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Question 1.
When you have multiple SYMAPI databases how do you determine which SYMAPI database is in use?
A. defined in ORACLE_SID
B. /usr/symcli/bin/symapi_db.bin
C. defined in SYMCLI_DB_FILE or default
D. /usr/symapi/db/symapi_db.bin
Answer: C
Question 2.
Define the size of the Save area in a Symmetrix.
A. Space should be allocated based on the amount of write activity to virtual devices
B. Space should be allocated based on the number of virtual devices
C. Space should be allocated based on the amount of total I/O activity
D. Space should be allocated based on the number of established pairs
Answer: A
Question 3.
Name the symrdf argument which makes a copy of data on target Symmetrix volumes available to target hosts only.
A. failback
B. failover
C. establish
D. split
E. restore
Answer: B
Question 4.
Name the purpose of the -symopt option of the symmir command in Time Finder.
A. It eliminates the need to specify a device for each subsequent establish and restore sequence
B. It makes a one-to-one pairing based on the order in which the devices were added
C. It allows the Symmetrix to determine the best device for the BCV pair
D. It uses a round robin routine to establish the BCV pairs
Answer: A
Question 5.
For a Data Migration implementation, what is the primary benefit from using Robocopy?
A. Minimum network impact
B. Seamless integration with NFS
C. Maintains file and directory NTFS security from source to destination
D. Maintains drive letter from migration source
Answer: C
Question 6.
Name the command which will perform a restore of DEV001 from volume VDEV002.
A. symsnap -g proddg restore VDEV002 ld DEV001
B. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 pd VDEV002
C. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 ld VDEV002
D. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 vdev ld VDEV002
Answer: D
Question 7.
On a TimeFinder split command what does the PowerPath (-ppath) option do?
A. The -ppath option is not valid on the split command
B. Allows the use of native host devices for the split by passing PowerPath
C. Forces the split command to be processed on only one path
D. Suspends I/O to PowerPath devices before splitting
Answer: D
Question 8.
Name the platform the XCopy Data Migration application supports?
A. IBM AIX
B. Sun Solaris
C. Red Hat Linux
D. Windows 2000
Answer: D
Question 9.
For a successful SRDF/A implementation, what is the most important requirement?
A. Amount of cache must be calculated for the secondary site
B. Amount of cache must be calculated for the primary site
C. Distance must be greater than60 Kilometers
D. Must calculate the back end disk impact at the primary site
Answer: B
Question 10.
For Remote Replication, what special considerations for database environments are there?
A. All data must be mirrored in Synchronous Mode only
B. All data must be consistent point-in-time copies
C. Tablespace and log files must be fully synchronized
D. Log files must be ahead of tablespaces
Answer: B
Question 11.
An SRDF/AR configuration for disaster recovery is what your customer has. For recovery and backup at both locations, they want to have identical database copies.
Name the TimeFinder option in a SRDF environment which will allow simultaneous point in time copies at both locations.
A. Use SRDF commands
B. Consistent instant split using the both_sides option
C. Split with consistent instant
D. Split with both_sides option
E. Not Supported
Answer: D
Question 12.
When performing a Data Migration where the storage devices are non-Symmetrix, which migration option should be considered?
A. Host-based Mirroring
B. SnapView
C. SRDF-DM
D. TimeFinder
Answer: A
Question 13.
Name two [2] implications of using a symmir command to establish a device group and then splitting it before the devices are synchronized.
A. Next establish should be full
B. Split operation must wait for the establish to complete
C. Must use -force -symforce options
D. Must restore corrupted data to BCV from tape
Answer: A, C
Question 14.
For a Data Migration implementation, what is a primary benefit when using the Data Relocation Utility (DRU)?
A. Target volume can be mounted at the same time as the source
B. Source volume remains available for read/write
C. Both source and target volumes are enabled as read only
D. Target volume is read/write enabled
Answer: B
Question 15.
Name the characteristic of Cache Only Virtual Devices (COVD).
A. Required for R1 devices only
B. Preserves pointers of the Delta Sets on the target device
C. Stores Delta Sets on the target device
D. Prevents cycle switching until data is on disk
Answer: B
Question 16.
Name the two [2] actions which would perform the command symsnap -g proddg and create DEV001 vdev ld VDEV001.
A. Sets the track protection bitmap against the source device
B. A hold is placed on VDEV001
C. The copy on first write algorithm starts
D. VDEV001 is set to NR
Answer: A, B
Question 17.
In an environment of two different types of storage systems accessible by the same host, which Data Migration option for Veritas Volume Manager would work best?
A. Host Based Mirroring
B. Active Replication
C. Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR)
D. True Copy
Answer: A
Question 18.
If both the old and new storage devices are connected to a Windows host at the same
time, which application would best meet a Data Migration requirement?
A. Data Relocation Utility (DRU)
B. SysCopy
C. Volume Replicator
D. SRDF/A
Answer: A
Question 19.
Name two [2] Geospan agents which must be configured in a geographically dispersed Veritas Cluster Server running an Oracle database.
A. TimeFinder agent
B. Master agent
C. Device Group agent
D. Symmetrix agent
E. SRDF agent
F. Oracle agent
Answer: C, E
Question 20.
Name the four [4] functions which can be performed with the symmir command.
A. Restore from a BCV device to a standard device
B. Query a BCV pair
C. Associate a BCV with a Standard device
D. Remove a BCV from the device group
E. Concurrently establish BCV pairs
F. Establish a BCV pair
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 21.
In a disaster recovery configuration, in which SRDF mode is it normal for the Target Volume to be more than one I/O out of sync with the Source Volume?
A. Asynchronous Mode
B. Synchronous Mode
C. Adaptive Copy Mode
D. Semi-Synchronous Mode
Answer: A
Question 22.
Name the command which will give you the following output.
Symmetrix CLI (SYMCLI) Version: V5.4.0.0 (Edit Level: 532)
Built with SYMAPI Version: V5.4.0.0 (Edit Level: 532)
SYMAPI Run Time Version: V5.4.0.0 (Edit Level: 532)
SYMAPI Mapping Run Time Version: V5.4.0.0 (Edit Level: 532)
A. symstat
B. symcli -version
C. symcli
D. symrslv -version
Answer: D
Question 23.
On a raw logical volume how does an application access data?
A. It uses the list of inode
B. It is internal to the application
C. It checks the file system buffer
D. It gets the location of the data blocks from the Master File Table
Answer: B
Question 24.
Name the function of SRDF/A.
A. Multiple groups
B. Supports BCV mirroring
C. Multiple checkpoints
D. Limited SRDF mirror distance
Answer: C
Question 25.
Name the primary benefit of a geographical dispersed cluster that protects against full site failure.
A. Automated application restart
B. Dynamic R1/R2 swap
C. Presence of redundant SRDF links
D. Mirrored data at remote site
Answer: A
Question 26.
Name the TimeFinder command which has a full device copy option.
A. symbcv
B. symioctl
C. symsnap
D. symmir
E. symclone
Answer: E
Question 27.
In a Geospan environment, which SRDF primary mode should be used?
A. Adaptive Copy Disk mode
B. Adaptive Copy Write pending mode
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: C
Question 28.
The production file system was left mounted on a UNIX host, when a TimeFinder split operation was performed.
Name the Operating System command which should be executed to ensure the integrity of the copy of the file system on the BCV before mounting it.
A. File system check
B. Check disk operation
C. TimeFinder restore
D. Database checkpoint recover
Answer: A
Question 29.
The Data Migration application Robocopy supports which platform?
A. Sun Solaris
B. Sun Veritas
C. Windows 2000
D. IBM AIX
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The picture shows CPU at 100% in VM, not CPU shortage on ESX server. A, D – these 2 options both increase the amount of CPU allocated to VM B,C – these 2 options change the physical CPU allocated to VM, but this was not the problem shown
Question 2.
An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console. By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total available memory.
Question 3.
An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual
machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Reason for not protected status Description
Starting Fault Tolerance is in the process of starting the Secondry VM. This is message is only visibale for a short period of time.
Need Secondary VM
[ C above ] The Primary VM is running without a Secondary VM, so the Primary VM is Currently not protected. This generally occurs when there is no compatible host in the duster available for the Secondary VM. Correct this by bringing a compatible host online. If there is a compatible host online in the cluster further investigation might be required. Under certain circumstances, disabling Fault Tolerance and then re-enabling it corrects this problem.
Disabled
[ A above ] Fault Tolerance is currently disabled (no Secondary VM is running). This happends when Fault Tolerance is disabled by the user or when vCenter Server disableds Fault Tolarance after being unable to power on the Secondary VM.
VM not Running Fault Tolerance is enbled but the virtual machine is powered off Power on the virtual machine to reach Protected state.
untitled
Table 3-2. Reasons for Primary VM Not Protected Status
Part 3: Create and Configure Resource Pools (14 questions).
Question 4.
Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 5.
An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
untitled
Question 6.
ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine’s that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to them, swapping and page sharing does not occur. You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance. If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has. By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on. The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file. The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.
Question 7.
What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
untitled
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-
50/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc_50/GUID-3B5AF2B1-C534-4426-
B97A-D14019A8010F.html
Question 8.
Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O
Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID-
38F95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
Question 9.
An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Option Description
untitled
Question 10.
An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness
(VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity, performance, availability, redundancy, and so on. If a storage system uses Storage APIs – Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. VCenter Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents. You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one userdefined capability at a time.
Question 11.
Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B
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