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Question 1.
Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix? (Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between SRDF
Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously paired with
two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D
Question 5.
In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN.
What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B
Question 6.
In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read request.
What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on a host with Power Path fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. Power Path receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed
path offline
B. Power Path receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. Power Path takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and receives I/O
timeout
D. Power Path takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in Control Center?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which of the following statements best describes Control Center Auto fixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A
Question 12.
What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which of the following Windows-based applications in Control Center displays Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. Storage Scope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D
Question 15.
Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. Timer Finder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. Control Center
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D, E
Question 16.
Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix system?
A. Control Center Symmetrix Manager
B. Visual SRM
C. Control Center Automated Resource Manager
D. Control Center Storage Scope
Answer: A
Question 17.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Control Center agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. Control Center agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All Control Center agents communicate with each other
D. Control Center agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A
Question 18.
Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A, B
Question 19.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A
Question 20.
What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in Control Center?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C
Question 21.
Which of the following is a feature of TimeFinder/Snap?
A. The recoverable copy of the Source device is available instantly at a remote site
B. The capacity required for the Snap copy must be the same as that of the Source device
C. The capacity required for the Snap copy can be less than that of the Source device
D. The Snap copy must be fully established with the Source device before the Snap copy is
accessible
Answer: C
Question 22.
What is the purpose of Symmetrix Manager in Control Center?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: D
Question 23.
Which of the following databases can iSCSI initiators use to discover Targets?
A. WINS
B. iSNS
C. NIS
D. DNS
Answer: B
Question 24.
Where is the initial microcode program load file - IMPL.bin - stored in Symmetrix?
A. Global Cache Memory and Service Processor
B. Service Processor and Director boards
C. Global Cache Memory and Communication Control Card
D. Director boards and Communication Control Card
Answer: B
Question 25.
Which of the following components in Symmetrix presents devices to hosts?
A. Disk Director
B. Channel Director
C. Global Cache Memory
D. Communication Control Module
Answer: B
Question 26.
Which of the following statements is true the CLARiiON write cache?
A. To maintain free space, the cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes
B. To maintain free space, the cache is flushed using three algorithms: Idle, Watermark and
Forced
C. To maintain free space, low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations
D. To maintain free space, the cache is flushed only during read operations
Answer: B
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Question 1.
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for
this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for
overflow.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the
Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the
Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service
platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 4.
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?
A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
B. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
C. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Installation Wizard?
A. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS
system
B. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
C. recover a Cisco CRS system
D. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
What is a benefit of using sub flows?
A. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
B. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
C. collects information about callers to agents
D. decreases the amount of flows
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 10.
In the CRS Application Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. Toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Variable window
D. Design window
Answer: A
Explanation:
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