Which of the following bus speeds is used for a PCIe card? (Select TWO).
A. 1x
B. 3x
C. 6x
D. 8x
E. 24x
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
For a PCIe or PCI expansion card, 1x and 8x bus speeds can be used.
Question 9.
A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. How would a technician walk the user through checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer?
A. Start>Run>typeipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results.
B. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the
results.
C. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
D. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Ipconfig command is used to find the IP configuration information of a computer. The Syntax IPCONFIG /all displays full configuration information. You can type the Ipconfig command by clicking Start->Run and then typing cmd to open the command prompt to type the ipconfig command.
Question 10.
Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server?
A. Secures network traffic through shared key encryption.
B. Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.
C. Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
D. Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of DNS is the mapping of IP addresses to human readable names. The DNS server strictly functions as an ip address lookup for a given domain name.
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