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Question 1.
In a DMX-3, which component is used for communication and environmental monitoring?
A. XEM
B. XCM
C. CCM
D. ECM
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is a characteristic of Switched SRDF?
A. Fast access to any storage array from any host
B. Multiple storage arrays communicating to a single host
C. Single switch accessing multiple storage arrays
D. One Symmetrix array connected to multiple Symmetrix arrays
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a typical Power Path implementation?
A. All volumes accessible through multiple paths
B. A host connected to a SAN that is zoned
C. A host that has paths to multiple arrays
D. All volumes accessible through a single path
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is the role of Power Path when performing a consistent split in a database environment?
A. To suspend the database device writes at the host level while the split occurs
B. To place the database in backup mode while the split occurs and release it when the split has
completed
C. To flush the database log before and after the split operation
D. To shutdown and restart the database server while the split occurs
Answer: A
Question 5.
In which direction is data copied during a TimeFinder/Mirror Establish operation?
A. BCV Device to Standard Device
B. Clone Device to BCV Device
C. Standard Device to BCV Device
D. BCV Device to Clone Device
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which DMX contains a Storage Processor Enclosure?
A. DMX800
B. DMX2000
C. DMX1000
D. DMX3000
Answer: A
Question 7.
What are three modes of data replication for SRDF?
A. Synchronous, Adaptive Copy, and Asynchronous
B. Establish, Synchronous, and Semi-Synchronous
C. Domino Mode, SRDF split, and Asynchronous
D. SRDF establish, SRDF Restore and SRDF Split Mode
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is a functionality of Fabric Failover policy?
A. Protects against HBA failover
B. Used in high availability clustered environments
C. Supported on CLARiiON arrays only
D. Provides support for back-end failover
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which Service Policy assigns read operations to only the M1 or M2 but NOT to both?
A. Split
B. Transfer
C. Dynamic Mirror
D. Interleave
Answer: A
Question 10.
How many memory connections are supported on each memory card in the Direct Matrix Architecture?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: A
Question 11.
What is the internal numbering scheme for Symmetrix volumes?
A. Octal
B. Decimal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Binary string
Answer: C
Question 12.
What is the advantage does hard zoning being to a SAN?
A. Host-based volume access
B. Configuration flexibility
C. Security at the switch port level
D. Ease of duplication
Answer: C
Question 13.
Exhibit:
The exhibit above shows the basic architecture of a Centera.
Which components are labeled #2 and #3?
A. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = Storage Nodes
B. #2 = Switches and #3 = Storage Nodes
C. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = CAG
D. #2 = Switches and #3 = Access Nodes
Answer: B
Question 14.
Which of the following is a feature of Connectrix enterprise directors?
A. Secure functionality
B. Fully redundant components
C. Low port count
D. Limited hot swappable components
Answer: B
Question 15.
Which of the following recovery methods is used after a Data Mover failover?
A. Manual
B. Automatic
C. EMC support
D. Retry
Answer: A
Question 16.
Which of the following allows you to use Control Center Automated Resource Manager Storage Provisioning Services?
A. Storage policies and device groups
B. Storage pools and device groups
C. Device groups and Autofixes
D. Storage pools and storage policies
Answer: D
Question 17.
Which of the following the SRDF operations suspends SRDF link between Source (R1) and Target (R2) volumes, and enables read and write operations on both Source (R1) and Target (R2) volumes?
A. Split
B. Suspend
C. Failback
D. Establish
Answer: A
Question 18.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. CLARiiON
C. Legato Networker
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: B
Question 19.
What is the purpose of the Automated Resource Manager - Storage Provisioning Services component in Control Center?
A. It reports key historical performance data
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices
C. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C
Question 20.
How does TimeFinder/Snap save disk space while providing full access to the original data on the snapshot copy?
A. It compresses the original data after making the snapshot
B. It only copies the data track that is read to the snapshot
C. It creates pointers to the original data
D. It compresses the original data before making the snapshot
Answer: C
Question 21.
Which of the following views in the Control Center Console provides a graphical view of a SAN?
A. Visual Storage
B. Performance
C. Relationship
D. At A Glance
E. Topology
Answer: E
Question 22.
Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port through a
SAN
B. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a switch
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator port in a
SAN
D. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA port in a
SAN
Answer: A
Question 23.
Which of the following is a feature of TimeFinder/Snap?
A. The capacity required for the Snap copy can be less than that of the Source device
B. The recoverable copy of the Source device is available instantly at a remote site
C. The capacity required for the Snap copy must be the same as that of the Source device
D. The Snap copy must be fully established with the Source device before the Snap copy is
accessible
Answer: A
Question 24.
Which of the following is a feature of Fast Ether Channel?
A. Higher level of availability by protecting against network port failure
B. Performance improvement by increasing network bandwidth reserved per client
C. Client throughput increased by load balancing
D. Increased performance through improved system bus throughput
Answer: A
Question 25.
Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual power supplies
B. Dual storage processors
C. Dual LCCs
D. Dual consoles
E. Dual ported drives
Answer: D
Question 26.
What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one Target system?
A. 16
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
Question 27.
What is the purpose of the TimeFinder/SRDF QoS Task Bar in Control Center?
A. Performance Management
B. Storage Allocation
C. Data Protection
D. Monitoring
Answer: A
Question 28.
What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mirroring
D. LUN groups
Answer: B
Question 29.
Which of the following Symmetrix object is presented to hosts as storage?
A. Symmetrix Physical Drives
B. Dynamic Spares
C. Symmetrix Logical Volumes
D. Hyper Volume Extensions
Answer: C
Question 30.
Which of the following statements is true?
What is a benefit of?
A. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to
the last committed transaction
B. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2)
device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source
C. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will
be a few seconds to a few minutes behind the Source
D. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which
will be at most one write behind for each Source (R1) device
Answer: B
Question 31.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center Host agent?
A. Windows 2000 disk
B. SQL Server
C. CLARiiON
D. Legato Networker
E. Brocade switch
Answer: A
Question 32.
What is the purpose of the Control Center Agent?
A. It stores data for objects
B. It retrieves data
C. It collects data for each type of object
D. It allows environment management
Answer: C
Question 33.
What is the maximum size of the content address in a Centera?
A. 64-bit
B. 16-bit
C. 32-bit
D. 128-bit
Answer: D
Question 34.
Which of the following statements best describes TimeFinder/Mirror BCV capability?
A. Creates a point in time copy of a production volume by utilizing BCV devices
B. Controls the RDF links during a Target Take Over procedure
C. During a backup operation, TimeFinder holds back all new I/O from the Standard device
D. Allows the user to configure BCV devices, Clones, VDEVs and Hot Spares
Answer: A
Question 35.
What is the purpose of the Masking Control Center Task Bar in Control Center?
A. Storage Allocation
B. ECC Administration
C. Data Protection
D. Monitoring
Answer: A
Question 36.
Which of the following statements best describes ISL aggregation?
A. It prevents unauthorized use of ISLs by combining them into a single security domain
B. It enables distribution of traffic over the combined bandwidth of two or more ISLs
C. It allows vendors to create more EPorts in a switch and limit their use for ISLs
D. It is a mechanism by which one or more ISLs can be reserved for special situations when extra
bandwidth is needed
Answer: B
Question 37.
Which two of the following TimeFinder solutions allow a replica to be made available to the backup host immediately after the activation of the replication session? (Choose two.)
A. TimeFinder/Snap
B. TimeFinder/Snap Clone
C. TimeFinder/Mirror
D. TimeFinder/Mirror Clone
Answer: A, D
Question 38.
Which of the following access method is used for file sharing over an IP network?
A. SAN
B. DAS
C. DRU
D. NAS
Answer: D
Question 39.
Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
B. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
Answer: A
Question 40.
When is the Port Bypass Card used on a Symmetrix DMX?
A. When the Channel Director fails
B. When the Disk Director fails
C. When the Global Cache Memory fails
D. When the Power Supply fails
Answer: B
Question 41.
What is the maximum supported distance between sites for SRDF over ESCON with Repeaters/Converters?
A. 100 km
B. Unlimited
C. 200 km
D. 46 to 66 km
E. 10 km
Answer: D
Question 42.
How is free space in the CLARiiON write cache maintained?
A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations
B. The cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes
C. Low watermark flushing is suspended during read operations
D. The cache is flushed to the drives during I/O bursts and only the least-recently used pages are
flushed
Answer: D
Question 43.
Which of the following statements best describes a read cache hit in a CLARiiON?
A. Data found in cache and data is sent to host
B. Data found in cache, automatically mirrored and then flushed to disk
C. Data synchronized from disk, host request awaited
D. Data not found in cache, hit is checked, data synchronized from disk to cache
Answer: A
Question 44.
How much space per CLARiiON Storage Processor must be set aside in the array for the Snap View Clone Private LUN (CPL)?
A. 128 MB
B. CPL must be same size as Source LUN
C. 256 MB
D. 64 MB
E. 16 MB
Answer: A
Question 45.
Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Control Center
B. ESN Manager
C. Connectrix Manager
D. TimerFinder
E. TimeFinder/Snap
F. Navisphere Manager
Answer: A, F
Question 46.
Which two of the following are High Availability features of the CLARiiON?
(Choose two.)
A. Dual FAs
B. Dual consoles
C. Dual LCCs
D. Dual storage processors
Answer: C, D
Question 47.
Which of the following Symmetrix connectivity options can you use with Open Systems and Windows Hosts?
A. Fibre Channel and SCSI
B. ESCON and FICON
C. ESCON and Fibre Channel
D. Fibre Channel and FICON
Answer: A
Question 48.
Which of the following views in Control Center Console displays Front End Directors, Disk Directors, and all the devices for a Symmetrix array?
A. Visual Storage
B. Free Space
C. At A Glance
D. Topology
Answer: A
Question 49.
Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Snap? (Choose two.)
A. The recoverable copy of the Source device is available instantly at a remote site
B. The Snap copy must be fully established with the Source device before the Snap copy is
accessible
C. Data is accessible on the Snap copy immediately after the Snap session is initiated
D. The capacity required for the Snap copy can be less than that of the Source device
E. Data from a BCV device is copied to the Standard device automatically
F. A dynamic relationship between a Source (R1) and Target (R2) can be defined
Answer: C, D
Question 50.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last
committed transaction
B. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2) device, which will
be several minutes to hours behind the Source
C. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few
seconds to a few minutes behind the Source
D. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at most
one write behind for each Source (R1) device
Answer: B
Question 51.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few
seconds to a few minutes behind the Source
B. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last
committed transaction
C. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at
most one write behind for each Source (R1) device
D. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2) device,
which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source
Answer: A
Question 52.
What is the function of the DS-M Connect?
A. It enables standalone B-Series switches/directors to be managed by Control Center SAN
Manager
B. It enables standalone M-Series switches/directors to be managed using the service processor
C. It enables standalone M-Series switches/directors to be managed by Control Center SAN
Manager
D. It enables standalone MDS-Series switches/directors to be managed by Control Center SAN
Manager
Answer: C
Question 53.
Which of the following is a feature of zoning in a SAN environment?
A. Allows devices within the fabric to be logically segmented
B. LUN access control in a shared environment
C. Allows switches to aggregate ISLs to increase bandwidth
D. Fabric independent service
Answer: A
Question 54.
Which two of the following are not operational modes for a Data Mover failover?
(Choose two.)
A. Automatic
B. Semi-sync
C. Retry
D. Time-out
E. Manual
Answer: B, D
Question 55.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center Database agent?
A. SQL Server
B. CLARiiON
C. Brocade switch
D. Legato Networker
E. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: A
Question 56.
Exhibit:
The exhibit above shows the basic architecture of a Symmetrix.
Which components are labeled #3 and #4?
A. #3 = Cache and #4 = Disk Drive
B. #3 = Front-end Channel Director and #4 = Cache
C. #3 = Front-end Channel Director and #4 = Back-end Disk Drive
D. #3 = Cache and #4 = Back-end Disk Director
Answer: D
Question 57.
Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone B-Series switches?
A. Fabric Manager
B. EWS
C. CLI using Telnet/SSH
D. Web Tools
Answer: D
Question 58.
In the first step in a read cache hit operation on a Symmetrix, a host sends a read request.
What is the next step?
A. The requested data is in cache
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The cache pings the host
D. The Channel Director checks the track table
Answer: D
Question 59.
Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
D. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
Answer: A, D
Question 60.
What is the maximum number of BCV devices that can be concurrently established with one (1) standard device?
A. 16
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B
Question 61.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Storage Area Networks (SANs) and Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A. NAS devices cannot allow multiple client connections while SAN devices can
B. In a NAS environment, clients are aware of the disk geometry of the device they access while
in a SAN they are not
C. NAS I/O operations use filesystem level I/O protocols while SAN I/O operations use block level
I/O
D. NAS I/O operations use block level I/O protocols while SAN I/O operations use filesystem level
I/O
Answer: C
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Question 1.
You work as the Exchange Administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 infrastructure. The network contains a mailbox named TestResources. At present all users are able to diarize appointments for TestResources. A new company policy states that only Kara Lang and Mia Hamm are permitted to diarize appointments for TestResources.
What actions must you take to comply with the ABC.com policy?
A. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set- MailboxCalendarSettings - Identity"TestResources" - MonthCalendar calendar = new
MonthCalendar(); KaraLang , MiaHamm.
B. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set-MailboxCalendarSettings - Identity " TestResources" - BookInPolicy KaraLang , MiaHamm
-AllBookInPolicy $false cmdlet.
C. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set - MonthCalendar calendar = new MonthCalendar(); “host.KaraLang , MiaHamm = calendar
" this.Content = host;.
D. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set - MonthCalendar calendar = new MonthCalendar();
HwndSource source = HwndSource.FromHwnd(calendar.Handle);
this.Content = calendar;Delegates KaraLang , MiaHamm.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as the Exchange Administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. ABC.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Paris and Berlin. The marketing department is located at the Paris office. The personnel in Paris connect to the network through the Internet and use Outlook Anywhere on their laptops. To ensure productivity management wants you to make sure that the marketing personnel have access to the companies' mailboxes.
What actions must you take?
A. You should utilize the Test- MAPIConnectivity and the Test- WebServicesConnectivity cmdlet.
B. You should utilize Get- Recipient – Filter cmdlet.
C. You should utilize Show-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D. You should utilize List-Mailbox cmdlet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. The Edge Transport Server role is installed on a server named ABC-EX01. Due to this server failure, you have decided to install a new Microsoft Windows Server 2003 server named ABCEX03 on the network with the reinstallation of the Edge Transport Server role. However, the address rewrites that was functional on ABC-EX01 did not in operation on ABC-EX03. This functionality is needed.
What actions must you take?
A. You should use the ImportEdgeConfig.ps1 on ABC-EX03.
B. You should use the iiscnfg/enable: application name check version.
C. You should use the Transaction Logs for sp_configure configuration.
D. You should use create a new Send connector on ABC-EX03.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has headquarters in London and a branch office in Paris. The Exchange Server 2007 server in the London office is named ABCEX07 and the Exchange Server 2003 server in the London office is named ABC-EX08. You need to transfer the mailbox from ABC-EX07 to ABC-EX08.
What actions must you take?
A. You should include the IgnoreRuleLimitErrors parameter when using the Move-Mailbox
cmdlet.
B. You should use the System configuration data collector.
C. You should create a mapping schema definition.
D. You should enable the Windows Remote Management (WinRM).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. You are implementing a new Exchange Server 2007 Organization. The Exchange Server 2007 environment of ABC.com has the following server installed:
• An Edge Transport server named ABC-EX01
• A Hub Transport server named ABC-EX02.
During the course of the day you have received instruction from the CIO to have e-mail routing configured on ABC-EX01 and ABC-EX02. In your solution you need to ensure that ABC-EX01 is able to transmit e-mail messages to and from the Internet. You should also ensure that Internet email is sent to ABC-EX01 via ABC-EX02.
What actions must you take?
A. You should use the Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM).
B. You should export a new Edge Subscription file to ABC-EX01 and Import the Edge
Subscription file to ABC-EX02.
C. You should use the Microsoft System Center Operations Manager (SCOM).
D. You should use the Microsoft Exchange Internet Message Access Protocol, Version 4
(IMAP4).
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. You were compelled to restore the directory objects and settings from a backup. However, after the restoration a number of employees reported that they are unable to access their mailboxes that were assigned to them before the backup was made. The employees need to access their mailboxes.
What actions must you take?
A. You should use the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
B. You should use the Get-MailboxInformation cmdlet.
C. You should use the Connect-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. You should use the Show-Information cmdlet.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. During routine maintenance of the Exchange server you discover that the storage limits are all different in the mailboxes.
What actions must you take to ensure that the storage limits to be the same?
A. You should use the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet and forward it to the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
B. You should use the Show-MailboxStatistics cmdlet and forward it to the Select-Object cmdlet.
C. You should use the Get-MailboxInformation cmdlet and forward it to the Select-Object cmdlet.
D. You should create an Exchange Management Shell script and forward the Get-Mailbox
Database cmdlet output to the Set-Mailbox Database cmdlet.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. The ABC.com network contains a stand-alone server named ABCSR09. Your boss, Tess King, wants to know which Exchange Server 2007 server role can ABC-SR09 support.
What would you reply?
A. It can support the Terminal Service Session Broker (TS Session Broker) role.
B. It can support the Edge Transport server role.
C. It can support the PDC emulator role.
D. It can support the Exchange Recipient Administrators role.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as the Exchange Administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 infrastructure that has two Client Access Servers with load balancing. The employees on the intranet has 24/7 access to data when utilizing Outlook Anywhere. During the course of the day you have received instruction from the CIO to ensure that the employees who connect to the Exchange infrastructure via the IUnernet also have access to data 24/7.
What actions must you take?
A. You should enable the Microsoft Exchange Information Store.
B. You should enable the Microsoft Exchange Search Service.
C. You should set the external URL on every Client Access Server.
D. You should enable the Microsoft Exchange File Distribution service.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as the Exchange administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment. You have received several complaints from employees in various departments stating that e-mail messages are ending up in their Junk E-mail folder even though the sender’s e-mail address is on their Safe Senders List. You need to ensure that the employees' Safe Senders Lists are used.
What actions must you take?
A. You should modify the SMTP Send connectors.
B. You should utilize the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. You should utilize the Show-Information cmdlet.
D. You should utilize the Update-SafeList cmdlet on each mailbox.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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